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Phase 3A > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 risk factors of ADHD

A

Preterms, oppositional defiant disorder, mood disorders, epilepsy, looked-after children, close family history, neurodevelopmental disorders, history substance misuse, acquired brain injury, people known to youth justice/criminal justice system

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2
Q

DSM-5; how many criteria for inattention or hyperactivity/impulsivity for a) up to 16, b)17 and over

A

a) at least 6
b) at least 5
Must be present for 6 months

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3
Q

First line medication for over 5s with ADHD

A

methylphenidate (stimulant medication)

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4
Q

2nd line and 3rd line medications ADHD

A

2nd=(lis)dexamfetamine, 3rd=atomexetine, guanfacine

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5
Q

Monitoring requirements for stimulant medications

A

Height (6/12) and weight (3/12) in children, HR and BP.

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6
Q

Methylphenidate side effects

A

Increased BP and HR, loss of appetite, trouble sleeping, headaches, stomach aches, mood swings

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7
Q

5 causes of breast pain leading to breast-feeding problems

A

Engorgement, blocked ducts, galactocele, ductal infection, mastitis and breast abscess

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8
Q

How to manage breast engorgement?

A

Feed infant with no restrictions, simple analgesia, massage breast, express to relieve full breasts, heat before feeding, cold after

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9
Q

How to manage blocked breast ducts?

A

Feed from affected breast frequently, heat packs, warm showers pre feeding, gentle massage with firm movements towards nipple

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10
Q

How to manage galactocele?

A

Continue breastfeeding, refer

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11
Q

How to manage bacterial breast ductal infection?

A

Flucloxacillin 500mg QDS 10-14 days

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12
Q

How to manage fungal/candida infection (breast duct)?

A

Fluconazole 150-300mg single dose then 50-100mg bd 10-14 days

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13
Q

5 causes of nipple pain leading to breast-feeding problems?

A

Physiological milk let-down pain, nipple damage, blocked duct, nipple infection, skin conditions eg eczema/paget’s disease of nipple/psoriasis, nipple vasospasm

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14
Q

How do you distinguish bacterial from candidal nipple infection?

A

Bacterial=purulent discharge, crusting, redness, fissuring

Candidal=bilateral burning, itching, hypersensitivity

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15
Q

How do you manage a bacterial nipple infection?

A

Fusidic acid 2% cream 5-7 days, applied after each feed

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16
Q

How do you manage candida nipple infection?

A

Miconazole 2% cream, treat woman and infant at same time

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17
Q

Paget’s disease of the nipple management?

A

Urgent 2 week cancer pathway referral

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18
Q

3 causes of low milk supply to baby

A

Insufficient access to breast, ineffective infant positioning and attachment, maternal prolactin deficiency

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19
Q

2 causes of milk oversupply

A

Ineffective infant positioning and attachment (lots of suckling), breastfeeding pattern

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20
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

Fatigue, cold intolerance, wt gain, constipation, weakness, arthralgia, myalgia, menstrual irregularities, infertility, depression, dry skin, hair loss, oedema, goitre, bradycardia, pericardial effusion, peripheral neuropathy

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21
Q

TFTs for primary, secondary, postpartum thyroiditis for hypothyroidism

A

Primary=TSH above normal, FT4 low
Secondary= TSH low and FT4 low
Postpartum= TSH raised within a year of giving birth

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22
Q

Treatment of overt primary hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine-empty stomach in morning before other food or medication

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23
Q

If autoimmune thyroid disease suspected, what to test?

A

Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb)

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24
Q

Red flags of infantile GOR and what they suggets

A

projectile (pyloric stenosis), bile-stained vomit (obstruction), haematemesis (bleed), peristing after 1 year or onset after first 6 months (consider alternate diagnosis eg UTI), blood in stool (inflammation or infection), abdo distension/mass (obstruction), chronic diarrhoea (cows’ milk protein allergy)

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25
Q

Management of infantile GOR:

A

breastfeeding assessment, review formula fed infants- try smaller feeds. Consider 4 week trial PPI of H2RA who seem distressed and have faltering growth

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26
Q

What type of anaemia is caused by B12 and folate deficiency?

A

Macrocyctic

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27
Q

Most common causes of severe vit B12 deficiency?

A

Pernicious anaemia (autoimmune, reduced production of intrinsic factor),anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

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28
Q

Causes of folate deficiency?

A

Problems with dietary intake, increased folate usage, malabsorption eg coeliac (anti-endomysial or anti-transglutaminase antibodies)

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29
Q

Treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia?

A

IM Hydroxocobalamin. Foods with good B12- eggs, fortified products, meat, milk and dairy, salmon and cod. If dietary related, offer oral cyanocobalamin

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30
Q

How to treat folate deficiency anaemia?

A

Oral folic acid. Dietary sources=asparagus, broccoli, brown rice, brussels sprouts, chickpeas, peas

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31
Q

What type of care plan is used in generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Stepped care plan:
1=identify and assess-education on GAD and treatment options, active monitoring
2=Hasn’t improved after 1-low intensity pyschological interventions; individual non-facilitated or guided self help and psychoeducational groups
3=GAD not responding to 2-choice of high intensity psychological intervention or drug treatment
4=Very marked functional impairment/refractory to complex treatment GAD- specialist treatment

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32
Q

First line pharmacological treatment of GAD?
Second line?
Third line?

A

SSRI eg sertraline
Second= SNRI (serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor) or other SSRI eg paroxetine or venlaxafine
Third= pregabalin

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33
Q

What non pharmacological treatment options are there for GAD?

A

CBT, applied relaxation, self help (facilitated or guided)

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34
Q

How to treat Social anxiety disorder in children? and in adults?

A

Children-CBT

Adults-CBT then try SSRI

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35
Q

Microvascular complications of type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

retinopathy, nephropathy and neuropathy

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36
Q

Macrovascular complications of T1DM?

A

myocardial infarction, stroke, peripheral arterial disease

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37
Q

What clinical features in an adult for a diagnosis of T1DM?

A

Hypergylcaemia + at least one of:
Ketosis, rapid weight loss, age of onset <50 (don’t discount if over), BMI below 25 (don’t discount if over), personal/family history of autoimmune disease

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38
Q

Clinical features for diagnosis of T1DM in children?

A

Hyperglycaemia and polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, excessive tiredness

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39
Q

When to suspect DKA?

A

known diabetes or significant hyperglycaemia with increased thirst/urinary frequency, wt loss, inability to tolerate fluids, D/V, abdo pain, visual disturbance, lethargy/confusion, fruity smell of acetone on breath, dehydration, acidotic breathing (Kussmaul respiration), shock

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40
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

Mild=hunger, anxiety, sweating, tingling lips, irritability, palpitations, tremor
As glucose levels falls= weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, incoordination, confusion, deterioration of cognitive function
Severe=convulsions, inability to swallow, loss of consciousness, coma

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41
Q

Target HbA1c for insulin therapy in T1DM? How often to measure HbA1c?

A

48mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower.

Measure every 3-6 months.

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42
Q

Optimal targets for glucose self-monitoring?

A

At least 4 times a day
Fasting plasma glucose=5-7mmol/L on waking
Plasma glucose 4-7 mmol/L before meals
5-9mmol/L at least 90 minutes after eating

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43
Q

Examples of lifestyle advice for T1DM?

A

Smoking cessation, regular exercise, avoid drinking on an empty stomach, carb-counting

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44
Q

DKA treatment?

A

Admit immediately for confirmation and emergency treatment with IV insulin, sodium chloride, include potassium chloride in fluids (unless anuria suspected)

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45
Q

Options for insulin regimes?

A

Multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens.
Mixed/biphasic regimen (2 or 3 insulin injections per day)
Continuous insulin infusion (pump).

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46
Q

5 factors that show an increased prevalence of autism?

A

Sibling with autism, CNS malformation/dysfunction, gestation <35 weeks, parental schizophrenia-like psychosis, maternal use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, learning disability, ADHD, encephalopathy, chromosomal disorders, genetic disorders, neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis

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47
Q

What domains are assessed to aid a diagnosis of autism (broad categories of signs and symptoms)?

A

spoken language, responding to others, interacting with others, eye contact/pointing/gestures, ideas and imagination, interest and behaviours, other factors

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48
Q

How to help manage autism in adulthood?

A

Social learning programmes, structured leisure activity programmes, anti-victimisation interventions, supported employment programmes.AVOID medications

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49
Q

5 intrinsic risk factors of DVT?

5 RF that temporarily raise likelihood of DVT?

A

Intrinsic: history of DVT, cancer, age>60, overweight, male, HF, acquired or familiar thrombophilia, inflammatory disorders, varicose veins, smoking

Temporary: recent majoro surgery, recent hospitilisation, recent trauma, chemotherapy, significant immobility, prolonged travel, trauma to a vein, pregnancy and postpartum period, dehydration

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50
Q

Signs and symptoms of DVT?

A

Unilateral localised pain occurring when walking or bearing weight, and calf swelling. Tenderness. Skin changes-oedema, redness, warmth. Vein distension

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51
Q

What score (GP) to assess probability of DVT in suspected DVT? Describe

A

Two-level DVT Wells Score:
1 point for each of: active cancer, paralysis/paresis/recent plaster immobilisation of legs, recently bedridden for 3 days or more/major surgery within last 12 weeks, localised tenderness along distribution of deep venous system, entire leg swollen, calf swollen by more than 3cm compared to asx leg, pitting oedema confined to symptomatic leg, collateral superficial veins, previously documented DVT

Subtract two points if alternative cause is considered at least as likely as DVT

DVT likely if score is two points of more.

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52
Q

People with ‘likely’ DVT; what investigations?

A

Proximal leg vein ultrasound scan with results in 4 hours.

If can’t, then D-dimer, then interim therapeutic anticoagulation (apixaban or rivaroxaban are first line, if not use LMWH with vit K anatagonist) and ultrasound with results within 24 hours

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53
Q

Choices of anticoagulant for DVT? With classes

A

Warfarin (vit K antagonist), apixaban (factor Xa inhibitor), dabigatran (thrombin inhibitor), edoxoban (factor Xa inhibitor), rivaroxaban (factor Xa inhibitor)

DOACs = apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, rivaroxaban

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54
Q

What should be included in discussions for advance care planning for people with motor neurone disease?

A

Advance decisions to refuse treatment (ADRT), DNACPR, lasting power of attorney. Discuss providing anticipatory medications for in the home.

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55
Q

What medication to you give for muscle problems eg cramps in MND?

A

Quinine for cramps.

2nd line=baclofen. 3rd line=gabapentin

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56
Q

4 types of MND?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), progressive bulbar palsy, progressive muscular atrophy, primary lateral sclerosis

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57
Q

How might MND present?

A

functional effects of muscular weakness eg trips
speech/swallowing problems or tongue fasciculations
muscle problems
breathing problems
effects of reduced respiratory function
may have cognitive features; behavioural changes, emotional lability, frontotemporal dementia

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58
Q

How does androgenic alopecia affect women and men?

A

Women-thinning in density of hair at crown and frontal scalp, widening of central parting. Rarely results in areas of total hair loss. 1/3 of white women over 70.

Men-initially involves front and sides of scalp and progresses towards back of head. 2/3 of white men by age 30.

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59
Q

How to treat alopecia?

A

Aesthetic solutions eg wigs
Pharmacologically:
Women=topical minoxidil 2% solution indefinitely (private)
Men=topical minoxidil or finasteride (private)

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60
Q

What scale is used to assess severity of hair loss in women?

A

Ludwig scale

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61
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Opacity that forms within lens. Leads to gradual and painless reduction in visual clarity and sharpness.

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62
Q

Causes of cataracts?

A

Most due to ageing and most common over age of 60.

Trauma, eye disease, systemic disease eg diabetes, congenital and developmental cataracts in children

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63
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Damage to the optic nerve; asymptomatic to begin with but slowly deteriorates, affecting peripheral vision first (chronic open angle glaucoma)

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64
Q

What must you monitor in COAG?

A

Visual field assessments, optic nerve assessments, fundus examinations, central corneal thickness measurement, gonioscopy.

Intra-optical pressure measurement!

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65
Q

What IOP is optical hypertension and risks visual impairment at some stage in life? How to treat?

A 
More than 24mmHg
Prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eg lantanoprost
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66
Q

Serious differential diagnoses for red eye? (name 4)

A

acute glaucoma, corneal ulcer, contact-lens related, corneal foreign body, anterior uveitis, scleritis, trauma, chemical injuries, neonatal conjunctivits

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67
Q

Who must you always refer on to ophthalmologist with red eye?

A

Contact lens wearer! Anyone with suspected serious, potentially sight-threatening cause of red eye

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68
Q

Non-urgent causes of red eye? Name 3

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage, episcleritis, ectropian/entropian trichiasis, blepharitis, infective/allergic conjunctivitis, corneal abrasion, dry eye, subtarsalar conjunctival foreign body

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69
Q

Describe common migraine presentation

A

Unilateral, pulsating or throbbing and lasts 4-72 hours
Symptoms aggravated by or cause avoidance of routine ADLs
With or without aura (transient focal neurolhical symptoms)
A/w nausea and/or vomiting and/or photophobia and phonophobia

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70
Q

Episodic vs chronic migraine?

A

Episodic=less than 15 days per month

Chronic=occurs on at least 15 days per month for more than 3 months

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71
Q

Management migraine?

A

Headache diary, avoidance known triggers, restriction of acute medication to max of 2 days per week (if medication overuse headache), ensure women who have migraine with aura not using combined hormonal contraceptive

Acute treatment=simple analgesia, oral triptan eg sumatriptan, consider offering anti-emetic eg metoclopramide

Preventative if indicated= propranolol or topiramate or amitriptyline

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72
Q

Differential diagnoses of acute cough (less than 3 weeks)?

A

Upper respiratory tract infection, coronavirus disease, acute exacerbation of pre-existing condition, acute bronchitis, pneumonia, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism

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73
Q

Alcoholism which questionnaires can be used?

A

AUDIT-C then AUDIT if scores over 3 (Alcohol use disorders identification test). Total out of 40- if over 8 indicator of hazardous use, if over 20-assisted alcohol withdrawal needed

SADQ-severity of alcohol dependence questionnaire (20qs) or LDQ - leeds dependence questionnaire

APQ-alcohol problems questionnaire

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74
Q

Assisted alcohol withdrawal using which class of drug?

A

Benzodiazepine eg chlordiazepoxide or diazepam

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75
Q

After successful alcohol withdrawal, use what medications for maintenance?

A

Acamprosate-asap after withdrawal 1998mg unless less than 60kg=max 1332mg/day. Prescribe for up to 6 months

or Naltrexone-25mg/day and aim for maintenance of 50mg/day for up to 6 months

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76
Q

How does disulfiram work (alcohol withdrawal)?

A

Given at least 24 hours after last alcholic drink. 200mg/day. Produces an acute sensitivity to ethanol.

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77
Q

Natural history of HIV

A

Primary HIV infectiom/HIV seroconversion illness= flu-like. Between 10 days-6 weeks

Asymptomatic stage after PHI symptoms resolve

Advanced HIV disease (AIDS) when CD4<200 with AIDS-defining illnesses

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78
Q

Name for AIDS defining conditions: 1 neoplasm, 1 bacterial infection, 1 viral infection, 1 parasitic infection and 1 fungal infection

A

Neoplasm: cervical cancer, NHL, Kaposi’s sarcoma

Bacterial: TB, recurrent pneumonia, salmonella septicaemia

Viral: cytomegalovirus retinitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Parasitic: cerebral toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis diarhhoea, isosporiasis, atypical disseminated leishmaniaisis

Fungal: pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), candidiases, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, penicillosis

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79
Q

Who should we test for HIV?

A

People who request testing, people with RFs, people with another STI, have an indicator condition/clinical features of HIV, newly registered with a GP , all pregnant women, all children at risk of HIV infection

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80
Q

What should be involved in pre-HIV test counselling?

A

Benefits of HIV testing, details of how results will be given, significance of window period (repeat test may be needed during the 4-6 weeks it takes for antibodies to appear, may be up to 12 weeks), result will need to go into medical records, ensure informed consent given for the test

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81
Q

When to suspect prepatellar bursitis?

A

Localised swelling over patella, swelling is fluctuant (movable and compressible), normal range of joint movement (in contrast to septic arthritis), person reports max discomfort at extreme flexion of knee, preceding trauma or bursal disease (eg RA, gout, traumatic bursitis)

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82
Q

What investigations for pre-patellar bursitis?

A

Examination; swelling, erythema overlying patella, systemic signs of infection eg fever, increased warmth of skin overlying affected bursa compared to contralat knee, traumatic skin lesions overlying bursa
Diagnostic aspiration to differentiate septic bursitis from aseptic, bloods, imaging if dx unclear

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83
Q

Management pre-patellar bursitis?

A

Consider admission if systemically unwell or systemic bursitis, abscess, or immunocompromised

If clinically confident non-septic bursitis-advice RICE, simple analgesia.

If uncomplicated septic bursitis: aspirate bursal fluid, treat empirically to cover staph and strep eg flucloxacillin

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84
Q

Risk factors for osteoarthritis?

A

Genetic
Biological-increasing age, female sex, obesity, high bone density (development), low bone density (rapid progression)
Biomechanical-joint injury and damage, joint laxity and reduced muscle strength, joint malalignment, exercise stresses, occupational stresses

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85
Q

Features of osteoarthrtis?

A

Activity related joint pain, no morning joint-related stiffness (or less than 30 mins), functional impairment, tend to be over 45 years old

On examination: bony swelling and joint deformity, joint effusions(mostly knee), joint warmth, muscle wasting and weakness, restricted and painful range of joint movement, crepitus, joint instability

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86
Q

OA of the knee features?

Compartments and associated pain?

A

Bilat and symmetrical. Pain localised to associated compartment (medial or lateral tibiofemoral or patellofemoral).
Unilat OA of knee usually secondary to trauma or disease
Medial tibiofemoral-anteromedial pain mainly on walking
Lateral tibiofemoral-anterolateral pain mainly on walking
Patellofemoral-anterior knee pain worsened on inclines or stairs especially going down and progressive aching on prolonged sitting which is resolved on standing

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87
Q

Management OA of knee?

A

Self care management-wt loss, muscle strengthening exercises, appropriate footwear, heat/cold packs
Simple analgesia-paracetamol and topical NSAIDs
If simple analgesia doesn’t work- consider oral NSAIDs, opioids, topical capsaicin
Consider referrals for physio, OT, orthopaedics, podiatrist

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88
Q

What would COPD show on spirometry?

A

Peristent airflow obstruction

FEV1/FVC less than 0.7

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89
Q

If abnormal, what may be seen on examination with COPD?

A

Cyanosis, raised JVP, cachexia, hyperinflation of the chest, use of accessory muscles/purse lip breathing, wheeze and/or crackles on auscultation of the chest

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90
Q

What scale to assess breathlessness in COPD?

A

MRC (medical research council) dyspnoea scale
1=not troubled by breathlessness except during strenuous exercise
2=SOB on slight hill or hurrying
3=walks slower than contemporaries due to SOB
4=stops for breath after 100m or few minutes
5=breathless when dressing, too breathless to leave the house

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91
Q

How to treat acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

Consider admission.
If no admission required, increase dose or frequency of short-acting bronchodilators eg salbutamol or terbutaline. If no CIs, consider oral corticosteroids. Consider need for antibiotic-first choice is amoxicillin/doxycycline/clarithromycin

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92
Q

Management stable COPD?

A

Smoking cessation, pneumococcal and influenza vaccinations, pulmonary rehabilitation if indicated.
SABA (salbutamol, terbutaline) or SAMA (ipratropium) for breathless people and exercise limitation.
If no asthmatic features/steroid responsivenss; LABA (formoterol, salmeterol, indaceterol) and LAMA (tiotropium)
If asthmatic features, consider LABA plus ICS

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93
Q

Differential diagnoses of D+V?

A

Gastroenteritis-children tend to be norovirus

Food poisoning

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94
Q

Name 3 causes of shoulder pain

A

Rotator cuff, frozen shoulder, instability disorders, acromioclavicular joint disorders, glenohumeral joint OA, inflammatory or septic arthritis

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95
Q

Red flags in shoulder pain and what they might suggest?

A

Sudden loss of ability to actively raise arm-?rotator cuff tear
Mass or swelling-?malignancy
Red skin/painful joint/fever-?septic arthritis
Loss of rotation and abnormal shape-?shoulder dislocation
Inflammation in several joints-?Inflammatory arthritis

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96
Q

Management of a frozen shoulder?

A

Maintain movement but avoid movements which worsen pain
Analgesic ladder
Hot packs
Support arm with pillows in bed
Physiotherapy
Consider glenohumeral corticosteroid injection

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97
Q

How to manage rotator cuff disorder?

A

Rest in the acute phase
Physio
Corticosteroid injection
Analgesia

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98
Q

Name 4 risk factors for CKD?

A

Hypertension, DM, glomerular disease, AKI, nephrotoxic drugs (eg aminoglycosides, ACEi, ARBs), structural renal tract disease, BPH, SLE, vasculitis, myeloma, cardiovascular disease, obesity with metabolic syndrome

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99
Q

Describe the staging of CKD

A 
Stage 1=>90mL/min/1.73m2 (eGFR)=normal
Stage 2=60-89=mild reduction
Stage 3a=45-59=mild to moderate
Stage 3b=30-44=moderate to severe reduction
Stage 4=15-29=severe
Stage 5=<15=kidney failure
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100
Q

Management of CKD?

A

Assess for and manage RFs and co-morbidities of CKD.
Assess for htn and treat (caution)
Healthy lifestyle measures
Avoid over-the-counter NSAIDs
Monitor renal function-serum creatinine and eGFR and urinary albumin:creatinine (ACR), FBC

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101
Q

Management of dyspepsia?

A

Lifestyle: lose weight, avoid trigger foods, smaller meals and evening meal 3-4 hours before bed, stop smoking, reduced alcohol
Assess for stress and anxiety
Review medications esp. NSAIDs
Prescribe PPI eg omeprazole/lansoprazole for 1 month
Test for H.pylori

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102
Q

How do you confirm diagnosis of GORD?

A

Endoscope

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103
Q

RFs for GORD? Name 4

A

Stress and anxiety, smoking, alcohol, trigger foods (eg coffee, chocolate, fatty foods), obesity, drugs decreasing LOS pressure (alpha and beta blockers, NSAIDs, CCB, nitrates etc), pregnancy, hiatus hernia, family history

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104
Q

Management of proven GORD?

A 
Lifestyle measures
Sleep with head of bed raised
Medication review
Full dose PPI for 4 weeks
If persistent/recurrent, consider switching to H2RA for a month eg ranitidine
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105
Q

Name 5 causes of scrotal swelling

A

Testicular torsion, testicular cancer, squamous cell carcinoma of scrotum, inguinal hernia, epididymo-orchitis, haematocele, epidiymal cyst or spermatocele, hydrocele, varicocele

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106
Q

When should you admit someone with inguinal hernia?

A

Features of strangulation or obstruction immediately
Infant or young boy-refer urgently to paeds surgeon
All others routinely referred

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107
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia position?

Why do they occur?

A

Hernia sac comes through inguinal floor medial to inferior epigastric artery and deep inguinal ring
If inguinal hernia extends into scrotum almost always indirect

Usually occurs because of a persistent processus vaginalis

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108
Q

Direct inguinal hernia position?

Why do they occur?

A

Hernia sac through the deep inguinal ring lateral to inferior epigastric artery

Occurs due to degeneration and fatty changes in aponeurosis of transversa;is fascia

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109
Q

Key things assessed in 6-8 week baby check?

A

Eyes (cataracts, red reflex), heart (murmurs), hip (DDH), testicles (see if undescended, if not descended by 6 months refer for surgery), weight, length, head circumference

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110
Q

Who is at risk of an AKI? (Name 5 risk factors)

A

CKD, HF, liver disease, DM, history AKI, oliguria, neuro/cognitive impairment, hypovolaemia, drugs (aminoglycosides, NSAIDs, ACEi, ARBs, diuretics), iodine-based contrast in past week, history urological obstruction, sepsis, deteriorating EWS, over 65

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111
Q

Definition of AKI

A

Increased serum creatinine by more than 26micromol/L in under 48 hours OR increased by 1.5 times the baseline OR urine volume<0.5ml/kg/hr for at least 6 hours

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112
Q

How do ACEi/ARBs affect AKI?

A

Cause hyperkalaemia. Altered haemodynamics-impair renal ability to maintain GFR when perfusion compromised

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113
Q

How do thiazide and loop diuretics affect AKI?

Potassium sparing?

A

Thiazide and loop: hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hyponatraemia. Overdiuresis leading to hypoperfusion of kidneys can exacerbate AKI.
Preferred in AKI: loop>thiazide>K sparing

K sparing: hypoperfusion of kidney. Avoid in AKI

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114
Q

Overall effect of anti-hypertensives in AKI?

A

Hypotension and may exacerbate renal hypoperfusion

115
Q

Positives of combined oral contraceptive?

A

Menstrual bleeding normally regular/lighter/less painful, decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, decreased acne severity, normally fertility returns immediately after stopping, sex uninterrupted (if started on day 1 of menstrual cycle, no additional contraception required), more effective than barrier methods (9% unintended pregnancies, 0.3% with perfect use)

116
Q

Disadvantages of progestogen only pill?

A

Must be taken at same time every day, no STI protection.

Adverse effects: menstrual irregularities, breast tenderness, ovarian cysts, ectopic pregnancy, increased risk of cancer

117
Q

Contraindications to COC pill?

A

MIGRAINE esp with aura, acute porphyrias, AF, Budd-Chiari, cardiomyopathy, current breast cancer, hepatocellular carcinoma, htn, IHD, less than 3 weeks postpartum, major surgery, PVD, antiphospholipid syndrome, DVT, smoking in patients over 35, stroke, SLE, TIA

118
Q

Most effective contraceptive offered on NHS?

A

Progestogen-only implant

119
Q

How to take POP?

A

Daily at same time, no pill-free interval. Started on days 1-5 of cycle (no barrier method required) if started later, other method of contraception required for 48 hours

120
Q

Describe the WHO analgesic ladder

A

Step 1=non-opioid (± adjuvant) eg NSAID, paracetamol
Step 2=mild opioid (± non-opioid ± adjuvant) eg codeine
Step 3= strong opioid (±non-opioid ± adjuvant) eg morphine or hydromorphone

Where adjuvants=antidepressants, anticonvulsants, corticosteroids, anxiolytics etc

121
Q

ECG signs for AF?

A

No p waves, irregularly irregular rhythm, absence of isoelectric baseline, variable ventricular rate, QRS less than 120ms, 100-175 bpm

122
Q

What scoring system used to calculate risk of stroke in AF and whether anticoagulation needed? Describe

A

CHA2DS2VASc score

Congestive heart failure
Hypertension 
Age over 75 (2 points)
Diabetes mellitus
Stroke or TIA (2 points)
Vascular disease 
Age 65-74
Sex category
123
Q

What scoring system to assess risk of bleeding in people on anticoagulation?

A

HAS-BLED

Hypertension
Renal disease
Liver disease
Stroke history
Prior major/disposition to bleeding 
Labile INR
>65 
Medication to predisposing to bleeding
Alcohol use (>8/week)
124
Q

Name 2 anticoagulants that are direct inhibitors of factor xa?

A

Apixaban

Rivaroxaban

125
Q

Mechanism of action of warfarin? Monitoring requirements?

A

Vitamin K antagonist

Calculate time to therapeutic range (TTR), monitor INR (aim for between 2-3)

126
Q

How does dabigatran etexilate work?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

127
Q

How do we manage chronic AF?

A

Anticoagulation

Rate control-standard beta blocker or rate limiting CCB, if all fails then consider digoxin

128
Q

Name 4 common side effects of ramipril. What is the class?

A

Angiontensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi)

Persistent dry cough, headaches, dizziness, rash.

Also: alopecia, chest pain, constipation, diarrhoea, drowsiness, palpitations, myalgia, altered taste, sleep disorder, syncope. GI disorders, increased risk of infection, muscle spasms

129
Q

What class for amlodipine? Name 5 common side effects?

A

Calcium channel blocker (CCB)

Headaches, dizziness, flushing, pounding heartbeat, swollen ankles

Also: abdo pain, skin reactions, vomiting, asthenia, joint disorders, cramps

130
Q

Describe mechanism of action of metformin?

A

Class=biguanide

Decreases gluconeogenesis and increases peripheral utilisation of glucose. Only acts in presence of endogenous insulin.

131
Q

Common side effects of metformin? Name 5

A

Nausea, diarrhoea and vomiting, stomach ache, loss of appetite, metallic taste in mouth

132
Q

Name 5 common side effects of atorvastatin?

A

Nausea, headaches, myalgia, nosebleeds (epistaxis), sore throat, cold-like symptoms and asthenia, constipation or flatulence, diarrhoea

133
Q

Class of furosemide? Name 5 common side effects

A

Loop diuretic-ascending limb of loop of Henle

Polyuria, polydipsia with dry mouth, headache, dizzy, muscle cramps, N/V, fast or irregular heartbeat

134
Q

Key points in the history pointing to atopic eczema?

A

Presence of itching, usually starting in infancy, episodic, history of atopy (personal or family), possible trigger factors (irritant allergens, clothing, skin infections, contact allergens, inhalant allergens, hormonal triggers, climate, diet)

135
Q

Where is eczema normally found on infants?

A

Face, scalp and extensor surfaces of limbs. Nappy usually spared

136
Q

Where is eczema found in children and adults with long-standing disease?

A

Flexure of limbs

137
Q

Management of eczema?

A

Avoid triggers, generous emollients, topical corticosteroid (eg hydrocortisone 1% for mild, betemathasone valerate 0.025% for moderate or 0.1% for severe). If severe itch consider antihistamine one month-trial.

If not responding to topical steroids, consider calcineurin inhibitor eg tacrolimus

If signs of infected eczema, swab skin and prescribe oral antibiotic (flucloxacillin)

138
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening available to men? When for women?

A

Men over 66

Women over 70 if they have risk factors

139
Q

RFs for AAA

A

COPD, coronary disease, cerebrovascular disease, peripheral arterial disease, family history AAA, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, smoke/history of smoking

140
Q

When should aneurysm repair be considered in AAA?

A

Symptomatic
Asymptomatic >4cm and grown by more than 1cm in 1 year
Asymptomatic and at least 5.5cm

141
Q

Key differentials for back pain? Name 6

A

Cauda equina, spinal fracture, cancer, infection, lumbar muscular strain, herniated nucleus pulposus, spinal stenosis, abnormal posturing, depression, osteoarthritis, pregnancy, sciatica

142
Q

Red flags for cauda equina?

A

Severe/progressive bilateral neurological deficit of legs, recent-onset urinary retention and/or incontinence, recent-onset faecal incontinence, perianal or perineal sensory loss, unexpected laxity of anal sphincter

143
Q

Red flags for spinal fracture?

A

sudden onset of severe cerebral spinal pain relieved by lying down, history major or minor trauma, structural deformity of spine, point tenderness over vertebral body

144
Q

Red flags for cancer as cause of back pain?

A

Over 50, gradual onset symptoms, severe unremitting pain, aching night pain disturbing sleep. thoracic pain, pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, no symptomatic improvement after 4-6 weeks of conservative low back pain therapy, unexplained weight loss, PMH cancer

145
Q

Name 5 life threatening causes of low back pain?

A

AAA, adrenal haemorrhage, aortic dissection, cauda equina, cervical fracture ,, chronic stable angina, epidural abscess, PE, retroperitoneal haematoma, traumatic aortic rupture, vertebral fractures

146
Q

Management of non specific low back pain?

A

Continue with normal activities, NSAID, consider physiotherapy

147
Q

Management of short term insomnia (less than 3 months)

A

Sleep hygiene and sleep diary for 2 weeks (to deduce patterns )
If sleep hygiene measures ineffective and insomnia likely to resolve soon, consider short course (3-7 days) of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication/z-drug eg zoplicone or zolpidem

If unlikely to resolve-CBT-I, with potential adjunct if short term hypnotic

148
Q

Management of long term insomnia (more than 3 months)

A

Sleep hygiene
CBT-I
Avoid pharmacological treatment if possible
For over 55s, consider treatment with modified-release melatonin

149
Q

Differential diagnoses of insomnia?

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea, circadian rhythm disorders (jet lag, shift work), restless legs syndrome, narcolepsy, parasomnias, depression, leg cramps

150
Q

How to manage restless legs?

A

Prevent attacks: Sleep hygiene, decrease caffeine and alcohol, stop smoking, moderate regular exercise
Relieve attack: walking and stretching, applying heat, relaxation, mental distraction, massaging

For moderate to severe symptoms- non-ergot dopamine agonist eg pramipexole or ropinirole or an alpha-2-delta ligand eg pregabalin or gabapentin

151
Q

How to manage newly diagnosed asthma?

A

Annual influenza vaccination, avoid trigger factors, advice on weight loss and smoking cessation, inhaler demonstration

  1. Inhaled SABA eg salbutamol, terbutaline
  2. If SABA 3/7 ± asthma symptoms 3/7 ± woken at night use ICS eg beclometasone, budenoside, ciclesonide, fluticasone, mometasone
  3. Add on therapy- oral LTRA (leukotriene receptor antagonist) eg montelukast or zafirlukast then switch to LABA eg formeterol or salmeterol
152
Q

Moderate asthma exacerbation features?

A

PEFR 50-75%,normal speech

153
Q

Acute severe asthma exacerbation features?

A

PEFR 33-50%, RR at least 25/min (over 12 years), HR 110bpm (over 12), inability to complete sentences in one breath, accessory muscle use, sats at least 92%

154
Q

Life threatening asthma exacerbation features?

A

PEFR less than 33%, sats less than 92%, altered consciousness, exhaustion, cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, silent chest, confusion

155
Q

When to admit for asthma exacerbation?

A

Life threatening features
Severe features persisting after initial bronchodilator treatment
Worsening symptoms on moderate and/or have had previous near-fatal asthma attack

156
Q

How to manage asthma exacerbation while waiting for hospital admission?

A

Oxygen to hypoxic people
SABA-nebulized salbutamol (5mg to all over 5, 2.5mg to children 2-5 years)
Consider addition of nebulized ipratropium bromide
Quadruple ICS at onset of attack. If not suitable, course prednisolone
Monitor PEF and sats
Follow up 2 workings days within discharge

157
Q

How to manage asthma exacerbation that does not required admission?

A

SABA adults=4 puffs, then 2 puffs every 2 minutes according to response up to 10 puffs
Quadruple ICS, if not, oral prednisolone
Follow up within 48 hours of presentation

158
Q

Main cause of haemorrhoids? 3 other minor causes?

A

Constipation with prolonged straining.

Congestion from pelvic tumour, pregnancy, CCF, portal hypertension, age, heavylifting, chronic cough

159
Q

Difference between internal and external haemorrhoids?

A

External-below dentate line, covered by modified squamous epithelium (anoderm). Itchy and painful

Internal-above dentate line, columnar epithelium, no pain fibres

160
Q

Describe 1st/2nd/3rd/4th degree internal haemorrhoids.

A

1st=do not prolapse
2nd=prolapse on straining but reduced spontaneously when straining stops
3rd=required manual reduction
4th=prolapse and incarcerated, can’t reduce

161
Q

Describe the blood seen in haemorrhoids?

A

Bright red, coats (doesn’t mix in with) stools, streaks on toilet paper and on toilet bowl

162
Q

Management of haemorrhoids?

A

Clean and dry anal region, pat dry, don’t withhold stool and don’t overly strain.
Soft and easy to pass stools (laxative), adequate fibre and fluid intake
Simple analgesia
Referral: non-surgical eg rubber band ligation and surgical eg haemorrhoidectomy

163
Q

Signs and symptoms of possible lung cancer-name 6

A

DVT, unexplained loss of appetite, persistent or recurrent chest infection, history of asbestos exposure, history of smoking, unexplained chest pain, cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, weight loss, finger clubbing, haemoptysis, lymphadenopathy

164
Q

When should I refer people using cancer pathway for lung cancer?

A

CXR findings suggesting lung cancer or over 40 with unexplained haemoptysis

165
Q

When should I offer an urgent CXR for lung cancer?

A

Over 40 with at least two of the following, or if they have ever smoked and have at least one of the following:
Cough, fatigue, SOB, chest pain, wt loss, appetite loss

Also consider if over 40 with any one of the following:
Persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, thrombocytosis

166
Q

Describe DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for depression

A

At least 5 out of possible 9 defining symptoms, present for at least 2 weeks

2 core symptoms: bothered by feeling down/depressed/hopeless, little interest or pleasure in doing things

Associated symptoms: disturbed sleep, weight/appetite changes, fatigue/loss of energy, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness/excessive or inappropriate guilt, suicidal thoughts/acts

167
Q

Differential diagnoses of depression?

A

Grief reaction. Anxiety disorders, bipolar, premenstrual dysphoric disorder, PD, MS, dementia, CO poisoning, substance misuse, hypothyroidism, obstructive sleep apnoea

168
Q

Management of depression?

A

Assess risk of suicide
Depression questionnaires-PHQ-9, HADS, BDI-II
Active monitoring for those who don’t want intervention
Mild-mod or persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms-low intensity psychological intervention
Mod-severe-antidepressant and high intensity psychological intervention eg CBT

169
Q

What would you offer for first episode of depression pharmacologically?
How long until effects seen?
When should you stop?

A

SSRI eg citalopram/sertraline/fluoxetine/paroxetine
Usually takes 2-4 weeks for symptoms to improve
Take for at least 6 months after recovery to prevent relapse

170
Q

Other choices of antidepressants?

A

SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) eg sertraline
SNRI (serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor) eg duloxetine
Tricyclic antidepressants eg amitriptyline

171
Q

When to review depressed patients with no increased risk suicide? and with increased risk suicide?

A

No=initially after 2 weeks then every 2-4 weeks for first 3 months
Yes (and for under 30s)=initial review within 1 week, then frequently thereafter

172
Q

Side effects of antidepressants?

A

Suicidal thoughts/attempts, anxiety/agitation, insomnia, hyponatraemia, sexual dysfunction

173
Q

Under mental health act what can you do under section 2 and 3?

A

2: compulsory admission for up to 28 days for assessment (need 2 doctors, one known to patient and one with specialism)
3: compulsory admission for up to 6 months for treatment

174
Q

How do you differentiate postnatal depression from normal changes?

A

PND: PERSISTENT and marked depressed mood/sadness/irritability/absence of pleasure/difficulty concentrating or making decisions, hopelessness and overwhelming feelings of responsibility, feelings of guilt/worthlessness/being ‘bad’ mother, social withdrawal, symptoms of anxiety

175
Q

Differential diagnoses of PND?

A 
Baby blues (low mood after childbirth, mild and short term-starts 2nd/3rd day after birth and normally resolves by day 5)
Postpartum psychosis
Bipolar disorder
PTSD
OCD
GAD
176
Q

How to manage PND?

A

Mild-mod: facilitated self help
Mild-mod but history of severe depression: TCA/SSRI/SNRI
Mod-severe: high-intensity psych intervention eg CBT. Antidepressant as second line.
Paroxetine and sertraline are SSRIs of choice for breast feeding women

177
Q

Potential complications of UTI?

A

Pyelonephritis, impaired renal function, urosepsis, pre-term delivery and low birth weight

178
Q

How to diagnose UTI?

A

If less than 65, ad no RFs for complicated UTI=urine dipstick-UTI likely if positive for nitrites or leukocytes and RBC

If pregnant, over 65, persistent symptoms not resolving with antibiotics, recurrent UTI (2 in 6/12 or 3 in 12/12), urinary catheter or recent catheter, atypical symptoms, haematuria, RFs for complicated UTI=urine sample for culture

179
Q

Treatment of uncomplicated UTI?

A

Simple analgesia
Encourage adequate intake of fluids
Nitrafurantoin 100mg bd for 3/7 or Trimethroprim 200mg bd 3/7

180
Q

Which drug for uncomplicated UTI in pregnant women?

A

Nitrofurantoin, avoid at term, 100mg bd for 7/7

2nd line=amoxicillin or cefalexin

181
Q

How to manage recurrent UTI?

A

Discuss behavioural and personal hygiene-avoid douching, wipe front to back, avoid occlusive underwear, avoid delay of habitual and post-coital urination, maintain adequate hydration
Manage the acute UTI, send urine sample before antibiotics started
Consider antibiotic prophylaxis eg trimethropim/nitrofurantoin single dose when exposed to a trigger

182
Q

Presentation of trichomoniasis

A

Women= 50% asx, 50%=vaginal discharge, vulval itching, dysuria, offensive odour
Men=15-50%, rest urethral discharge and/or dysuria

183
Q

Investigations for trichomoniasis?

A

Women=vaginal pH (more than 4.5 suggestive), high vaginal swab, speculum exam, inspect vulva, palpate abdomen
Men=urethral swab and/or first void urine

184
Q

Treatment trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole 400-500mg bd for 5-7 days or 2g as a single dose (no single dose for breastfeeding women).
Screen for other STIs, treat partners ranging from 4 weeks prior to presentation, advise abstinence for at least 1 week

185
Q

Presentation of chlamydia?

A

Women=70% asx, if sxs: increased vaginal discharge, post-coital or intermenstrual bleeding, purulent vaginal discharge, mucopurulent cervical discharge, deep dyspareunia, dysuria, pelvic pain and tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, inflamed or friable cervix

Men=50% asx, if sxs: dysuria, mucoid or mucopurulent urethral discharge, urethral discomfort, urethritis, epididymo-orchitis, reactive arthritis

186
Q

Investigations for chlamydia?

A

(Annual screening for all sexually active under 25)

Women=endocervical or vulvovaginal swabs (first catch urine if preferred)
Men= first catch urine, rectal swabs

Send for NAAT

187
Q

Treatment of chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline 100mg bd 7/7 (not in pregnancy)

If contraindications= azithromycin 1g 1/7 then 500mg od 2/7 or erythromycin 500mg bd 10-14 days

Screen for other STIs, sexual abstinence until treatment completed, partner notification

188
Q

Complications of chlamydia?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease can lead to tubal infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain
Chlamydia during pregnancy/vaginal labour can lead to infections of eyes, lungs, nasopharynx and genitals

189
Q

Complications of gonorrhoea?

A

Men-epidiymitis, infertility, prostatitis.

Women-PID, a/w spontaneous abortion

190
Q

Presentation of gonnorhoea?

A

Women=asx in up to 50%, otherwise, discharge, lower abdo pain, dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding, dyspareunia. Pharyngeal infection usually asx.

Men= mostly symptomatic; mucopurulent urethral discharge, dysuria, pharyngeal and rectal infection usually asx

191
Q

Investigations for gonorrhoea?

A

NAAT; vulvovaginal swab or first pass urine (men). Ideally refer to GUM

192
Q

Management gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone 1g IM STAT
If anogenital or pharyngeal=ciprofloxacin 500mg oral STAT
Screen for other STIs, partner notification, abstain for 1 week

193
Q

Classification of syphilis?

A

Early syphilis within 2 years of infection= primary, secondary, early latent
Late syphilis after 2 years of infection=late latent syphilis, tertiary

194
Q

Complications of syphilis?

A

Neurosyphilis, cardiovascular syphilis, gummatous syphilis, adverse outcomes in pregnancy, facilitation of HIV transmission

195
Q

What is the usual defining sign of primary syphilis?

A

Primary chancre (genital lesion)

196
Q

Signs suggestive of secondary syphilis?

A

Non pruritic maculopapular rash
Condylomata lata (moist wart like lesion)
Patchy lesions on oral mucosa/snail tract lesion
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Unexplained neurological or ophthalmological symptoms

197
Q

Management of syphilis?

A

REFER TO GUM (not licensed for in GP, benzathine and procaine penicillin)
Specialist tests-dark field microscopy, PCR, serology
Partner notification, abstinence

198
Q

Management of pelvic girdle pain in pregnancy/symphysis pubis dysfunction

A

Physio, manual therapy, pelvic floor/stomach/back/hip strengthening exercises, water exercises, positions for labour/birth/baby/sex, pain relief eg TENS, pelvic support belt and or crutches

Active as possible within pain limits, sit down to get dressed, get help with chores, flat supportive shoes, keep knees together getting in and out of car, sleep in comfortable position-pillow between legs, stairs 1 at a time or up on your bottom

199
Q

Name 6 different symptoms of menopause

A

Hot flushes/night sweats, cognitive impairment and mood disoders, urogenital symptoms, genitourinary syndrome of menopause (vulvovaginal irritation, discomfort, burning, itching, dryness, dyspareunia, decreased libido, dysuria, frequency and urgency), altered sexual function, sleep disturbance, joint/muscle pain, headaches

200
Q

When can women stop taking contraception? What age can you take COC up until?

A

In general, from age 55.
Potentially fertile for 2 years if menopause at <50
Potentially fertile for 1 year if menopause >50

Stop COC at 50

201
Q

How to manage menopause?

A

Lifestyle management for flushes eg wt loss, exercise, fans, avoid triggers, light clothing. Sleep hygiene.

HRT-for vasomotor symptoms use a combined preparation (if uterus) or oestrogen-only prep (if no uterus). For urogenital symptoms-vaginal oestrogen.

Non-hormonal treatment options; vasomotor symptoms=SSRI or SNRI for 2 weeks, mood-CBT, vaginal moisturisers and lubricants

202
Q

Risks of HRT?

A

VTE, CHD, stroke, breast cancer

203
Q

Benefits of HRT?

A

decreased risk of fragility fracture, controls symptoms. Before 50, can use COC as symptomatic control.

204
Q

Adverse effects of HRT?

A

Oestrogen related= fluid retention, nausea, bloating, headaches, cramps
Progestogen related=fluid retention, breast tenderness, headaches, migraine, mood swings, PMS like symptoms, depression, acne vulgaris, lower abdo and back pain
Vaginal bleeding

205
Q

Contraindications to HRT?

A

Current/past breast cancer, oestrogen-dependent cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, VTE, arterial thromboembolic disease, acute liver disease, pregnancy, thrombophilic disorder

206
Q

Describe the presentation of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Symmetrical, polyarticular, mainly small joints of hand and feet (although any synovial joint can be affected). Early morning stiffness over 30-mins-1hour, pain worse at rest
May present with: Rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis, malaise/fatigue/fever/sweats/weight loss, family history

207
Q

What investigations for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid factor present in 60-70%
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) in 80%
Arrange x-ray of hands and feet
FBC, U/E, LFT, CRP, ESR

208
Q

How to manage confirmed rheumatoid arthritis? (secondary care)

A

cDMARD as monotherapy eg methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine.
Hydroxychloroquine may be used as alternative for people with palindromic disease
Consider use of biologics eg TNF inhibitors-adalimumab, etanercept or other agents eg rituximab

209
Q

How to manage a RA flare?

A

Glucocorticoid injection or NSAID and PPI

210
Q

What does cervical cancer screening involve?

A

Primary human papillomavirus (HPV) screening, liquid based cytology to detect abnormalities of cervix, colposcopy to diagnose cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

211
Q

Who is cervical screening offered to?

What happens to pregnant women requiring screening?

A

25-49 year olds= every 3 years
50-64 year olds=every 5 years
First invitation by 24 and a half

Rearrange for pregnant women until at least 12 weeks post partum

212
Q

When can you not take a cervical sample for screening purposes?

A

Menstruating, less than 12 weeks post partum, less than 12 weeks after termination of pregnancy or miscarriage, vaginal discharge or pelvic infection, ideally avoid if pregnant (but if abnormality previously continue)

213
Q

Stages of CIN (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)

A

CIN1=1/3 thickness of surface layer of cervix affected
CIN2=2/3
CIN3=full thickness

214
Q

When should you suspect endometriosis?

A

If at least one of the following:
Chronic pelvic pain (>6 months cyclical or continuous pain), period-related pain affecting daily activities and quality of life, deep pain during or after sexual intercourse, period-related or cyclical GI symptoms, period-related or cyclical urinary symptoms (haematuria or dysuria), infertility in association with the above

215
Q

How to manage suspect endometriosis?

A

Only can diagnose definitively by laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis (referral)
Short term trial (3 months) of paracetamol and/or NSAID
Hormonal treatment eg COC/POP

In secondary care=surgical management or combination (excision/ablation then hormonal treatment)

216
Q

Name 5 differential diagnoses of endometriosis.

A

Uterine-fibroids, primary dysmenorrhoea, uterine myoma
Urological-cystitis, recurrent UTIs
GI-IBD, IBS, appendicitis, gastroenteritis, coeliac disease

217
Q

When should you consider offering a PSA test?

A

Men with LUTS, erectile dysfunction, visible haematuria, unexplained symptoms that could be due to advanced prostate cancer eg lower back pain/bone pain/wt loss

Avoid offering to asymptomatic men

218
Q

Limitations of PSA testing?

A 
False negatives (15% may have prostate cancer and 2% of those will have high-grade cancer)
False positives (75% of positives will have a negative prostate biopsy)
Unnecessary investigations
Unnecessary treatment (clinically not evident)

Can’t perform if: active urinary infection, ejaculated in last 48 hours, vigorous exercise in last 48 hours, prostate biopsy in previous 6 weeks

219
Q

What is a normal PSA?

A

0-4ng/ml

If 50-69 years old and at least 3.0ng/ml urgent cancer pathway referral

220
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of bacterial meningitis?
Name 4 non specific
Name 5 specific

A

Non specific= fever, nausea/vomting, lethargy, irritability, ill appearance, refusing food/drink, headache, muscle ache/joint pain, resp symptoms/breathing difficulties

Specific=non-blanching rash, stiff neck, cap refill more than 2 seconds, cold hands and feet, unusual skin colour, shock and hypotension, leg pain, back rigidity, bulging fontanelle, photophobia, Kernig’s sign, Brudzinksi’s sign, unconsciousness, paresis, focal neurological deficit, seizures

221
Q

Describe the rash in bacterial meningitis or meningococcal septicaemia.

A

Non blanching-either petechial (less than 2mm diameter) or purpuric/haemorrhagic rash (more than 2mm diameter)
Can use the glass test

222
Q

Main differential diagnoses of bacterial meningitis

A 
Viral/fungal/tuberculous/drug-induced meningitis
Sepsis
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
Malignancy
HIV infection
SAH
223
Q

Initial management of suspected bacterial meningitis

A

Call 999
Paranteral benzylpenicillin (IM-into warmest part of limb) 300mg if younger than 1, 600mg if 1-9 years old, 1200mg for over 10 year olds
Manage close contacts (notifiable disease) with antibiotic prophylaxis ideally within 24 hours of the first presentation

224
Q

Risk factors for bacterial meningitis

A

Young age (younger than 2), winter, absent/non-functioning spleen, older age (over 65), immunocompromised, incomplete immunisation, cancer, organ dysfunction, smoking, overcrowded living, cranial anatomical defects, cochlear implants, contiguous infection, sickle cell disease

225
Q

Common causes of bacterial meningitis in a) neonates, b)adults

A

A) Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, S pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes
B) S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, H. influenzae type b

NB/ MenC vaccination so group B (MenB) accounts for most meningococcal cases

226
Q

Potential complications of bacterial meningitis?

A

Complications more common following pneumococcal meningitis

Cerebral infarction in 1 in 4 lead to focal neuro deficits: hearing loss, seizures, cognitive impairment, motor deficit, visual impairment
Hydrocephalus
Amputations and scars

227
Q

Name 7 differential diagnoses of falls

A

General=mechanical eg poor footwear, visual impairment, polypharmacy
Cardiovascular=arrhythmias, orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, valvular heart disease
Neurological=stroke, peripheral neuropathy
Genitourinary=incontinence, UTI
Endocrine=hypoglycaemia
Musculoskeletal=arthritis, disuse atrophy
ENT=benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, ear wax

228
Q

Who is usually affected by otitis media?

A

0-4 years old

Especially those subject to passive smoking, attend daycare/nursery, are formula fed or have craniofacial abnormalities

229
Q

Differential diagnoses of ear discharge

A

Otitis media, otitis media with effusion (glue ear), chronic suppurative otitis media (more than 2 weeks), myringitis

230
Q

Management of otitis media

A

Simple analgesia
Advise usual course is 3 days but may be up to 1 week
If antibiotics required (bacterial not viral cause) 5-7days amoxicillin

231
Q

What is the weighted 7 point checklist for melanoma?

A

Major (2 points each)=change in size, irregular shape or border, irregular colour
Minor (1 point each)=largest diameter at least 7mm, inflammation, oozing/crusting, change in sensation (including itch)

Urgent referral if at least 3 points/new nodules pigmented or vascular/nail changes

232
Q

Name the 4 different types of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo or acral lentiginous

233
Q

Differential diagnoses of melanoma (pigmented lesion)

A

Moles/naevi, sebarrhoeic keratoses, dermatofibromas, freckles, lentigines, pigmented BCC

234
Q

Differences between BCC and SCC

A

BCC-pearly or waxy nodule, prominent fine blood vessels around lesion, raised rolled edges, slow growing. Routine referral

SCC-faster growth (weeks-months), may ulcerate, tender/painful, smoking is a big RF. Urgent referral

235
Q

What is an actinic keratosis? How to manage?

A

Solar keratosis, precancerous SSC.
Flat or thickened papule/plaque, white/yellow scaly/warty/horny surface, skin coloured/red/pigmented, tender or asx

Removal, or use creams-diclofenac, 5-fluorouracil (efudix), imiquimod

236
Q

Differential diagnoses of abdominal pain.

Name 6

A

GI: gastroenteritis, obstruction, hernia, intussuscpetion, Meckel’s diverticulum, colic/cholecystitis, ulcer, diverticulitis, pancreatitis, IBS, IBD, constipation

Urological: ureteric colic, pyelonephritis, UTI, urinary retention, testicular torsion

Gynaecological: ectopic pregnancy, ruptured ovarian cyst, ovarian torsion, PID, endometriosis, fibroids, dysmenorhhoea

237
Q

What is the difference between diverticulosis, diverticular disease and diverticulitis?

A

Diverticulosis=diverticula but no symptoms, normal incidental finding

Diverticular disease= diverticula causing symptoms, no inflammation/infection. Intermittent LLQ pain, may be triggered by eating, may be relieved by passage of stool or flatus, constipation or diarrhoea, occasional large rectal bleeds, bloating and passage of mucus rectally

Diverticulitis=diverticula have become inflamed and infected

238
Q

Management of diverticular disease

A

Diet management-increase fibre intake gradually up to 30g/day, balanced diet, regular meals, adequate fluid intake
Analgesia-avoid NSAIDs and opioids
Encourage weight loss if applicable, smoking cessation
Consider prescribing bulk forming laxatives if high fibre diet insufficient or if symptoms persist eg ispaghula husk (psyllium) and sterculia, or methylcellulose or wheat/oat bran
Consider referral to specialist in colorectal surgery

239
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumatica?

Symptoms and additional features

A

Chronic systemic rheumatic inflammatory disease characterised by aching and morning stiffness in the neck, shoulder and pelvic girdle

Most common inflammatory rheumatic disease in older people (over 50)

Pain worse with movement and interferes with sleep, may radiate to elbow/knees, stiffness for at least 45 minutes after waking

Potential additional features=low-grade fever, fatigue, anorexia, wt loss and depression, bilat upper arm tenderness, peripheral MSK signs eg carpal tunnel, peripheral arthritis, swelling with pitting oedema

240
Q

How to diagnose PMR?

A

Exclusion blood tests. ERR/CRP raised=supportive of diagnosis

241
Q

How to manage PMR?

A

If most likely diagnosis:
Trial of oral prednisolone 15mg/day and arrange follow up within 1 week to assess clinical response
Reduce dose slowly when symptoms fully controlled
Blue steroid card for patient

242
Q

Name 5 differential diagnoses of weight gain

A

Increased intake; dietary, social/behavioural, iatrogenic
Decreased expenditure; sedentary lifestyle, smoking cessation
Neuroendocrine; polycystic ovarian syndrome, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, hypogonadism, GH deficiency, hypothalamic obesity
Genetic causes

243
Q

Name 3 common drugs that cause weight gain

A

Antidepressants eg citalopram, fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline
Diabetic medications eg insulin, sulfonylureas
Corticosteroids-methylprednisolone, prednisolone, prednisone
Antiepileptics- amitriptyline, valproic acid
Beta blockers-atenolol, propanolol

244
Q

Describe gout

A

Disorder of purine metabolism associated with hyperuricaemia and deposition of urate crystals in joints and other tissues

245
Q

What are the causes of hyperuricaemia?

A

Normally due to impaired renal excretion of urate (around 90%)
10% due to over-production of urate

Secondary causes=hypertension, hyperparathyroidism, Down’s syndrome, lead nephropathy, sarcoidosis, medication, chronic renal disease, volume depletion, glycogen storage disorders, polycythaemia

246
Q

Risk factors for Gout

A

alcohol intake, dietary intake purines (red meat and seafood, fructose in sugary drinks), use of drugs (ACEi, beta blockers, ciclosporin, diuretics, pyrazinamide, tacrolimus), family history, older age, men

247
Q

What investigations for gout?

A

Joint fluid microscopy and culture-negatively birefringent needle shaped monosodium urate crystals
Serum uric acid 4-6 weeks after acute attack
Consider XRay

248
Q

Management of gout:

Acute and prevention

A

Acute= Rest, elevate, avoid trauma, keep joint exposed, wt loss/exercise/diet/alcohol consumption/fluid intake advice. NSAID at max dose and co prescribe PPI or colchicine until 1-2 days after attack resolved

Prevention=allopurinol (titrate upwards) until SUA less than 300. When initiating treatment or increasing dose also take colchicine for prophylaxis against acute attack.
Febuxostat is second line after allopurinol.

249
Q

Name 5 differential diagnoses of weight loss

A

Most common=malignancy, GI conditions, psychiatric causes

Cachexia syndromes a/w organ failure eg HF, COPD, renal failure
Endocrinopathies eg hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, adrenal insufficiency
Serious infections eg HIV, TB
Medication side effects eg fluoxetine, sulphasalazine, topiramate
Substance abuse
Social factors preventing adequate access to food

250
Q

How to manage a child presenting with a fever?

A

Over 38 degrees
Use NICE traffic light system to assess child
Advice on antipyretic drug eg paracetamol every 4-6hours or ibuprofen every 8 hours
NOT ASPIRIN
General self care advice eg fluids, dressing appropriately, checking regularly, don’t use tepid sponging, keep away from school/nursery
Safety netting advice for more serious cause eg meningitis signs

251
Q

Presentation of measles infection

A

15-20 new cases from original 1 case
Infectious from when symptoms first appear to 4 days after onset of rash
Cough and coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis, fever, maculopapular rash
May have Koplik’s spots on buccal mucosa at end of prodomal phase (for 2-4 days, 10-12 days after contraction)

252
Q

Describe the rash in measles

A

Erythematous and maculopapular
Face and behind ears originally then descends down to the trunk and limbs, affecting hands and feet last
3-4 days
May have Koplik’s spots (2-3mm red spots with white centres)

253
Q

Management of measles

A

Usually self limiting, rest and drink fluids, paracetamol/ibuprofen, stay away from school, avoid contact with susceptible people (not vaccinated, infants, pregnant, immunosuppressed)
Close contacts to be vaccinated (MMR)

254
Q

Differential diagnoses of measles-like rash

A

Parvovirus B19, strep infection eg scarlet fever, herpes virus type 6 (roseola infantum), rubella, early meningococcal disease

Also think: Kawasaki disease and infectious mononucleosis

255
Q

Name 4 risk factors for hypertension

Which ethnicity most at risk?

A

Age, sex (<65 more men, 65-74 more women), ethnicity (Black African and Black Caribbean), genetics, social deprivation, lifestyle-smoking/alcohol/salt/obesity/lack of physical activity, anxiety and emotional stress

256
Q

How to achieve diagnosis of hypertension?

A

If 140/90mmHg in clinic, take a second measurement (may need third) and take the lowest recorded as the reading
If between 140/90mmHg and 180/120, offer ABPM to confirm, or home BPM (HBPM) if ABPM unsuitable
If over 180/120 or life threatening symptoms refer for same day specialist assessment for sign of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema

257
Q

Name the different stages of hypertension

A

Stage 1=140/90 to 159/99 clinic BP and ABPM/HBPM 135/85 to 149/94

Stage 2=clinic at least 160/100 and A/HBPM at least 150/95

Stage 3/severe hypertension= clinic at least 180 systolic or diastolic at least 120

258
Q

Name 5 secondary causes of hypertension

5Cs

A

Renal disorders eg PKD, glomerulonephritis, RCC, diabetic nephropathy
Vascular disorders
Endocrine disorders eg primary hyperaldosteronism, phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, hypo/hyperthyroidism
Drugs eg alcohol, cocaine, EPO, corticosteroids
Obstructive sleep apnoea, connective tissue disorders

CKD, conn’s, COC, coarctation aorta, cushing’s

259
Q

Management of hypertension?

A

Lifestyle advice-no excessive caffeine, diet (reduce sodium) and exercise, smoking cessation, reduce alcohol etc

Step 1: <55 and not black=ACEi/ARB. If >55 and/or black=CCB. IF evidence of HF offer thiazide like diuretic
Step 2: ACEi/ARB and CCB/thiazide-like diuretic
Step 3: ACEi/ARB and CCB and thiazide-like diuretic
Step 4: resistant hypertension; add a 4th drug or specialist. If K<4.5 use diuretic therapy with spirinolactone, if K>4.5 use alpha or beta blocker

Annual review

260
Q

Name an ACEi, ARB, CCB, thiazide-like diuretic, alpha and beta blocker

A

ACEi-ramipril, lisinopril, enalapril
ARB-candersartan, valsartan, olmesartan
CCB-amlodipinem felodipine, nimodipine, nifedipine
Thiazide-like diuretic-indapamide, bendroflumethiazide
Alpha blocker-tamsulosin, doxazosin, prazosin
Beta blocker-atenolol, propranolol

261
Q

Describe the 3 different classifications of heart failure

A
  1. By ejection fraction: HF-REF and HF-PEF
  2. By time course: chronic or acute
  3. New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification based on on symptom severity
262
Q

Describe NYHA classification of heart failure

A

Class 1=no limitation on physical activity
Class 2=slight limitation, comfortable at rest but ordinary physical activity leads to undue breathlessness/fatigue/palpitations
Class 3=marked limitation
Class 4=unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort, symptoms at rest may be present

263
Q

What are the typical symptoms of HF?

A

Breathlessness (OE, at rest, orthopnoea, nocturnal cough, waking from sleep/paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea)
Fluid retention (ankle swelling, bloated feeling, abdo swelling, weight gain)
Fatigue
Decreased exercise tolerance, increased recovery time after exercise
Light headedness, syncope

264
Q

What could be found on examination in a person with heart failure?

A

Tachycardia, laterally displaced apex beat, heart murmurs, 3rd and 4th heart sounds (gallop rhythm), hypertension, raised JVP, hepatomegaly, resp signs eg tachypnoea/basal crepitations/pleural effusions, dependent oedema/ascites, obesity

265
Q

Investigations for suspected heart failure?

A

N-terminal pro-B-rype natriuretic peptide level (NT-proBNP): if over 2000 2 week urgent referral, between 400 and 2000 6 week referral, less than 400=HF unlikely
Arrange 12 lead ecg
Consider other tests

266
Q

What things may lead to increased BNP?

A

HF, age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, RV overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, PE, CKD (less than 60ml/min eGFR), sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, cirrhosis

267
Q

How to manage HF?
HF-PEF?
HF-REF?

A

General: symptom report, monitor weight at home, avoid excessive salt, severe symptomatic should limit fluid intake (less than 1.5-2L/day), smoking cessation, drink safely, regular low intensity physical exercise if stable HF, maintain healthy weight

PEF: loop diuretic -up to 80mg furosemide

REF: loop diuretic, ACEi and beta blocker (start one at a time). Consider if antiplatelet and/or statin therapy required. Influenza and pneumococcal vaccine

268
Q

Name 6 causes of dementia

A

Main ones: Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with lewy bodies, frontotemporal dementia

Rarer causes: PD, progressive supranuclear palsy, HD, prion disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, chronic subdural haematoma, benign tumours, vitamin deficiencies eg B12 and thiamine

269
Q

Describe Alzheimer’s disease (pathophysiology) and defining features

A

50-75% of dementia
Atrophy of cerebral cortex and formation of neurofibrillary tangles. ACh production in affected neurones reduced
Early impairment of episodic memory

270
Q

Describe vascular dementia defining features

A

Up to 20% of dementia
Often co-exists with AD
Stepwise increase in severity

271
Q

Describe dementia with Lewy bodies and defining features

A

Cortical and subcortical Lewy bodies (abnormal protein deposits inside nerve cells)
May have similar features to Parkinson’s disease dementia, Parkinsonian motor features

272
Q

Describe frontotemporal dementia and defining features

A

Progressive degeneration of front and/or temporal lobes
Generally insidious onset
Personality changes

273
Q

Potential presentation of dementia (generalise)

A

Cognitive impairment: memory problems, receptive or expressive dysphasia, difficulty with coordinated movements, disorientation, impairment of executive function

Fluctuating behavioural and psychological symptoms: psychosis, agitation, depression, withdrawal/apathy, disinhibition, motor disturbance eg wandering, sleep cycle disturbances

Difficulties with ADLs

274
Q

Name 3 different dementia screening tools that can be used to aid diagnosis

A 
6-CIT (6 item cognitive impairment test)
10-CS (10 point cognitive screener)
MIS (memory impairment screen)
Mini-cog
TYM (test your memory)
275
Q

How to manage confirmed dementia?

A

Must inform DVLA
Refer on for specialist assessment and management
Specialist drugs if AD: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors eg donepezil/galantamine/rivastigmine, or can use memantine
Advance care planning
Non-pharm interventions eg animal therapy, massage
Monitor the care-giver

276
Q

Differential diagnoses of abnormal vaginal discharge?

A

Vaginal infections: bacterial vaginosis, vaginal candidiasis, trichomoniasis
Endocervical infections: chlamydia, gonorhhoea
Non infective causes: retained foreign body, inflammation due to allergy/irritation, tumours, atrophic vaginitis, cervical ectopy/polyps, fistulae, recent childbirth
Physiological causes (normal!): pregnancy, contraceptive use, sexual stimulation, menopause

277
Q

Describe the different vaginal discharge seen in BV, vaginal candidiasis and trichomoniasis

A

BV: fishy-smelling, thin, grey-white homogeneous, ph over 4.5
Candidiasis: odourless, white, curdy, pH less than 4.5
Trichomoniasis: yellow-green, frothy, fishy odour, pH over 4.5

278
Q

Describe presentation of TB

A

Pulmonary=persistent productive cough a/w breathlessness and haemoptysis
Extra pulmonary features;
Lymphatic=lymphadenopathy, Spinal/joint=bone pain, Genitourinary or Gastrointestinal=abdo/pelvic pain/constipation/obstruction, Renal=sterile pyuria
TB meningitis=headache/vomiting/confusion, Cutaneous=erythema nodosum/lupus vulgaris, TB pericarditis=chest pain

General: wt loss, fever, night sweats, anorexia, malaise

279
Q

Investigations for TB

A

CXR, deep cough sputum sample

Mantoux test or interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)

280
Q

Management of TB?

A

Specialist assessment and management-NAATs
Rifampicin and isoniazid for 6 months
Pyrazinamide and ethambutol for first 2 months
Multi-drug resistant TB will be 18-24 months with more drugs
Immediate contact tracing (BCG) and infection control
May need DOT-directly observed therapy

281
Q

Potential side effects of Rifampicin

A

Red urine, hepatitis, drug interactions (enzyme inducer)

282
Q

Potential side effects of isoniazid

A

Hepatitis, neuropathy

283
Q

Potential side effects of pyrazinamide

A

Hepatitis, gout, rash

284
Q

Potential side effects of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis

Phase 3A (8 decks)

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