Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

A two-month-old female, Lila, presents to the paediatric emergency department in the morning with her father. The father reports that Lila has felt quite hot since last night and has been feeding poorly. Lila’s birth was uncomplicated and all of her immunisations are up to date. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.8oc, HR 160, RR 40 and SpO2 98% on room air. Lila is mildly lethargic, but examination is otherwise unremarkable.

If this child is found to have a serious bacterial infection (SBI), which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

UTI

To begin with, you should know that infants under 3 months are of particularly high risk for SBI and that the two most prevalent SBIs are urinary tract infections (UTIs) and pneumonia. In the absence of localising chest signs, a UTI is epidemiologically the most likely diagnosis in this case. In one study, 7.5% of children presenting with fever had an SBI, and 45% of them had a UTI. Another factor that affects your consideration of the epidemiology is that Lila is female as 6.5% of girls will have a UTI in the first year of life.

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2
Q

Name the disease:

Early features: leg pain, diarrhoea, abnormal skin colour, cold peripheries and breathing difficulties.

Late features: non-blanching haemorrhagic rash, meningism and impaired consciousness

A

Meningococcal septicaemia.

Caused by: Neisseria meningitidis, a Gram-negative diplococcus

Management:

  • immediate admission to hospital
  • start antibiotics (IV Ceftriaxone in those over 3 months of age)
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3
Q

Name the condition:

(Itchy) Vesicular rash on head/neck/trunk
+ pyrexia, headache, malaise and abdominal pain

A

Chicken Pox

Caused by: Varicella-zoster virus

NB: shingles (VZV reinfection) has a dermatomal distribution

Management: conservative

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4
Q

Name the condition:

Prodrome: fever, malaise, loss of appetite
followed by: conjunctivitis, cough and coryza + Koplik spots (blue-white spots inside the mouth)
followed by: rash - face + trunk + extremities (disappears and leaves behind brownish discolouration)

A

Measles:

Caused by: acute infection caused by a single-stranded RNA Morbillivirus from the paramyxovirus family

Management: conservative

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5
Q

Name the condition:

honey-coloured crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter (on face/extremities)
+ enlargement of regional lymph nodes

A

Impetigo

Caused by: Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.

Management:

  • infection control
  • topical antibiotic: mupirocin and fusidic acid.
  • if infection is extensive: flucloxacillin
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6
Q

Name the condition:

The initial patch (known as a “herald patch”) typically measures 2-5 cm in diameter and is oval or round with a central, wrinkled, salmon-coloured area, separated from a dark-red peripheral zone by fine scales. The secondary rash is symmetrical and localised mostly to the trunk, with some involvement of the neck and proximal limbs. The lesions of the secondary rash are smaller versions of the original herald patch, with two red zones separated by a scaling ring. The lesions are pruritic in about half of cases.

A

Pityriasis rosea:

The disease is most common in those aged between 10-35 years and it is more common in women. It occurs most often during the spring and autumn. The cause is not fully understood, however various drugs (ACEi / NSAIDs / Metronidazole) and viruses are associated (herpesviruses 6/7). The disease is not infectious.

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7
Q

Name the condition:

Extremely tender flaccid bullae (large superficial blisters) develop within 48 hours and commonly affect the flexures. The bullae enlarge and rupture easily to reveal a moist erythematous base, which gives rise to the scalded appearance.

clinical features: fever, generalised erythema, and skin tenderness.
[Prodrome: sore throat, conjunctivitis]

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

Caused by: the release of two exotoxins (epidermolytic toxins A and B) from toxigenic strains of the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus.

Mainly occurs in children <5

Management:

  • hospital admission
  • manage fluid balance
  • administer IV fluxcloxacillin
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8
Q

Which of the following medications is recommended for the initial management of children in presumed status epilepticus?

A

Lorazepam

NICE recommends a benzodiazepine as the first-line management of acute status epilepticus. IV lorazepam is usually used, assuming that you are able to gain IV access.

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9
Q

A concerned mother brings her 1-year-old son to A&E. She explains her son has been having sudden bouts of crying, during which he draws up his legs, for the past 12 hours. He is also not feeding and appears pale but is afebrile. This morning he passed stool that appeared red in colour.

What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this child?

A

Abdominal USS

The best initial investigation is an abdominal USS. The patient’s mother has described symptoms typical of intussusception. Intussusception is the invagination of the proximal bowel into more distal bowel. It commonly presents with paroxysmal abdominal pain in which the child draws up his or her legs, pallor, poor feeding, vomiting, an abdominal mass and “red-currant jelly” (blood-stained) stools. The red-currant jelly stools are a late sign.

An abdominal USS can confirm this diagnosis by showing a “target sign” and is a quick and simple bedside investigation.

An abdominal MRI would also show intussusception, but is not quickly available and therefore not the best option.

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10
Q

When is the 6-in-1 vaccine given to children in the UK?

A

The 6-in-1 vaccine is given to children in the 8th, 12th and 16th week of life.

The vaccine protects against Diphtheria, Tetanus, Whooping cough, Polio, Haemophilus Influenza Type B (Hib) and Hepatitis B.

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11
Q

Whilst walking past the A&E waiting room, you recognise a young patient and his father as you had treated the child for a case of mild gastroenteritis 2 days ago. Now, little Jonny represents complaining of a severe stomach ache and that his legs hurt. When you examine his legs, you notice a purpuric rash which spreads up the back of Jonny’s legs to his buttocks. A urine dipstick is quickly ordered which shows haematuria and proteinuria.

What is the most common progressive complication?

A

IgA nephritis

Jonny has Henoch-Schonlein purpura, a type of vasculitis which is commonly triggered by an upper respiratory infection or gastroenteritis. 50% of HSP cases have kidney involvement due to IgA nephritis.

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12
Q

A 4-year-old child is admitted to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath and wheeze. He has a diagnosis of asthma and is under the care of respiratory consultant. His parents reports that they have been giving him salbutamol regularly at home for the past two days, but he has become increasingly wheezy and distressed over the past few hours.

Which signs would suggest an acute severe exacerbation in a child of this age?

A

child aged between 1 and 5 years:

HR > 140
Peak flow predicted 33-50% best
Oxygen sat <92%
Resp rate >40

NB: children 5+
HR > 125
RR > 30

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13
Q

10-year-old Billy Glue-Ear presents to general practice accompanied by his mother, who is concerned that she has to call his name repeatedly before he seems to notice. The problem has been worsening recently and is no longer limited to times when he is engrossed by the television. He has a past history of recurrent ear infections, and currently has purulent yellow discharge leaking from the right ear.

On otoscopic examination, there is a considerable defect in the tympanic membrane and purulent debris in the auditory canal. You place the hilt of a ringing 256Hz tuning fork in the centre of Billy’s head, and he reports hearing it in the right ear. When the hilt of the tuning fork is placed on his right mastoid he can hear it, but when the tips are held close to his external acoustic meatus he hears nothing.

How would you summarise the findings of this examination?

A

Right conductive deafness: Rinne’s Negative; Weber’s lateralising to the right.

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14
Q

Weber’s test:

Place a ringing 256Hz or 512Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead and ask which ear they hear the ringing in.

A

Normal subjects will hear the sound symmetrically in both ears

  • in conductive deafness the sound localises to the deaf ear as it is conducted to the sensory apparatus through the cranium and is the only sound ‘heard’ on the affected side. It is heard less clearly on the unaffected side as it may be lost to ambient noise
  • In unilateral sensorineural hearing loss (see below), the patient has impaired or absent ability to perceive sound in the affected ear no matter how intact the conductive system, and so the sound localises to the normal side.
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15
Q

Rinne’s Test

Place the base of a ringing 256Hz or 512Hz tuning fork on the patient’s mastoid process and ask them to indicate when the sound dies out. When they can no longer hear the tone, bring the tips of the fork close to the external acoustic meatus and the patient should hear the sound again, demonstrating that air conduction is better than bone.

A

This test works on the proviso that air conduction of sound to the inner ear should be more effective than bone conduction.

  • A normal Rinne’s test is described as positive.

In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction to the sensory apparatus is the most reliable route and is better than air conduction. This is an abnormal, negative result.

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16
Q

Toby Robertson is a 15-year-old boy who attends the GP practice with his mother who is concerned that he appears to be developing breasts. He has no significant past medical history but he does receive support at school for learning difficulties.

Findings on examination include:

Tall stature 
Elongated arms and legs
Reduced facial and body hair
Wide hips
Gynaecomastia
Small testicles
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

47XXY syndrome where a male has an extra copy of the X chromosome (XXY). Those with Klinefelter’s syndrome have a number of characteristic features including tall stature, sparse facial/body hair, gynecomastia, infertility, learning difficulties and small testicles (due to hypogonadism).

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17
Q

Name the condition:

loss or abnormality of the second X chromosome in at least one cell line in a phenotypic female. Clinical features are vary widely but can include pubertal delay, ovarian failure, learning difficulties, neck webbing, low set ears and epicanthic folds.

A

Turner syndrome

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18
Q

Name the condition:

repeat DNA expansion disorder. Typical features include learning difficulties, delayed developmental milestones, high forehead, large testicles, facial asymmetry, large jaw and long ears.

A

Fragile X syndrome

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19
Q

Name the condition:

gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty in which boys experience early onset of puberty, sometimes from the age of 1 year old. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the LH receptor leading to the production of large quantities of sex steroids. In addition to all the symptoms of puberty, the patient may also have a shortened spinal length due to premature epiphyseal
maturation.

A

Familial male-limited precocious puberty

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20
Q

Samantha Hayes, 18, has scheduled a GP consultation to discuss an itchy vesicular rash on her forearms. Whilst reading her notes, you learn that she was in the lowest growth decile as a child, and has recurrent bouts of diarrhoea, queried gastroenteritis, over the past year. She currently takes iron tablets and vitamin D.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Coeliac disease

Coeliac disease is caused by a sensitivity to a protein in gluten. It most commonly presents in the 2nd and 6th decades of life, but may manifest in children as ‘failure to thrive’.

Symptoms include intermittent or chronic diarrhoea, with grey, oily faeces that smell especially foul. Patients may also experience abdominal pain, nausea, weight loss and dermatitis herpetiformis (described here). Iron and vitamin D deficiencies are common complication caused by villous atrophy and consequent malabsorption. The former causes anaemia and the latter may even predispose to osteoporosis or osteomalacia.

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21
Q

Sally is a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP surgery by her parents, with symptoms of reflux. She has some mild facial swelling, bilaterally in the cheek area. She also complains of pain in this area, as well as under her jaw. Her weight is within the normal range.

You perform an abdominal examination with a chaperone present, but there are no significant findings.

On her hands, you notice koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails) and calluses on her knuckles.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Bulimia Nervosa

(BN) is an eating disorder, typically characterised by “binge-eating” followed by episodes of “purging.” This can take the form of using laxatives or vomiting in order to prevent calorific absorption through food or drink.

Often patients with BN have a normal/slightly fluctuating weight. Due to the recurrent presence of stomach acid contents (including hydrochloric acid) in the upper gastrointestinal tract, patients may develop erosion of their teeth and oral mucosa, mouth ulcers, GI irritation or reflux. Recurrent vomiting also leads to dehydration, perhaps one of the reasons for the swollen and painful salivary glands (including parotid gland in her cheek and submandibular area).

A rare, but characteristic feature may be the calluses on her knuckles, which is called Russell’s sign and develops due to her knuckles being scraped across her teeth. This is one of the ways that vomiting may be induced. Koilonychia is a sign of anaemia, perhaps due to poor absorption of iron in her diet.

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22
Q

A 12-year-old Caucasian girl was admitted with a two-day history of lower abdominal pain and blood-stained diarrhoea. Two days later, she complained of pain in her ankles and right elbow associated with nausea. On examination, a purpuric rash affecting the arms and legs, periorbital oedema and a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg were found. Investigations were performed, the reports are as follows:

Hb 100 g/L
WCC 12x109/L
Platelets 135,000 /L
MCV 70 fL
ESR 35 mm/h
PT 13 s 
APTT 34 s 
Sodium 138 mmol/l
Potassium 5.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 mol/l
Urinalysis: Blood ++ Protein ++
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A

Henoch–Schönlein purpura

Lower abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, purpuric rash, and nephritis in a young patient point to the diagnosis of Henoch–Schönlein purpura, which is an IgA small-vessel vasculitis occurring most often in kids. Patients may often also present with buttock wasting, PR bleeding, arthralgia, and a rash over the lower limbs and buttocks.

Complications include intestinal perforation, haemorrhage, intussusception and acute renal failure.

Investigations;
- Abdominal USS indicated in patients with severe abdominal pain. It can detect increased bowel wall thickness, hematomas, peritoneal fluid, and intussusception

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23
Q

Name the condition:

Systemic necrotizing vasculitis that typically affects medium-sized muscular arteries, with occasional involvement of small muscular arteries. Presents with systemic symptoms (fatigue, weight loss, weakness, fever, arthralgias) and signs (skin lesions, hypertension, renal insufficiency, neurologic dysfunction, abdominal pain) of multisystem involvement. No bloody diarrhoea

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

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24
Q

Name the condition:

recurrent hematuria following tonsillitis or a viral upper respiratory infection
+/- proteinuria, flank pain and low grade fever

A

IgA nephritis

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25
Name the condition: Triad: - Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia - Thrombocytopaemia - AKI
Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome Investigation: - FBC - Peripheriral blood smear - Renal function studies - Urinary studies Causes: * Primary: complement dysregulation * Secondary - Infectious: E.coli, Pneumococcus - Meningitis
26
A 10-year-old boy presents to the GP with loose, foul-smelling greasy stools and short stature. He has a history of recurrent chest infections. Faecal elastase is low and a sweat test is positive. Which of the following complications is most likely to be seen as a result of the nutritional deficiencies associated with his underlying condition?
Weak bones, night blindness, haemorrhagic disease Weak bones (rickets or osteomalacia - vitamin D deficiency), night blindness (nyctalopia – vitamin A deficiency), and haemorrhagic disease (vitamin K deficiency). These symptoms can be caused by deficiencies in the fat-soluble vitamins, D, A and K, respectively. This boy has cystic fibrosis which can cause pancreatic insufficiency and fat-malabsorption, hence why these complications could occur.
27
Which vitamin is deficient: Bleeding gums, easy bruising, myalgia, hair loss
Vitamin C
28
Which vitamin is deficient: Confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) These are signs of Wernicke’s encephalopathy/ This classically occurs due to alcohol abuse. Thiamine deficiency can also cause neuropathy, heart failure and Korsakoff syndrome (a progression of Wernicke’s with added amnesia and confabulation).
29
Which vitamin is deficient: Dementia, diarrhoea, dermatitis
Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency causing pellagra.
30
Which vitamin is deficient: Peripheral neuropathy, loss of vibration sense, upgoing plantars
Vitamin B12 deficiency These are signs of vitamin B12 deficiency causing mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs due to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (upper motor neuron) and peripheral neuropathy (lower motor neuron). B12 deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anaemia.
31
A 6-year-old boy, Tommy, is brought by his mum to the GP. Tommy is able to speak to you but struggles to get out full sentences due to breathlessness. His oxygen saturations are 90% on room air, respiratory rate is 43 and heart rate is 130 beats per minute. On examination, he appears cyanosed and fatigued. You note accessory muscle use as he breathes. Auscultation reveals poor air entry bilaterally. What severity of asthma does this child have?
Life threatening Acute severe asthma can be diagnosed if any one of the following is present: - Respiratory rate ≥ 25/min - Heart ≥ 110/min - Inability to complete sentences in one breath - PEF 33-55% best or predicted Life-threatening asthma is defined any one of the following in a patient with severe asthma: - PEF <33% best or predicted - SpO2 <92% - PaO2 <8 kPa - Normal PaCO2 (4.6–6.0 kPa) - Silent chest - Cyanosis - Poor respiratory effort - Arrhythmia - Exhaustion - Altered conscious level - Hypotension Near-fatal asthma is defined as: - Raised PaCO2 and/or requiring mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures
32
An 18-month-old boy is brought to your clinic with concern about recurrent chest infections. He was born prematurely at 35 weeks of gestation. On taking a feeding history, his mother says he takes breast milk predominantly, and complementary feed was started from 10 months of age. On examination child is able to sit without support and has just started to stand with support. He has protuberant abdomen. Anterior fontanel is wide open. There is broadening of bilateral wrist joint but it is non painful. Other joints are looks normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Rickets Rickets is a disorder seen in children, more common in developing countries. As vitamin D deficiency causes rickets and is synthesised from sunlight, the disorder is more common in the communities where sun exposure is less. A child with rickets usually has delayed motor development due to hypotonia and poor bone growth, as seen in this child. There is a history of predominant milk in the diet which predisposes the child to deficiency. Clinically there may be delayed closure of the anterior fontanel, craniotabes (thin skull), rachitic rosary (prominent costochondral junction), widening of the wrist joint, and sometimes ankle joint in severe cases. More severe cases may have bowing of the legs and short stature. A plain X-ray of the wrist joint is usually done when rickets is suspected as it is easily available and is a non-invasive investigation. Investigations: * Bloods: - Low Vit D - Low serum calcium and phosphorus. Alk phos usually high * X-ray: - cupping and fraying of ends of long bones (radius and ulna), and in severe cases osteopenia is seen Treatment: Treatment includes sun exposure, and a calcium and vitamin D rich diet. Definitive treatment requires adequate supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with a balanced diet.
33
Pseudomonas aeroginosa Dx and management
Gram negative rods Produce grape-like colonies Grows on MacConkey agar This pathogen commonly affects immunocompromised hosts such as patients with cystic fibrosis. Chronic pseudomonas infection is associated with a rapid decline in lung function. Managament: - Tobramycin
34
You are a GP registrar on a cold, wet afternoon in October. You are asked to see an 18-month-old child with a barking cough and added breathing sounds.
Croup Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is a common childhood disease that is usually caused by a virus. It is characterized by the sudden onset of a seal-like barking cough usually accompanied by stridor (predominantly inspiratory), hoarse voice, and respiratory distress due to upper-airway obstruction. Caused by: parainfluenza viruses (80%) cases Croup normally starts with nonspecific symptoms of viral URTI, such as a runny nose, sore throat, fever and cough. This progresses over the course of a couple of days to include the characteristic barking cough and hoarseness. These symptoms tend to be worse at night.
35
Categorise Croup severity
* Mild – seal-like barking cough but no stridor or sternal/intercostal recession at rest. * Moderate – seal-like barking cough with stridor and sternal recession at rest; no agitation or lethargy. * Severe – seal-like barking cough with stridor and sternal/intercostal recession associated with agitation or lethargy. *Impending respiratory failure – increasing upper airway obstruction, sternal/intercostal recession, asynchronous chest wall and abdominal movement, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness. The degree of chest wall recession may diminish with the onset of respiratory failure as the child tires. A respiratory rate of over 70 breaths/minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress
36
Management of Croup
*Mild croup Management of mild croup includes: - Oral dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg as a single dose - If otherwise well, discharge home with a written advice sheet, safety netting and early follow up in the community (within 24 hours) *Moderate croup Management of moderate croup includes: - Oral dexamethasone 0.15-0.3 mg/kg as a single dose - A period of observation to ensure improvement and no deterioration - Discharge criteria include no stridor at rest, normal oxygen saturations, normal colour, normal activity, able to tolerate fluids orally and caregivers understand when to return. If the patient has worsened during observation, they may require nebulised adrenaline 5ml of 1:1000 and further observation. *Severe croup Management of severe croup includes: - Nebulised adrenaline 0.5ml/kg (up to 5ml) of 1:1000 undiluted (this can be repeated if required) - Oxygen to correct hypoxia (if present) - Oral or intravenous/intramuscular dexamethasone 0.3-0.6 mg/kg - Monitoring for a minimum of four hours following a dose of adrenaline, due to the risk of rebound of symptoms after the adrenaline wears off - If children with severe croup require two or more doses of adrenaline, consider paediatric critical care review. An early review by the intensive care team is important as the patient may require intubation to protect the airway. *Criteria for hospital admission Indications for hospital admission include: - Severe croup - Moderate to severe croup but with deterioration or repeated doses of adrenaline - Toxic appearing child - Oxygen requirement - Inability to tolerate oral fluid intake. - Additional factors to consider include young age, number of healthcare attendances, carer anxiety or an inability for carers to bring the child back to the hospital in case of deterioration.
37
A mother brings her 16-year-old daughter to the GP. Over the last month, she has been experiencing epistaxis, lethargy and mouth ulcers. As well as this, she has noticed small amounts of blood mixed in with the toothpaste after brushing. The mother explains how her daughter has struggled with anorexia in the past and that she is very selective about the foods she eats. On examination, there is conjunctival pallor and her gingiva are inflamed. Which of the following vitamins is the patient most likely deficient in?
Vitamin C/Ascorbic acid Deficiency = scurvy Signs and symptoms: - gingival inflammation - excessive bleeding (epistaxis/haematuria) - iron deficiency anaemia (due to impaired collagen synthesis and the decreased absorbability of iron) Vitamin C rich foods include various fruits and vegetables, examples include peppers, cauliflower, tomatoes and oranges.
38
Which vitamin is deficient:: angular stomatitis, glossitis and keratitis.
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
39
Which vitamin is deficient: alopecia
Vitamin B7 (Biotin)
40
Which vitamin is deficient: symptoms of anaemia, neuropathy and Wernicke's encephalopathy
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) an be caused by autoimmune conditions (e.g. pernicious anaemia), certain diets (in particular vegetarians and vegans), malabsorption and specific drugs.
41
What should you include in the introduction of a peadiatric Hx?
1. Check the child's name, age and gender 2. Check what the child would want to be called 3. Introduce yourself 4. Determine the relationship of adults to the child 5. Observe how the child plays and interacts with any siblings 6. Ask the child questions
42
What should you always check in a paediatric Hx?
- General health - Normal growth (centile chart) - Feeding/drinking/appetite - Any recent change in behaviour and personality
43
How do you take a paediatric past medical history?
1. Birth Maternal obstetric problems, antenatal scans, screening, delivery, birthweight, gestation, perinatal problems, stay in hospital (incl. special care), use of Abx 2. Immunisations: check the record 3. Nutrition: breast/bottle-fed, transitioned to solids, any difficulties, appetite 4. Development: key milestones, any concerns 5. Social is a social worker involved with the family? smoking @ home? contacts/siblings ill? missing/any issues @ school? 6. Past injuries/hospitalisations/operations
44
What is included in a paediatric family history?
* Have any family members have a similar disorder? * Any neonatal/childhood deaths? * [Draw a family tree] * [Consanguinity]
45
How do you take a paediatric social Hx?
* Info about the family and their community (parental occupation, economic status, housing, relationships, parental smoking, ***is the child under the care of social services?*** * Is the child happy @ home? * What are the child's preferred play and leisure activities? * Is the child happy @ school/nursery? * What has been the impact of the disease in the child and family? * Are the family eligible to claim benefits?
46
How do you take a paediatric developmental Hx?
Check: * Parental concerns about development, vision, hearing * Key developmental milestones * Previous child health surveillance developmental checks * Bladder and bowel control in young children * Child's temperament and behaviour * Sleeping problems * Concerns and progress at nursery/school
47
What is the definition of stillbirth?
foetus born with no signs of life >= 24 weeks of pregnancy
48
What is the perinatal mortality rate?
stillbirths + deaths within the first week/ 1000 live births and still births
49
What is the neonatal mortality rate?
deaths of live born infants within the first 4 weeks after birth/ 1000 live births
50
What is the definition of a neonate?
<= 28 days old
51
What is the definition of pre-term?
gestation <37 weeks of pregnancy
52
What is the definition of term?
37-41 weeks
53
What is the definition of post-term?
gestation >= 42 weeks
54
What is the classification of low birth weight (LBW)?
< 2500g
55
What is the classification of very low birth weight (VLBW)?
< 1500g
56
What is the classification of extremely low birth weight (ELBW)?
< 1000g
57
What size do we class as small for gestational age?
birthweight < 10th centile for gestational age
58
What size do we class as large for gestational age?
birthweight >90th centile for gestational age
59
Who is the health visitior?
health professional that supports parents with their childcare
60
Who is the social worker
professional that works with families to enhance their social functioning and overall wellbeing (e.g. with safeguarding issues)
61
What is the impact of smoking on a pregnancy?
* reduces birthweight | * associated with an increased risk of miscarriage, stillbirth and sudden infants death syndrome
62
What is the benefit of folic acid supplementation?
Reduces the risk of neural tube defects | recommended for all women during pregnancy
63
What foods should be avoided and why?
1. Fish = high levels of mercury 2. Liver = high concentration of vit A 3. Unpasteurised dairy products, soft-ripened cheeses, pates and ready-to-eat poultry = risk of Listeria Infection 4. Undercooked meat or cat litter exposure = Toxoplasmosis exposure
64
What foetal conditions can be treated in utero, via the mother?
1. SVT Digoxin or flecainide 2. Glucocorticoid therapy can be used to accelerate lung maturity
65
What foetal conditions can be treated in utero, directly to the foetus?
1. Rhesus isoimmunisation Foetal blood transfusion directly into the umbilical vein may be required regularly in severely affected foetuses. Foetuses at risk can be detected by looking at the maternal antibodies 2. Perinatal isoimmune thrombocytopaenia When anti-platelet antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and cause thrombocytopaenia in the foetus. - Can be treated with IV Ig.
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What are the risks associated with pre-eclampsia?
* pre-term delivery * maternal eclampsia (seizures) or CVA due to HTN * placental insuffciency and growth restriction
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What are the risks associated with placental insufficiency and Intrauterine Growth Restriction?
* Hypoxic damage to gut or brain | * Intrauterine death
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What are the risks associated with multiple births?
* pre-term labour * IUGR * Congenital abnormalities * Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) in monochorionic twins (share a placenta) * Complicated deliveries
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What risks is poorly controlled DM associated with?
* poluhydramnios * pre-eclampsia * increased rate of foetal loss * congenital malformations * late unexplained intrauterine death
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What are the foetal problems associated with maternal DM?
* congenital malformations * IUGR * macrosomia
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What are the risks associated with foetal macrosomia?
* cephalopelvic disproportion * birth asphyxia * shoulder dystocia * brachial plexus injury
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Why does maternal DM cause macrosomia?
Hyperglycaemic mother = hyperglycaemic foetus. Insulin does not cross the placenta so foetus must produce its own insulin, which promotes growth/ NB: after birth, foetus may have v. low blood sugars due to normoglycaemia in the presence of high insulin.
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What are the neonatal problems associated with maternal DM?
1. hypoglycaemia (transient due to foetal hyperinsulinaemia 2. Respiratory distress syndrome 3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4. Polycythaemia
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How can foetal hyperthyroidism be Dx?
* tachycardia on the CTG | * foetal goitre on USS
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What risks are associated with SLE + antiphospholipid syndrome?
* recurrent miscarriage * IUGR * pre-eclampsia * placental abruption * pre-term delivery NB: some infants born to mother with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies will develop neonatal lupus syndrome (characterised by a self-limiting rash and (rarely) heart block).
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What is the impact of maternal autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura on the foetus and how is it managed?
the foetus may be come thrombocytopenic because maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and damage foetal platelets = increased risk of IC haemorrhage following birth trauma Infants w/ severe thrombocytopenia or petechia @ birth should be given IV Ig
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What are the clinical features of foetal alcohol syndrome?
1. Growth restriction 2. Characteristic face - saddle-shapped nose - maxillary hypoplasia - absent philtrum between the nose and upper lip - short, thin upper lip - strawberry neavi 3. Developmental delay 4. Cardiac defects
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What are the signs of maternal opiate abuse in infants?
Withdrawal symptoms - jitteriness - sneezing - yawning - poor feeding - vomiting - diarrhoea - wt loss - seizures
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What are the risks associated with maternal cocaine abuse?
* placental abruption * pre-term delivery * cerebral infarction
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What are the therapeutic drugs used during pregnancy and what are their effects?
1. Opiod analgesia = may supress respiration @ birth 2. Epidural anaesthesia = may cause maternal pyrexia during labour 3. Sedatives (e.g. diazepam) = may cause sedation, hypothermia and hypotension in the newborn 4. Oxytocin and Prostaglandin F2 = may cause hyperstimulation of the uterus leading to foetal hypoxia 5. IV fluids = may cause neonatal hyponatraemia
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What are the main infections that can cause damage to a foetus?
1. rubella 2. CMV 3. Toxoplasma gondii 4. Parvovirus 5. VZV 6. Syphillis
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How do you Dx maternal Rubella?
serologically
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What are the clinical features of rubella infection in the newborn?
TRIAD: 1. Cataracts 2. Deafness 3. Congenital heart disease (PDA) Risk and extent of foetal damage depends on gestational age on onset of maternal infection: * infection < 8 wk = 80% TRIAD * infection @ 13-16 wk = 30% impaired hearing * infection >20 wk = NO CONSEQUENCE
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What are the NICE guidelines for management of Rubella in pregnancy?
1. Notify the Health Protection Unit (HPU) 2. HPU may also test for parvovirus B19 3. There is NO effective treatment for rubella 4. Recommended rest, adequate fluid intake and paracetamol for symptomatic relief 5. Stay off work and AVOID CONTACT WITH OTHER PREGNANT WOMEN FOR 6 DAYS after initial development of the rash, refer urgently to obstetrics for risk 6. Once confirmed, refer urgently to obstetrics for risk assessment and counselling
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What is the most common congenital infection?
CMV 90% are normal @ birth and develop normally 5% have clinical features at birth 5% develop problems late in life, mainly sensorineural hearing loss
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What are the maternal clinical features of CMV?
it is usually asymptomatic
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What are the clinical features of CMV @ birth?
* hepatosplenomegaly * petechiae Most of these babies will have neurodevelopmental disabilities: - sensorineural hearing loss - cerebral palsy - epilepsy - cognitive impairment
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What is the management of Newborn Infants with CMV?
IV gancilovir OR Oral valganciclovir
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What are the clinical features of foetal toxoplasmosis infection?
Most infected infants are asymptomatic 10% of infants will have clinical features: - retinopathy (due to acute fundal chorioretinities) - cerebral calcification - hydrocephalus NB: these infants usually have long-term neurological disabilities NB: asymptomatic infants are at developing chorioretinitis in adulthood
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What is the management of Newborns with Toxoplasmosis?
1st line: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine + Calcium Folinate Adjunct: Prednisolone
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What are the risks of maternal VZV infection to the foetus?
* If the mother develops chicken pox in the first half of pregnancy (<20 wks) there is a <2% risk of the foetus develop scarring of the skin and ocular and neurological damage and digital dysplasia * If the mother develops chicken pox within 5 days before or 2 days after delivery, when the foetus is unprotected by maternal antibodies and the viral dose is high, about 25% will develop a vesicular rash and mortality can be as high as 30%
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What is the management of maternal VZV in pregnancy?
Exposed susceptible mothers can be protected with VZV immunoglobulin (VZIg) and treated with aciclovir
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What are the clinical features of congenital syphillis?
characteristic rash on the soles of the feet and hands and bone lesions
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Where is the ductus arterious?
Connection between the pulmonary artery (right side) and the aorta (left side)
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Where is the formamen ovale?
between the right and left atria
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What causes the closure of the ductus arterious (DA)?
After the first breath: 1. Pulmonary expansion = reduced pulmonary resistance and increase pulmonary blood flow 2. The flow of oxygenated blood through the DA leads to closure of the duct
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What is primary apnoea?
If the foetus is deprived of oxygen in utero, the foetus will attempt to breathe but this will be unsuccessful as they are in utero NB: HR will be maintained
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What is second or terminal apnoea?
a second period apnoea characterised by irregular gasping, due to continued oxygen deprivation in primary apnoea NB: HR and BP will fall
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Why might some babies not breathe at birth?
asphyxia (lack of oxygen during labour or delivery)
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Management of terminal apnoea in neonate?
assistance with lung expansion - positive pressure ventilation - tracheal tube
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What is the APGAR score?
system used to describe a babies condition @ 1 and 5 min after delivery. It is also measured @ 5 min intervals thereafter, if the infant's condition remains poor
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What is asymmetrical growth restriction?
weight or abdominal circumference lies on a lower centile than that of the head NB: these infants tend to pun on weight rapidly after birth
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What is asymmetrical growth restriction associated with?
utero-placental dysfunction secondary to maternal pre-eclampsia, multiple pregnancy and maternal smoking
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What is symmetrical growth restriction?
when the head is equally reduced with the abdomen and weight NB: these infants tend to be permanently small
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What does symmetrical growth restriction suggest?
prolonged period of poor IU growth starting in early pregnancy due to: * small but normal foetus * foetal chromosomal disorder * congenital infection * maternal drug/alcohol abuse * chronic medical condition
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What are the IU risks for growth-restricted babies?
* IU hypoxia * 'unexplained' IU death * Asphyxia during labour and delivery
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What are the risks after birth for growth-restricted babies?
* Hypothermia (because of their large SA) * Hypoglycaemia (from poor fat and gylcogen) * Hypocalcaemia * Polycythaemia
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What are the risks of being Large for Gestational Age (LGA)?
* Birth asphyxia (from difficult delivery * Breathing difficulty from an enlarged tongue in Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome * Birth trauma (esp. shoulder dystocia) * Hypoglycaemia (due to hyperinsulinaemia * Polycythaemia
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Why are babies given vitamin K @ birth
to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
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What is included in a newborn baby check?
1. Birthweight, gestational age and birthweight centile 2. General obs of baby's appearance, posture + movement 3. The head circumference = surrogate measure of brain size 4. The fontanelles (palpation) = tense fontanelle - raised ICP (check with USS for hydrocephalus) - meningitis (late sign) 5. The face (inspection) 6. Plethoric/pale - polycthaemia/anaemia - central cynosis ALWAYS need urgent assessment 7. Jaundice = within 24h of birth requires further evaluaiton 8. The eyes = red reflex (opthalmoscope) = if absent, may be from cataracts, retinoblastoma and corneal opacity NB: not visualised on pigmented skin 9. The palate = inspection and palpation for cleft palate 10. Breathing and chest wall movement (obs) 11. Ausculation of the heart = 110-160 bpm/min in term babies (85bpm in sleep) 12. Palpate the abdomen = liver = splenic tip and left kidney may be palpable 13. Femoral pulses (palpated) = REDUCED: in coarction of the aorta = INCREASED: PDA 14. The genitalia and anus (Inspection) = patent anus = presence of testes in the scrotum 15. Muscle tone = observe limb movements 16. The whole of the back and spine (observed) 17. The hips = checked for developmental dysplasia
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What should you do if midline abnormality over the spine or skull is detected?
this can be a tuft of hair, swelling of a naevus Further evaluation is required as it may indicate an underlying abnormality of the vertebrae
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What should you do if there is a palpable and large bladder?
indicates urinary outflow obstruction = requires prompt evaluation with USS
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What is developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) aka congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)?
an abnormality of the hip joint where the socket portion does not fully cover the ball portion, resulting in an increased risk of joint dislocation
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What are the risk factors for DDH?
* female | * breech delivery
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What is the management of DDH?
* For infants < 2 months with normal physical examination without instability, observation is recommended with serial obs and USS on a monthly basis * Hip abduction orthosis (splint) in a Pavlik harness if the dysplasia persists or worsens - serial follow up and plain X-ray evaluation is recommended after 6 months of age * Breech delivery: if no DDH @ neonatal examination, arrange USS @ 6 weeks
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Which is a better source of vitamin K: breast milk or formula?
formula
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What preparation of vitamin K is given to the neonates?
IM (usually in the thigh)
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What does the Guthrie test screen for?
1. Phenylketonuria 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell + thalassaemia) 4. Cystic fibrosis 5. MCAD deficiency
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What does CF screening measure?
serum immunoreactive trypsin NB: this is also raised in pancreatic duct obstruction so DNA analysis must also be performed to reduce false positive rate
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How do you do a newborn hearing sceen?
1. Evoked Otoacoustic Emission (EOAE) Testing - an earphone is placed over the ear and a sound is emitted which evokes an echo or emission from the war if cochlear function is normal - if a normal result is not achieved with this test, you move on to the next test 2. Automated Auditory Brainstem Response (AABR) Audiometry - A computer will analyse the EEG waveforms evoked in response to a series of clicks