Paediatric ID 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the infective period for measles?

A

5 days either side of the rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the causes of macular star/neuroretinitis?

A
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Syphillis
  • Lyme
  • Cat scratch (Bartonella)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which serological finding in patients with hepatitis B

indicates active viral replication?

A

HbeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the seafood-associated diarrhoea?

A

Vibrio - supportive management only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What organism has intrinsic aminoglycoside resistance?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the aedes aegypti mosquito transmit?

A
  • Dengue
  • Zika
  • Chikungunya
  • Yellow fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many rotavirus strains are present in Rotarix?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In SSSS where is the cleavage plane in the skin?

A
  • superficially in the stratum granulosum layer of the skin

- biopsy will show cleaveage in granular layer with no inflammatory cell infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which serotype of parechovirus causes the most serious infections?

A
  • parechovirus serotype 3

- hot red angry baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do macrolides work?

A

Bind to 50s ribosomal unit to inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do antifungals work?
• Polyenes (e.g. amphotericin B)
•Azoles (e.g. fluconazole, vori)
•Echinocandins (e.g. caspofungin)

A
  • POlyenes POke holes in cell membranes
  • AzOLes interfere with cell membrane function by inhibiting sterOL synthesis
  • EchINocandins INhibit cell wall synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do we use aztreonam for?

A

Gram negatives that aren’t ESBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aminoglycoside efficacy is dependent on…?

A

C max/Mic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

B-lactam efficacy is dependent on…?

A

T>MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vancomycin efficacy is dependent on…?

A

AUC/MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the anopheles mosquito transmit?

A

Malaria

17
Q

What is leishmaniasis transmitted by?

A

Sandflies

18
Q

What is Lyme disease transmitted by?

A
  • Ixodes ticks
  • USA
  • If you tick check and remove within 24hrs, you shouldn’t get Lyme
19
Q

How does HUS happen with STEC?

A

ENDOtoxin binding to renal vessel epithelium

20
Q

What are exotoxins?

A
  • potent protein toxins secreted by any type of bacteria,
21
Q

The most common clinical manifestation of atypical cat-scratch disease is:

A

Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome (unilateral granulomatous follicular conjunctivitis associated with ipsilateral regional lymphadenopathy)

22
Q

If you have persistent diarrhoea in CVID think…

A

Giardiasis

23
Q

H. pylori is often resistant to…

A
  • macrolides - clarithromycin
24
Q

Cleaved lymphocytes on a blood film with lymphocytosis may mean:

A

Pertussis!

25
Q

Which type of influenza exhibits antigenic shift?

A

A

26
Q

How long does natural immunity to influenza last?

A

4 years

27
Q

Which subtype of influenza is more likely to cause myalgias?

A

B

28
Q

Which diseases are associated with cold haemoglobinuria/Donath-Landsteiner antibodies?

A
  • Measles vaccination/MMR (the viruses)
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae and various other viruses
  • Syphilis, especially congenital and tertiary syphilis
29
Q

Where does brucellosis come from?

A

Livestock (goat, cattle, sheep, pig) and dogs, occasionally seals

30
Q

Which antibiotic is most likely to give you lupus?

A

Minocycline

31
Q

What is the cutpoint for LTBI on a mantoux?

A

≥10mm if 5-14yo+/-BCG, prev BCG <5yo

≥5mm if <5yo, immunosuppressed, close contact with Tb

32
Q

What are the pertinent side effects of typical Tb treatment?

A
  • Rifampicin: orange body secretions, hepatitis 1%, leukopenia/thrombocytopenia, rash
  • Isoniazid: peripheral neuritis, hepatitis
  • Ethambutol: retrobulbar neuritis
  • Pyrazinamide: joint pain, itch
33
Q

What are the pertinent side effects of zidovudine?

A
  • Zidovudine is a NRTI
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Myopathy
  • Anaemia/granulocytopaenias (e.g. neutropaenia, low basophils/eosinophils)
34
Q

Which antibiotics give you fixed drug eruptions?

A
  • Sulfonamides most likely - but can get with others e.g. doxy
  • round/oval, dusky erythematous macules 6-48 hours after administration.
  • characteristically recurs at the same site with each subsequent exposure to the same drug
  • May be bullous
  • May be painful/itchy/burning and get fevers
35
Q

What antibiotics make you have seizures?

A
  • Imipenem (+other carbapenems)
  • Neurotoxicity 1st-4th generation cephalosporins e.g encephalopathy to non-convulsive status epilepticus, higher risk if renal impairment.
  • Non-convulsive status epilepticus has been reported frequently with cefepime, also you die more if you’re neutropaenic and on cefepime (no cause found)
36
Q

Which antibiotic has been associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A
  • Doxycycline
37
Q

What cells are the PRIMARY driver of nodule formation in a positive tuberculin skin test reaction?

A
  • Macrophages
38
Q

What do you treat hydatid disease with?

A
  • echinococcosis - albendazole