Pads Flashcards

1
Q

indications for primary molar pulpotomy

A
  • good cooperation
  • MH precludes xla
  • necessity of tooth as space maintainer
  • < 9y/o
  • missing permanent
  • vital tooth with carious/traumatic exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe primary molar pulpotomy

A
  1. LA + Rubber dam
  2. access cavity and remove coronal pulp
  3. assess haemorrhage, place cotton wool with saline, bleeding bright red
  4. restore with CaOH, GIC core and preformed metal crown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why would you need to do pulpectomy instead of pulpotomy mid procedure

A

could not gain haemorrhage control
irreversibly inflamed pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

elements of trauma review

A
  • radiograph
  • colour
  • EPT
  • ethyl chloride
  • TTP
  • percussion sound
  • mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what baseline/special tests would you carry out before staining tx

A
  • PA
  • clinical photos
  • colour shade of lesion and background
  • trauma history?
  • sensibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

outline the stages of micro abrasion

A
  1. PPE for pt and dentist
  2. apply dam
  3. sodium bicarbonate guard and vaseline on lips
  4. clean teeth with water
  5. 10 x 5 sec applications of 18% Hcl and pumice, wash directly into suction
  6. apply pro fluoride FV
  7. final polish with fine sandpaper disc
  8. apply toothpaste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what info for pt after micro abrasion

A

avoid highly coloured for at least 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what bleaching agent is used for vital bleaching

A

10% carbide peroxide
3.3% hydrogen peroxide, 6.6% urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aspects of history of trauma which could indicate non-accidental

A
  • injuries don’t match story
  • inconsistent stories
  • bilateral injury
  • delayed presentation
  • different stages of healing
  • fearful child
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sequelae of primary trauma to primary dentition

A
  • delayed exfoliation
  • discolouration
  • loss of vitality
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sequelae of primary trauma to permanent dentition

A
  • enamel defects [hypoplasia, hypomineralisation]
  • delayed eruption
  • abnormal morphology
  • arrested development
  • ectopic positioning
  • complete failure to form
  • odontome formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pulpal exposure of >2mm 2 days ago
what tx

A

pulpotomy as been 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe in detail a behavioural management technique

A

tell-show-do

tell - procedure, how you will use ur instruments, have a look, layman’s
show - show her how mirror works, let her use it
do - place in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you address issues of non-attendance
pt only showed up in pain

A
  • ensure up to date contact details
  • explain importance of dental
  • non-judgemental
  • explore attendance barriers
  • book review appt before leaving
  • record conservation in notes
  • contact mum re now appt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

evidence based brushing advice to help prevent caries

A

modified base technique

  • tooth angled 45* angle from gingival margin downwards
  • 2 mins
  • fluoride
  • 2x day
  • pea size
  • supervision
  • spit don’t rinse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe the paeds BPE

A

scores 0-2 for <12 y/o

0 - healthy
1 - BOP
2 - calculus or plaque retention factor
3 - 4-5mm
4 - >=6mm
* furcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what teeth should you use to obtain BPE in paeds

A

16, 11, 26, 36, 41, 46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal depth from CEJ to alveolar bone crest?

A

1-2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

child pt has probing depths of 4mm
what medical conditions may you expect

A

diabetes
papillon levure syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what questions would you ask in regards to a traumatised tooth

A

what happened
when did it happen
any pain
do you have fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what factors have a determinant on the prognosis of a traumatised tooth

A
  • type of injury
  • pulpal involvement
  • open or closed apex
  • pulp vitality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when discussing trauma with parents, include

A

explain
complications
prognosis
tx options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tooth 11 fracture and don’t know where fragment is
options

A

soft tissue embedded - remove and suture if needed
inhaled - A+E, chest xray
ingested - A+E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pt presents with white/yellow/brown stains on teeth
what questions would you ask mum

A

pre-natal = gestational DM, medications, infections
peri-natal = preeclampsia, birth trauma, anoxia, preterm
post-natal = childhood infections measles TB chickenpox mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what questions would you ask to rule out fluorosis in suspected MIH pt

A

excessive fluoride use, fluoride delivery
what teeth
any sensitivity, pain, crumbling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

issues with MIH

A

caries
severe breakdown
difficulty restoring due to poor bonding
poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

options for impacted upper molars

A
  • allow spontaneous eruption until 7-8 y/o
  • XLA of e
  • orthodontic separators
  • distal dicing of E
  • ortho appliance with finger spring on 6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what features of permanent dentition allow for replacement of primary teeth without crowding

A

growth of maxilla and mandible
perm teeth are narrower [premoalrs]
leeway space
primate space mesial to U3, distal L3
proclamation of permanent teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is leeway space and how does this relieve crowding

A

primary molars wider than premolars
extra space 1.5mm maxilla, 2.5mm mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pt has extrusion of 11
what splint would you use and what materials

A

SS 0.4mm flexible passive splint
to one tooth each side
2 weeks

phosphoric aci etch 37%, bond, composite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what advice to parent on phone regarding avulsion

A
  • stay calm, reassure child
  • pick tooth up via crown and avoid touching roots
  • if debris, clean with milk or saliva
  • reimplant and bite down on tissue/gauze
  • if cannot reimplant, place in saline, HBSS, milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the common outcomes of an avulsed tooth

A
  • necrosis
  • ankylosis
  • inflammatory external root resorption
  • discolouration
  • mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

clinical signs of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

both dentitions affected
amber, blue/grey discolouration
enamel fracture and wear
spontaneous abscess
blue sclera of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

radiographic signs of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

bulbous crowns
pulp canal obliteration
short roots
occult abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

clinical management of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

prevention
overdentured due to OVD loss
composite veneers
RPD
SS crowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

E/O features of DS

A

short stature
overweight
small midface
thick fissured dry lips
flat facial profile
upward slanting palpebral fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

IO signs of DS

A

delayed eruption
macroglossia
fused teeth
AOB
class 3
crowding
maxillary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

following root fracture, what types of healing is there

A
  • healing with hard tissue formation
  • healing with interposition of connective tissue
  • healing with connective tissue and hard tissue/bone interposition
  • no healing, granulation tissue
  • pulp necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how are root fractures managed?

A

dependant on area of fracture

splint 4 weeks if apical or mid, 4 months if cervical

primary - only splint 4 weeks if coronal fragment very mobile and interfering with occlusion, or xla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

signs of fluorosis

A

mild - white specks
more severe - brown, yellow staining, mottled enamel, structure irregularities
affects all teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how to manage fluorosis

A
  • do nothing
  • enamel microabrasion
  • vital bleaching
  • resin infiltration
  • composite bandage/restoration
  • veneers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

adv of non-vital bleaching

A
  • aesthetic improvement
  • minimally destructive
  • can be done at home
  • simple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

disadv of non vital bleaching

A
  • adequate root filling needed
  • may cause cervical resorption
  • may not work
  • relapse
  • crown brittleness
  • will not tx fluorosis, amalgam, tetracycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe walking bleach technique

A
  1. isolate w rubber dam
  2. open pulp chamber, removal of GP to just below gingival margin
  3. 10% carbamide peroxide on cotton wool, placed over with normal cotton wool
  4. sealed with GIC
  5. renew no more than 2 weeks
    can be redone up to 10 times
    once done, apply nonset CaOH 2 weeks to reverse acidity then final restoration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the only time splint is used for primary teeth

A

alveolar fracture
4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what splint for avulsed tooth

A

0.4mm ss flexible passive
adjacent tooth either side
2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the difference between flexible and rigid splint

A

flexible is one tooth either side
rigid is two teeth either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

if EADT < 60 mins of avulsed tooth, what is management

A
  1. clean area with saline/water/chx
  2. reimplant tooth
  3. verify position
  4. splint 2 weeks flexible
  5. abx if needed, tetanus inquiry
  6. act 2 weeks with CaOH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

child swallows fluoride
mum phones and is worried
what should you ask

A

what concentration and how much
how old/weight
any systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

if child has ingested toxic dose, what advice would you give

what is toxic dose

A

5m/kg
drink milk and go to A+E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the most common cause of fluorosis in the UK

A

swallowing of toothpaste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

child 10 y/o with fluorosis

what is the best tx option

when would you intervene

A

monitor
11 years as more mature enamel

53
Q

fluoride supplementation for a 1 year old

A

TP - 1450ppm
tablet - 0.25mg

54
Q

fluoride supplementation for 4 year old

A

TP - 1450ppm
tablet - 0.5mg

55
Q

fluoride supplementation for 7 year old

A

TP - 1450ppm
tablet - 0.5mg
MW - 225ppm

56
Q

signs of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

young pt
blisters on gums
small vesicles which rupture to form ulcers
fever
pain
blisters on lips

57
Q

what is the cause of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

herpes simplex virus primary infection

58
Q

management of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

supportive
analgesia
soft diet
hydration
fluids
rest
refer if unable to eat/drink

59
Q

what time frames are implicated in MIH and why

A

pre/peri/post natal

this the developmental period of incisors and first molars
enamel formation known as amelogenesis occurs

60
Q

signs and symptoms of MIH

A

pain
crumbling
sensitivty
reduced funcyion
poor aesthetics

61
Q

options available for MIH of incisors

A

accept/monitor
enamel microabrasion
compostite/GI
FS
veneers

62
Q

options for MIH of molars

A

accept/monitor
SS crowns
XLA

63
Q

what is the topical effect of fluoride

A

incorporated into the tooth structure by replacing OH ions to F in hydroxyapatite to create fluoroapatite
creates a stronger structure to make less susceptible to acids, demineralisation, reduced acid [roduction, remineralisation
replaces lost calcium and phosphate ions

64
Q

systemic effects of fluoride

A

fluorosis
toxicity

65
Q

eruption dates for primary dentition

A
  • Incisors: 6-10 months (lower first)
  • Molars: 13-19 months (first molars first)
  • Canines: 16-22 months
    Second Molars: 23-33 months
66
Q

eruption dates for permanent dentition

A

6-7 = first molars
7 = upper centrals
8 = lower centrals, upper laterals
9 = lower laterals, lower canines
10-12 = premolars
11= upper canine
12 = second molar
18+ = third molars

67
Q

when do roots fully form

A

2-3 years post eruption

68
Q

what orofacial injuries are suspicious

A

burn marks
hand/finger marks
ear/neck injuries
bites
bilaterally

69
Q

you wish to refer child following signs of abuse
who do you refer to and how do you do it

A

thorough documentation and examinations
share concerns with dental team and multi-agency
check if subjected to child protective plan

phone social services, ensure written follow up 48hrs no more than 2 week

if immediate danger then child protection order, exclusion order or police removal

70
Q

pulpotomy indications

A

vital tooth
carious/trauma exposure
space maintainer
no permanent successor
cooperative child
MH precludes xla
<9 y/o

71
Q

pulpotomy contraindications

A

uncooperative child
> 9y/o
unable to gain haemorrhage control
severe infection/irreversible pulpitis
immunocompromised/cardiac defect
multiple grossly carious
severe pain

72
Q

pulpectomy procedure

A
  1. LA, rubber dam
  2. remove pulp chamber
  3. 2mm from EWL
  4. CHX
  5. obturate CaOH and inform paste
  6. restore GIC + SSC
73
Q

name 4 types of amelogenesis imperfecta

A

1 - hypoplastic = enamel not grown correct length
2 - hypocalcified = enamel not correct thickness
3 - hypomaturational = normal length, incomplete thickness and mineralisation
4 - taurodontism

74
Q

cause of amelogenesis imperfecta

A

autosomal dominant
genetic
recessive
x-linked

75
Q

problems occurring with amelogenesis imperfecta

A

sensitivty
caries
acid susceptibility
poor aesthetics
poor OH
AOB
delayed eruption

76
Q

management of amelogenesis imperfecta

A

preventative
FS
SS crowns
composite veneers
metal onlay
ortho tx

77
Q

name causes of enamel defects

A

MIH - peri/pre/post
infections
liver disease
trauma
nutritional deficiencies
fluorosis

78
Q

4 year old pt presents with gross caries anteriorly, including smooth surface
what is the diagnosis

A

nursing bottle caries

79
Q

how does nursing bottle caries occur

A

prolonged use
bottle as pacifier
high sugar/acid liquid
spares lowers due to tongue

80
Q

tx plan for pt with nursing bottle caries

A

no longer use, don’t take to bed, brush teeth then no more use
milk and water only between meals
OHI, diet advance
sweets at mealtimes
supervised brushing
caries removal/rest if cooperative, consider ga if severe

81
Q

3 types of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

1 - osteogenesis imperfecta
2 - autosomal dominant
3 - brandywine

82
Q

radiographic signs of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

bulbous crowns
thin and short roots
pulp obliteration
occult abscesses

83
Q

associated problems with dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

sensitivity
caries
acid susceptibility
poor prognosis
spontaneous abscess
poor aesthetics

84
Q

management of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

prevention
OVD loss so overdentures
composite veneers
PRD
SS crowns

85
Q

indications for stainless steel crowns

A

cooperative pt
carious primary tooth
no pulpal involvement, pathology or infection
over 2 surfaces affected
after pulpotomy or pulpectomy

86
Q

conventional SS crown placement procedure

A
  1. LA, rubber dam
  2. 1mm occlusal removal with flat fissure
  3. clear contact area
  4. select crown, ensure good fit, adjust as needed with band forming pliers
  5. dry tooth, GIC in crown, seat lingually and snap buccally, gingival blanching normal
  6. remove excess cement
  7. bite down hard or finger pressure
  8. check contacts and occlusion
87
Q

signs/symptoms of stainless steel crown failure

A

loss of crown
dislodged
secondary caries
rocking
canting
pulpitis
abscess

88
Q

adv of planned xla of permanent first molar

A

can assess best time to allow for 7’s to medially drift to close space
allows caries free dentition

89
Q

signs for suitable timing of first molar xla

A

5’s present
7’s calcification of bifurcation, medially tilted
8’s present

90
Q

disadvantages of planned xla of first molars

A

poor aesthetics
loss of functional tooth
bad experience
put off dentist

91
Q

most common cardiac defect in children

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

hole between ventricles

92
Q

condition where VSD commonly seen

A

ventricular septal defect

Down syndrome

93
Q

name medical issues commonly associated wit Down syndrome

A

ventricular septal defect
alzheimers
epilepsy
obesity
hypothyroidism
hearing loss
perio

94
Q

how is ventricular septal defect managed in dental setting

A

good prevention, OH
liaise with physician/cardiologist before invasive tx
may be need of abx prophylaxis due to infective endocarditis risk

95
Q

10 y/o presents with extrusion of upper incisor
what splint

A

2 week flexible passive splint

96
Q

pt following extrusion injury has now got external inflammatory resorption
how is this managed

A

remove stimulus, assess tooth vitality
RCT with nonset CaOH 6-8 weeks
check stabilisation of RR
if not, continue CaOH
obturate with GP

CaOH ESSENTIAL to stopping inflammatory resorption

97
Q

what factors make up caries risk assessment

A

clinical evidence of previous disease
fluoride
diet
saliva
medical history
social, SE status
plaque control

98
Q

what factors make up a prevention plan

A

OHI
diet advice
fluoride usage
f varnish
fissure seal
attendance

99
Q

how often bitewings in high risk pt

100
Q

what toothpaste strength for high risk 7 y/o

101
Q

what fluoride supplement for 7y/o high risk

A

1mg per day

102
Q

what is the optimum fluoride concentration in water

A

0.7mg/l
0.7ppm-1ppm

103
Q

name sources of fluoride found in food and drink

A

black tea
seafood
spinach
oatmeal
raisins

104
Q

how does fluoride work topically

A

incorporation of fluoride into enamel structure by replacing OH ions with F in hydroxyapatite to fluorapatite

promotes remineralisation, less susceptible to acid demineralisation, antibacterial, decreased acid

105
Q

oral signs of fluorosis

A

white speckled
brown/yellow staining
surface irregularities
mottled appearance

106
Q

fluorosis tx

A

accept
enamel microabrasion
vital bleaching
resin infiltration
composite bandage
composite veneers

107
Q

what is the cause of external inflammatory resorption

A

loss of dental tissues, damage to PDL and pulp
initiated via PDl damage, propagated by RC toxins reaching external surface
necrotic pulp

reaction to trauma

108
Q

clinical signs of external inflammatory resorption

A

mobility
discolouration
pain,t enderness percussion
non-vital so negative sensibility

109
Q

radiographic signs of external inflammatory resorption

A

irregular root surface, loss of structure
radiolucent area surrounding root indicating bone loss
moth eaten

110
Q

initial management of external inflammatory root resorption

A

analgesia, sensibility

remove stimulus
RCT non-set CaOH
assess progression, replace if needed
obturate

111
Q

micro abrasion indications

A

superficial enamel irregularities
white staining
fluorosis,
post ortho

112
Q

adv of micro abrasion

A

easy, simple
conservative
can be repeated
minimal after care
permanent

113
Q

disadv of microabrasion

A

HCl caustic
unpredictable
removes enamel [100. microns ]
surgery only

114
Q

reasons for anxious child when visiting dentist

A
  • fear of unknown
  • media
  • parents perception
  • stories from friends, siblings
  • pain
115
Q

how is anxiety measured in children

A

modified child dental anxiety scale [faces]

questions which answer related to various “smiley” faces
such as
how do you feel in the waiting room

116
Q

8 behaviour management techniques

A

acclimatisation
desensitisation
tell show do
stop signals [enhanced control]
behaviour shaping
positive reinforcement
structured time
relaxation
distraction

117
Q

6 y/o with pain LRQ with gross caries 85, buccal swelling
he has haemophilia A

what is diagnosis
what is tx of choice
how to carry out procedure

A

periapical abscess
pulpotomy/pulpectomy

atraumatic, liaise with haematology, consider referral
abx if needing referral
infiltration not idb
may need ddavp
ensure cessation of bleeding

118
Q

local haemostatic agents

A

thrombin
surgicel
resorbable gelatin sponge
oxidised cellulose
la with vasoconstrictor
ferric sulphate

119
Q

autism triad of impairment

A

social interaction
social communication
restricted/repetitive behaviours

120
Q

autism features

A

sensory sensitivity
emotional dysregulation
range of intellectual ability
difficult with abstract concepts

121
Q

how are autistic pt managed in dental setting

A

avoid sarcasm, jokes
no excessive noise
acclimitisation
keep same team
first thing, avoid waiting times
avoid chitchat

122
Q

fissure sealants indications

A

all
high caries
learning disability
medically compromised

123
Q

fissure sealant materials

A

BISGMA resin
GIC

124
Q

4 types of cerebral palsy

A

1 - spastic
2 - ataxic
3 - athetoid
4 - mixed

125
Q

further classification of cerebral palsy

A

hemiplegia
diplegia
paraplegia
quadriplegia

126
Q

what is cystic fibrosis

A

chromosome 7 abnormality
CFTR gene

thick, excessive mucous in lungs, pancreas and salivary glands

127
Q

general signs/symptoms of cystic fibrosis

A

recurrent infections
thick saliva
shortness breath
underdeveloped
cyanosed lips
blue fingertips

128
Q

dental considerations of cystic fibrosis

A

thick saliva so decreased caries but increased calculus
enamel defects
delayed eruption
avoid GA and sedation
risk of infection
GORD
malabsorption