PACOP - Microbiology,Parasitology and Public Health (Green) Flashcards by

The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

a. Outbreak
b. Zoonotic
c. Endemic
d. Sporadic

a. Outbreak

Outbreak- refers to a sudden occurence of a disease

Zoonotic - means the diease is from animals that can be transmitted to humans

Endemic - disease that contantly present in a certain population

Sporadic - disease that occur occationally in a population

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A causative agent of peptic ulcer

a. Escherichia coli
b. Bordetella pertusis
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Helicobacter pylori

d. Helicobacter pylori

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The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of health is designed to prevent the spread of:

a. Dengue fever
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malnutrition
d. Malaria

a. Dengue fever

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The first drug available for HIV:

a. ZDU
b. RMP
c. TMP
d. CMC

a. ZDU (Zidovudine)/AZT (Azidothymidine)

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An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen:

a. Hay fever
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Asthma
d. Desensitation

b. Anaphylaxis

 Type 1 - Anaphylactic Reaction

 Type 2 - Cytotoxic Reaction

 Type 3 - Immune Complex Reaction

 Type 4 - Cell-mediated or Delayed type reaction

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A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

a. Cilium
b. Trichome
c. Flagellum
d. Pilus

d. Pilus

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The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

a. It can discolour the meat
b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
c. It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
d. It is not readily available

b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines

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The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supply:

a. Lysol
b. Chlorine
c. Ozone
d. Reverse osmosis

b. Chlorine

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An object that is able to harbour and transmit microorganisms:

a. Mite
b. Fomite
c. Arthropod
d. Vector

b. Fomite

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Administration of a toxoid cenfers:

a. Naturally acquired active immunity
b. Naturally acquired passive immunity
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
d. Artificially acquired passive immunity

c. Artificially acquired active immunity

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An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period:

a. Morbidity rate
b. Prevalence rate
c. Mortality ate
d. AOTA

a. Morbidity rate

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The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

a. Population size
b. Duration of exposure
c. Concentration of all the disinfectant
d. AOTA

d. AOTA

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*Lesions in the oral cavity** caused by measles virus are known as:
a. Koplik spot
b. Peyer’s patches
c. Rose spots
d. Rashes

a. Koplik spot

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Anaerobic bacteria that drive energy by converting formats, acetates and other compounds to methane:

a. Microaerophilic
b. Metanochromi
c. Methanogenic
d. Cyanobacteria

c. Methanogenic

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Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

a. Attenuated microorganisms
b. Immunoglobulin preparations
c. Toxoids
d. Cyanobacteria

b. Immunoglobulin preparations

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Nosocomial infections are:

a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
b. Infections of the nasal area
c. Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
d. Infections among animals

a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital

Nosocomial refers originating, acquired or occuring in a hospital

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The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

a. Pathogenicity
b. Virulence
c. Toxigenicity
d. Toxicity

c. Toxigenicity

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The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

a. Industrial wastes
b. Fecal coliforms
c. Red tide
d. Oil spills

b. Fecal coliforms

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The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:

a. Straight
b. Slim
c. Blunt
d. Curved

d. Curved

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It refers to water suitable for drinking:

a. Potable
b. Edible
c. bacteria-free
d. Odor-free

a. Potable

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Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:

a. Fermentation
b. Putrefaction
c. Dentrification
d. Transpeptidation

b. Putrefaction

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Rod-shape bacteria curved from commas are known as:

a. Bacilli
b. Cocci
c. Spiral
d. Vibrios

d. Vibrios

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This statement is true about viral infection:

a. Viral infection are self limiting
b. Viral infection confer lifetime immunity
c. viral infections are treated by antibiotics
d. All the statements are correct

a. Viral infection are self limiting

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The heat stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as:

a. Tetanospasmin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. endotoxin

d. endotoxin

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To ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as: a. Invasiveness b. Pathogenicity c. Toxigenicity d. Virulence

a. Invasiveness

The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as: a. Mutualism b. Commensalism c. Symbiosis d. AOTA

d. AOTA

Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be: a. Recyclable b. Biodegradable c. Earth-friendly d. Reversible

b. Biodegradable

Dengue virus vector: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Aedes agypti c. Anopheles mosquito d. NOT A

b. Aedes agypti

It causes ringworm infection with **whitish patches** on human skin: a. Tinea capitis b. Tines corporis c. Trichophyton rubrum d. Malaserria furfur

d. Malaserria furfur (Causative Agent) Pityriasis Versicolor/ Tinea versicolor * Hyper/ hypopigmentation maculae (spots) on skin * Lab diagnosis: skin scrapings (blastospores at hyphae,spaghetti & meatballs appearance

The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners a. Chlamydia b. Salmonella typi c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Legionella pneumophila

d. Legionella pneumophila

The following are communicable diseases, except: a. Measles b. Tetanus c. Pneumonia d. hepatitis

d. hepatitis

The following are zoonotic disease, except: a. Mumps b. Leptospirosis c. Anthrax d. Brucellosis

a. Mumps

Hansen's disease is caused by: a. Mycobacterium leprae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Myoplasma leprae d. NOTA

a. Mycobacterium leprae

The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except: A) Makes use of an autoclave B) Causes oxidation of cell components C) Makes use of steam under pressure D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores

B) (Incorrect) Causes oxidation of cell components Moist heat sterilization MOA: coagulation of proteins, w/c is caused by hydrogen bond breakage.

A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the: a. Endospore b. Exospores c. Trasposon d. Capsule

d. Capsule

Bacterial genes responsible for **drug resistance** are known as: a. F plasmids b. R plasmids c. Tansposons d. Both B and C

d. Both B and C Prokaryotes : DNA (Chromosomes) * Single Circular Chromosomes * Plasmid * **R plasmid** –resistance factor * **F plasmid** –fertility factor * Lack Histones * Transpoons * Small segements of DNA (700-40000 base pairs), w/c can move from one region of a DNA molecule to another

Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects: a. Protozoa b. Rickettias c. Chlamydias d. Myoplasmas

b. Rickettias

The first chemotherapeutic agent significally discovered and evaluated: a. Sulfonmide b. Penicillin c. Salvarsan d. NOTA

c. Salvarsan

Thioglycollate agar is an example of: a. Enriched media b. Selective media c. Anaerobic media d. Differential media

c. Anaerobic/ Reducing media Enrichment Media : Similar to selective media but designed to increase numbers of desired microbes to detectable levels. Selective Media :Suppression of unwanted microbes; encouraging desired microbes. Differential Media: Differentiate of colonies of desired microbes from others.

A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as: a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Sanitizer d. Germicide

d. Germicide (Manor) a. Antiseptic: destruction of vegetative pathogens on living tissue. b. Disinfectant: destruction of vegetative pathogens usually on inanimate surfaces/objects. c. Sanitizer: refers to the application of treatment intended to lower microbial counts to safe public health levels.

An example of ionizing radiation: a. X-ray b. UV c. Sunlight d. AOTA

a. X-ray

The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes: a. Ribosomes b. Nucleus c. Cytoplasm d. Mitochondria

d. Mitochondria

The organism with atypical cell wall: a. Mycoplasms b. Rickettias c. Chlamydias d. Viruses

a. Mycoplasms : Wall-less organism

Koch's postulates include the following, except: a. The suspected organism should be present in health individuals b. The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory c. The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals d. The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured

a. Wrong - The suspected organism should be present in health individuals The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease

The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except: a. Terms "aerobic" and "anaerobic" b. Fractional sterilization c. Pasteur flask d. Fermentation

b. Fractional sterilization

A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity: a. Dimorphism b. Polymorphism c. Pleomorphism d. Fleximorphism

c. Pleomorphism

The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except: a. Olive oil b. Culture media c. Water d. Glassware

a. Olive oil

A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency: a. Virus b. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Bacillus stearothermophillus d. Clostridium botulinum

c. Bacillus stearothermophillus Common Biological Indicator: - Autoclave: Bacillus stearothermophilus - Oven Sterilization: Bacillus subtilis - Detergent: Bacillus thurigiensis

Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth: a. Log phase b. Lag phase c. Stationary phase d. Death phase

c. Stationary phase

A process by which bacterial **endospore** return to its vegetative state: a. Polymorphism b. Mutagenicity c. Germination d. Sporulation

c. Germination a. Polymorphism b. Mutagenicity c. Germination : endospore becomes vegetative cells. d. Sporulation :vegetative cells form an endospore

Ribosomes of candida albicans(fungi) are reffered to as: a. 70s b. 80s c. 90s d. 100s

b. 80s Eukaryotes = 80s Ribosomes (subunits: 60s/40s)

Organisms that can grow at body temperature: a. Thermophiles b. Psychrophies c. Acidophies d. Mesophiles

d. Mesophiles

Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes: a. Sporulation b. Transverse binary fission c. Germination d. NOTA

b. Transverse binary fission

A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus: a. Transduction b. Conjugation c. Transformation d. Both A and C

a. Transduction * Transduction: mediated by bacteriophage (viruses that infect bacteria) * Conjugation: one-way transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell through a sex pilus/pili * Transformation: uptake of naked DNA by bacterium * Transposition (“jumping genes”) : move from one DNA to another

A structurally mature infections viral particle: a. Virion b. Capsid c. Capsule d. Spore

a. Virion * Virion: complete, fully developed, infectious viral particle composed of nucleic acid genome packaged into a protein coat (capsid), which may be surrounded by a membrane (envelope) * Capsid (Protein Coat) : protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virus * Capsule: outer viscous covering of some bacteria composed of polysaccharide or polypeptide. * Spore: productive structure formed by Actinomycetes (bacteria) and fungi

An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning: a. Dinoflagellate b. Diatom c. Euglenoid d. NOTA

a. Dinoflagellate Brown algae - Phaeophyta Green algae - Chlorophyta Red algae - Rodophyta Golden brown - Chrysophyta Dinoflaggelates - Pyrophyta

A theory that states that life originates from none life: a. Theory of spontaneous generation b. Koch's Postulates c. Germ Theory d. NOTA

a. Theory of spontaneous generation

Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV: a. T-helper lymphocytes b. B-lymphocytes c. Phagocytes d. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

a. T-helper lymphocytes

A priority program of DOH, which aims at **promoting availability of quality services** in health centers and hospitals: a. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. National Health Objectives c. Sentrong sigla d. Health Passport Initiative e. NOTA

c. Sentrong sigla

Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among **various sectors:** a. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. National Health Objectives c. Sentrong sigla d. Health Passport Initiative e. NOTA

b. National Health Objectives

Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the **local executive or local legislative** on health related matters: a. DOH b. WHO c. QUERT d. Sentrong Sigla e. NOTA

a. DOH

* *Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants** are among the major activities under this program: a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy b. Nutrition Program c. National Drug Policy Program d. WHO - Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine e. NOTA

d. Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine

Its main objective is attained by all people of the **highest possible level of health:** a. PhilHealth b. DOH Hospitals c. UNICEF d. WHO e. NOTA

d. WHO

National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what **function cluster:** a. Internal Management b. Health regulation c. External Affairs d. Health Regulation Development e. NOTA

d. Health Regulation Development

An employee **liability law** that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work related injuries: a. OSH Act b. Workers compensation law c. Civilian rehabilitation d. Coal Mine health and Safety Act e. NOTA

b. Workers compensation law

A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust: a. Mesothelioma b. Chemical Hazards c. Physical Hazards d. Ergonomic hazards e. NOTA

e. NOTA Pneumoconiosis : inhalation of organic irritant most often found in textile mills such as dust of cotton.

A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration: a. Biological b. Chemical c. Physical d. Ergonomic e. NOTA

c. Physical

Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration: a. Sulfur dioxide b. CO c. CO2 d. Lead e. NOTA

c.CO₂

The following are the functions of Amiotic fluid, except: a. Allows the movement of fetus b. Protects against mechanical injury c. Provides stable temperature d. Allows the fetus to float e. NOTA

e. NOTA

Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism: a. Canning b. Pasteurization c. Irradiation d. Drying e. NOTA

a. Canning

A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidant a. Vit. A b. Vit. D c. Vit. E d. Vit. K e. NOTA

c. Vit. E

The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement: a. Cirrhosis b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Fatty liver d. AOTA e. NOTA

c. Fatty liver

The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except: a. Smaller size b. Deformities of limb c. Heart defects d. Poor coordination e. NOTA

e. NOTA

Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts: a. Initial stage b. Middle stage c. Third stage d. Final stage e. NOTA

b. Middle stage Blackout is a n episode of temporary anterograde amnesia (person forgets all or part of what occured during a drinking stage)

Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog a. CO2 b. Sulfur dioxide c. Nitrogen oxide d. A and B e. B and C

e. B and C

It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms: a. Acidification b. Alkalinification c. Nitrification d. Eutrophication e. NOTA

d. Eutrophication Addition of organic matter and subsequent removal of oxygen in a body of water

A drug treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol a. Naltrexone b. Antabuse c. Tranquilizers d. AOTA e. NOTA

b. Antabuse (Disulfiram)

This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception: a. Pregnancy b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Cleavage e. NOTA

a. Pregnancy

A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing: a. Copper b. Manganese c. Chromium d. Zinc e. NOTA

a. Copper Manganese: protein synthesis and glucose Chromium: potentiates the effects of insulin and is important in glucose use Zinc: necessary for DNA and RNA synthesis. Cofactor of variety of enzymatic reactions.

It describes the amount of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual: a. RDA b. REA c. RAD d. RAE e. NOTA

a. RDA Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA): average daily level of intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97%-98%) healthy people.

A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients: a. Primary malnutrition b. Secondary malnutrition c. Undernutrition d. Overnutrition e. NOTA

b. Secondary malnutrition

Deficiency of thiamine leads to: a. Beri-beri b. Pellagra c. Stomatitis d. A and B e. B and C

a. Beri-beri * Beri-beri (Vit. B₁ - Thiamine) : Wernicke's Korsakoff * Pellagra (Vit B₃ - Niacin) : Hartnup disease (Trp) * Stomatitis (Vit B₂ - Riboflavin) * (Vit. B₅ - Pantothenic acid) : Burning feet syndrome * (Vit. C - Ascorbic acid) : Scurvy

A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity: a. Cirrhosis b. Alcoholism c. Hang-over d. A and B e. B and C

c. Hang-over

Vit. B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called: a. Steven johnson's syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome d. A and B e. NOTA

c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome

Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate? a. Polio virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome b. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome c. Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome d. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome

b. Epstein-Barr virus is a double-stranded DNA, enveloped and with icosahedral symmetry.

The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except: a. Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis b. Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologis types c. Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus. d. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

d. Wrong - Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

The following statements regarding coccidiodes immitis are correct, except: a. It is dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body b. Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs c. When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts d. The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

c. Wrong - When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts * coccidiodes immitis : dimorphic fungus (can grow as either a yeast or mold depending on the environment) * Yeast : Body Temperature

The following statements regarding bacterial **exotoxins** are correct, except: a. They are integral parts of the cell wall b. They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli c. They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that has the toxic acrtivity d. Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines

a. They are integral parts of the cell wall - \> Gram (-) : Endotoxin Only

The following statements regarding the **C3 component** of the complement cascade are correct, except: a. It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways b. Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells c. Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria

d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria C5-C9 (MAC: Membrane attack complex) : is responsible for cytolysis, such as Neiserria meningitides and N. Gonorrhea.

Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate? a. Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease b. But leaves antigenicity intact. c. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children. d. Both pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children e. The pneumococcal vaccine contains capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.

c. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children. Pertusis, (killed whole or acellular) and Haemophilus influenzae (polysaccharide from Haemophilus influenzae conjugated with protein to enchance effectiveness) are both recommended to childred prior to school age

Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which of the following is least likely to do this? a. Hepatitis A virus b. Polio virus c. Rotavirus d. Mumps virus

d. Mumps virus Mumps virus replicates in the **Upper respiratory tract** and in the regional lymph nodes and spreads via blood to distant organs.

Penicillin is very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reations. In these allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate: a. Penicillin a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response b. Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell d. Penicillin interacts with the early comnplements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory mediators

c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell Penicillin is a hapten, a foreign substance that has a low MW and not antigenic UNLESS it is attached to a carrier molecule, when attached to a high MW protein can stimulate immune response such as production of antibody (produced from B cells)

The causative agent of suppurative disease like **pharyngitis** and cellulites and nonsuppurative disease like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus agalactiae

b. Streptococcus pyogenes Group A (Beta-hemolyic) Streptococcus

The causative agent for **food poisoning, TSS and skin boils** a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus agalactiae

a. Staphylococcus aureus

Normal flora of the skin but may cause **"stitch abscess" and sepsis** a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus agalactiae

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A group of streptococcus that causes **neonatal meningitis** and sepsis a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus agalactiae

e. Streptococcus agalactiae Group B Streptococci * part of normal flora of female genitalia * neonatal sepsis, pneumonia * Neonatal meningitis

The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and **otitis media** and sinusitis in children a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus agalactiae

c. Streptococcus pneumonia

A gram-negative, kidney bean shaped **diplococcic** causing gonorrhoea a. Meningococcus b. Gonococcus c. Bacillus antracis d. Clostridium tetani e. Listeria monocytogenes

B. Gonococcus/ Neisseria gonorrhea

A gram-negative, kidney shaped diplococcic, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx a. Meningococcus b. Gonococcus c. Bacillus antracis d. Clostridium tetani e. Listeria monocytogenes

a. Meningococcus/ Neiseeria memingitides

Anaerobic, gram-positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm a. Meningococcus b. Gonococcus c. Bacillus antracis d. Clostridium tetani e. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Clostridium tetani

Aerobic, non- spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients. A. Meningococcus B. Gonococcus C. Bacillus antracis D. Clostridium tetani E. Listeria monocytogenes

Large, spore- forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly- D- glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter's disease. A. Meningococcus B. Gonococcus C. Bacillus antracis D. Clostridium tetani E. Listeria monocytogenes

Characterized physiologically by a **"sardonic smile".** A. Clostridium perfringens B. Closrtidium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Corynebacterium diphtheria E. Clostridium dificile

The causative agent of **gas gangrene.** A. Clostridium perfringens B. Closrtidium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Corynebacterium diphtheria E. Clostridium dificile

A. Clostridium perfringens Anaerobic, non-motile bacteria that is common etiologic agent of gangrene - putrid smelling gaseous discharge.

In stained smear, it is usually seen in **Chinese letter arrangement** having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system. A. Clostridium perfringens B. Closrtidium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Corynebacterium diphtheria E. Clostridium dificile

D. Corynebacterium diphtheria Corynebacteria (Coryne = club shaped) tend to be pleomorphic. They are commonly seen in chiense latter arrangement (pleomorphic pallisading rods)

Anaerobic, gram- positive, spore- forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis. A. Clostridium perfringens B. Closrtidium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Corynebacterium diphtheria E. Clostridium dificile

E. Clostridium dificile

The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods. A. Clostridium perfringens B. Closrtidium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Corynebacterium diphtheria E. Clostridium dificile

C. Clostridium botulinum

A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio cholerae E. Camphylobacter jejuni

D. Vibrio cholerae

A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow's agar. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio cholerae E. Camphylobacter jejuni

E. Camphylobacter jejuni

Facultative gram negative rods, non- lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery). A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio cholerae E. Camphylobacter jejuni

C. Shigella dysenteriae Bacillary Dysentery : Bloody diarrhea w/ mucus and pus

Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and "travellers diarrhea" are the most common disease caused by this gram negative, non- lactose fermenting bacilli. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio cholerae E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A. Escherichia coli * E**T**EC: Entero**toxigenic** E.coli * Cholera-like toxin, Watery Diarrhea, TRAVELER'S DIARRHEA * E**I**EC: Entero**invasive** E.coli * Invaded intestinal epithelium, Blood w/ Pus contaning stools and Fever * E**H**EC :Entero**hemorrhagic** E.coli * Most virulent, Verotoxin/ Shigella-like toxin, Blood diarrhea * E**P**EC: Entero**pathogenic** E.coli * Infantile diarrhea

Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non- lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S. A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. Shigella dysenteriae D. Vibrio cholerae E. Camphylobacter jejuni

B. Salmonella typhi * Gram negative, motile, encapsulated bacilli found in humans capable of producing hydrogen sulfide. * It doesn't germent lactose. * Causes typhoid fever * DOC: Ceftriaxone (3rd gen)

Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Treponema pallidum E. Leptospira interrogans

D. Treponema pallidum

Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Treponema pallidum E. Leptospira interrogans

E. Leptospira interrogans * Spiral-shaped aerobic organism that cause leptospirosis. * Treatment: Pen G and Doxycyclines

Spirochete, which is causative agent of **lyme disease** and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Treponema pallidum E. Leptospira interrogans

C. Borrelia burgdorferi

An acid- fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a **palisade arrangement.** A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Treponema pallidum E. Leptospira interrogans

A. Mycobacterium leprae An acid-fast rod, a non-motile facultative intracellular organism that causes Leprosy/ Hansen's Disease.

An acid- fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein- Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. It can be treated wth Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Treponema pallidum E. Leptospira interrogans

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Treatment: RIPES * Rifampicin * Isoniazid * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol * Streptomycin

Gancyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective. A. Herpes Simplex virus Type B. Varicella- Zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Cytomegalovirus E. Epstein- Barr virus

D. Cytomegalovirus Vertically Transmitted Infection (Congenital disease) Treatment: * Ganciclovir * Foscarnet * Valganciclovir * Cidofovir

The causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with **Burkitt's lymphoma** in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease. A. Herpes Simplex virus Type B. Varicella- Zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Cytomegalovirus E. Epstein- Barr virus

E. Epstein- Barr virus

The causative agent of **herpes genitalis**, which can be treated with Acylovir. A. Herpes Simplex virus Type B. Varicella- Zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Cytomegalovirus E. Epstein- Barr virus

C. Herpes simplex virus type 2

The causative agent of **herpes labialis** (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis. A. Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B. Varicella- Zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Cytomegalovirus E. Epstein- Barr virus

A. Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 Gingivostomatitis (cold sores)

The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults. A. Herpes Simplex virus Type B. Varicella- Zoster virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Cytomegalovirus E. Epstein- Barr virus

B. Varicella- Zoster virus Treatment: * Acyclovir * Valacyclovir * Famciclovir * Penciclovir * Docosanol

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal cells? A. Human cells undergoes mitosis, but not bacteria or fungi B. Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan C. Human and bacterial cells have plasmid, whereas fungal cells do not have. D. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.

D. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different. Ribosomes (Protein Synthesis) * Eukaryotes (algae, fungi, plants and animals) * 80S (Sub-units: 60s & 40s) * Prokaryotes (Bacteria) * 70S (Sub-units: 50s & 30s)

The following statements concerning **endotoxins** are correct, **except:** A. They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins B. They are more heat stable than exotoxins. C. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not. D. They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.

C. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.

The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is: A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases B. IgG and IgM antibodies C. Helper- T cells D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

B. IgG and IgM antibodies

The following events involve recombination of DNA, **except:** A. Transduction of a chromosomal gene B. Transposition of a mobile genetic element C. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage D. Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor

D. Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor DNA is transferred directly by cell to cell contact resulting to exchange of genetic information.

The following statements about the normal flora are correct, **except:** A. The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermis B. Escherichia coli is a normal flora of the throat. C. Colon is the major site where bacteroides fragilis can be found. D. Nose is one of the most common site Staphylococcus aureus can be found.

B. Escherichia coli is a normal flora of the throat. ## Footnote **E.coli is a normal flora of the colon**

Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defense against bacteria? A. Activation of the lysozymes that degrades the cell wall B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins C. Facilitation of phagocytosis D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

C. Facilitation of phagocytosis

Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin? A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes B. Inactivates elongation factor- 2 C. Blocks release of acetylcholine D. Causes the release of necrosis factor

D. Causes the release of necrosis factor Phagocytosis of gram negative bacteria causes the phagocytes to secrete a polypeptide called Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens? A. Capsule B. Flagella C. Cell wall D. Ribosomes

D. Ribosomes

Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine A. Diphtheria toxin B. Tetanus toxin C. Botolinum toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin E. Cholera toxin

C. Botolinum toxin Botulinum toxin, produced by Clotrium botulinum is a neurotoxin (Interferes with normal nerve impulse) that inhibits release of acetylcholine from peripheral nerves.

Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor- 2 A. Diphtheria toxin B. Tetanus toxin C. Botolinum toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin E. Cholera toxin

A. Diphtheria toxin Corynebacterium diptheriae * Cytotoxin :Kills host cells or alters functions * Produces a exotoxin that has 2 subunits * A Subunit - blocks protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor 2 * B Subunit - provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue * Nerve, heart & kidney cells

Stimulates T- cells to produce cytokines A. Diphtheria toxin B. Tetanus toxin C. Botolinum toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin E. Cholera toxin

D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP- ribosome to a G protein A. Diphtheria toxin B. Tetanus toxin C. Botolinum toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin E. Cholera toxin

E. Cholera toxin Vibrio cholerae : Enterotoxin * Increases levels of cAMP, causing secretion of electrolytes from the intestinal epithelium resulting to the secretion of fluid into intestinal tract

Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms A. Diphtheria toxin B. Tetanus toxin C. Botolinum toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin E. Cholera toxin

B. Tetanus toxin

An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the bacteria? A. Colon B. Nose C. Throat D. Vagina

B. Nose

The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except: A. Clostridium perfringens B. Streptococcus fecalis C. Escherichia coli D. Vibrio cholera

A. Clostridium perfringens (Gaseous gangrene)

A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridians group of Streptococcus. Which of the following sites is most likely to be source of the organism? A. Skin B. Colon C. Oropharynx D. Urethra

C. Oropharynx Nasopharynx, gingival crevices, human GIT

The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish: A. Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

C. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis Coagulase Positive: * S. aureus and S. intermedius

Five hours after eating friend rice at a restaurant,you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli C. Bacillus cereus D. Salmonella typhi

C. Bacillus cereus

Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector? A. Plague B. Lyme disease C. Brucellosis D. Epidermic typhus

C. Brucellosis * Presents an undulating fever (fever peaks at night and returns to normal in the morning) * Transmitted via direct contact with contaminated livestock or aborted placentas, or ingestion of contaminated milk products

Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells? A. Salmonella typhi B. Rickettsia typhi C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Coxiella burnetii

B. Rickettsia typhi

The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except: a. Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize suffient ATP. b. Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall c. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. Psittaci has only one serotypes d. Most Chlamydia are transmitted by arthropods.

d. wrong - Most Chlamydia are transmitted by arthropods. Transmitted to human by intepersonal contact or by airbourne respiratory routes

A 55- year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram- negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non- lactose fermenting colonies **without evidence of swarming motility.** Which of the following organisms is most likely to be causative agent of his urinary tract infection? A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Protues vulgaris D. Escherichia coli

D. Escherichia coli Proteus vulgaris exhibits swaming motility.

Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms? A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient. A. Nocardia asteroides B. Serratia marcescenes C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong? A. Passive immunity B. Passive- active immunity C. Active immunity D. Cell-mediated immunity

A. Passive immunity

The following statements concerning interferon are correct, except: A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses B. Interferon is induced by double- stranded DNA. C. Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species. D. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

D. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct, except: A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.

C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides

The following statements about lysogensy are correct, except: A. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes. B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed. C. Viruses DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA. D. Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that can cause human disease.

A. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes. Viruses do not cause lysis of the whole cell when they multiply, rather the phage remains latent or inactive.

The following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except: A. Varicella- zoster virus B. Papillomavirus C. Influenza virus D. HIV virus

B. Papillomavirus Causes warts. Morphology: Naked icosahedral, double stranded DNA virus

The following viruses posses RNA polymerase in the virion, except: A. Hepatitis A virus B. Smallpox virus C. Mumps virus D. Rotavirus

B. Smallpox virus

The following viruses posses double- stranded DNA as its genome, except: A. Coxsackie virus B. Herpes simplex virus C. Rotavirus D. Adenovirus

A. Coxsackie virus

Which of the following statements best describe a viriod? A. It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein. B. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat. C. It causes tumor in experimental animals. D. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.

B. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.

The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except: A. They are enveloped RNA viruses. B. The virions contain RNA polymerase. C. They each have a single antigenic type. D. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.

B. The virions contain RNA polymerase.

The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except: A. They are enveloped RNA viruses. B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. C. Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses. D. They each have a single antigenic type.

D. They each have a single antigenic type.

The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except: A. They are non- enveloped RNA viruses. B. They each have multiple antigenic types. C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. D. They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.

C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.

Herpes simplex virus A. DNA enveloped virus B. DNA non- enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus E. Viriod

A. DNA enveloped virus (-viridae) * RNA naked (PRC) * Picorna, Rheo, Calici * RNA enveloped * the rest * DNA naked (PAPA) * Papa, Parvo, Adeno * DNA enveloped (HepHeP) * Herpes, Hepadna, Pox

Human T- cell leukemia virus A. DNA enveloped virus B. DNA non- enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus E. Viriod

C. RNA enveloped virus

Human papillomavirus A. DNA enveloped virus B. DNA non- enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus E. Viriod

B. DNA non- enveloped virus

Rotavirus A. DNA enveloped virus B. DNA non- enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus E. Viriod

D. RNA non- enveloped virus

The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis A virus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Herpes simples virus

B. Hepatitis A virus

Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus? A. Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine B. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin C. Parenteral administration of live vaccine D. Oral administration of live vaccine

D. Oral administration of live vaccine Sabin Vaccine : OPV/ Oral Polio Vaccine

The following clinical syndrome are associated with infection by picornavirus, except: A. Myocarditis/Pericarditis B. Hepatitis C. Mononucleosis D. Meningitis

C. Mononucleosis Coxsackievirus: * Group A : attack skin, mucous membranes * Group B : attack heart, pancrease, liver Clinical syndromes associated with picornavirus: * A. Myocarditis/Pericarditis: Coxsackie B/ Echoviruses * B. Hepatitis: Hepatitis A * C. Mononucleosis: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a herpesviridae, responsible for infectious mononucleosis and associated with Burkitt Lymphoma * D. Meningitis: Coxsackie B

The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except: A. The vaccine cantains live, attenuated rabies virus. B. If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as Skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given. C. When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given. D. The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.

A. The vaccine cantains live, attenuated rabies virus.

The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except: A. The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract. B. Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children. C. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A. D. Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.

C. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.

It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix. A. Hepatitis C virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Dengue virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

C. Human papilloma virus

Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus. A. Hepatitis C virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Dengue virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

It is important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients. A. Hepatitis C virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Dengue virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

B. Cytomegalovirus

Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion. A. Hepatitis C virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Dengue virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A. Hepatitis C virus

It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening. A. Hepatitis C virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human papilloma virus D. Dengue virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

D. Dengue virus

Virus lack all of the following organelles, except: A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Mitotic apparatus D. DNA E. Nuclear membrane

D. DNA

The following are true about prokaryotes, except: A. They are relatively small. B. Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only. C. They lack autonomous organelles. D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission: A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Helminths

A. Bacteria

Phylogenetic prokaryotic are based on: A. Shared morphologic attributes B. Evolutionary relationships characteristics C. Shape D. Helminths

B. Evolutionary relationships characteristics

The peptidoglycan of gram- negative bacteria probably is: A. 20 layers thick B. 40 layers thick C. 10 layers thick D. 80 layers thick E. 1 layer thick

E. 1 layer thick

Porins are: A. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins B. Periplasmic proteins C. Outer membrane proteins D. Inclusion bodies

C. Outer membrane proteins

Gram- negative bacteria cell wall contains the following components, except: A. Lipoproteins B. Lipotechoic acid C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Phospholipid

B. Lipotechoic acid

This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA. A. Nucleoid B. Plasmids C. Mesosomes D. Transposons

C. Mesosomes

The bacterial organelle that is used for motility: A. Flagella B. Pili C. Cilia D. Pseudopods

A. Flagella

An intracytoplasmic granule may contain: A. Nucleic acids B. Glycogen C. Steroids D. Spindle fibers

B. Glycogen Inclusion granules typically consist of glycogen and starch.

The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores: A. Polymerized d- glutamic acid B. Flagellin C. Dipicolinic acid D. Techoic acid

C. Dipicolinic acid

This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms: A. Flagella B. Fimbriae C. Capsule D. Endospores

B. Fimbriae

This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and even catheters: A. Capsule B. Slime layer C. Pili D. Flagella

B. Slime layer

The following are true for endospores, except: A. Highly resistant to disinfectants B. Can survive for many years, especially in soil C. Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation D. Killed by heating at 100^o C

D. Killed by heating at 100^o C They are destroyed through autoclave, w/c uses steam under pressure to 121^oC for 15 minutes

A rod- like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as: A. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli B. Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacili C. Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic stretobacillus D. Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli

A. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli Microorganism are classified into 3 primary groups on the basis of their pregerred range of temperature: * Psychrophiles (cold-loving microbes) * Mesophilic (moderate temperature loving microbes) * Thermophiles (heat-loving microbes)

Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as: A. Heterotrophs B. Autotrophs C. Chemoautotrophs D. Photoautotrophs

A. Heterotrophs * Carbon * Heterotrophs: organic compounds as primary carbon source * Autotrophs: CO₂ as primary carbon source * Energy * Chemotrophs: light as energy source (photosynthetic) * Phototrophs: chemicals (organic compounds) as energy source

The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the: A. Stationary phase B. Log phase C. Lag phase D. Death phase

C. Lag phase

The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as: A. Thermal death time B. Growth rate constant C. Generation time D. Thermal death point

C. Generation time

Which of the following organism is a predatory bacterium? A. Salmonella thypinurium B. Pseudomonas seruginosa C. Bellovibrio bacteriovirus D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

C. Bellovibrio bacteriovirus

Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by: A. Activated transport B. Faciliated diffusion C. Carrier- mediated transport D. Any of the above

D. Any of the above Materials move across plasma membrane or both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells via 2 process: * Passive (Simple diffusion, Facilitated diffusion, Osmosis) * Active Transport

Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called: A. Heterofermenters B. Homofermenters C. Glyoxalate hunt fermenters D. Oxidative fermenters

B. Homofermenters Bacteria that ferment substate to singe end prodcuts, such as Streptococcus and Lactobacillis that produces ONLY lactic acid (Homofermenters)

The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are: A. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acid/Steriods B. Nucleic acid/Chitin/Peptidoglycan C. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids D. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin

C. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids

Which of the following statements is true about drug resistant plasmids? A. Found only in gram- negative bacteria B. Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic C. May be divided into two distinct genetic components:the RTF and r determinant D. Two of the above

C. May be divided into two distinct genetic components:the RTF and r determinant

Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation? A. It requires the F factor B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili C. It is mediated by a bacterial virus D. It is found only in gram- negative bacteria

B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili

It is the relationship between the host and normal microbiota: A. Disease B. Infection C. Symbiosis D. Parasitism

C. Symbiosis

It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria: A. Disease B. Infestation C. Infection D. Syndromes

C. Infection A. Disease: an abnormal state in w/c part or all of the body is not properly adjusted is incapable of performing normal fuction, any change in the state of health B. Infestation: Parasite C. Infection: Invasion or growth of microorganism in the body D. Syndromes: specific group of sign and symptoms that accompany a disease

Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as: A. Acute B. Subacute C. Chronic D. Latent

A. Acute

This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease: A. Decline phase B. Prodormal stage C. Illness stage D. Convalescence stage

B. Prodormal stage

The number of cases of Filipino with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is described as: A. Endemic B. Epidemic C. Pandemic D. Acute

C. Pandemic

It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host: A. Virulence B. Pathogenicity C. Attenuation D. In-vitro growth rates

B. Pathogenicity A. Virulence: the degree of pathogenicity B. Pathogenicity: the ability of microorganism to cause disease by overcomming the defences of a host C. Attenuation: use living, but attenuated (weakened) microbes

The two major components of virulence include: A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity B. Adherence factors and antiphagocycotic mechanisms C. Intracellular and extracellular survival D. Capsules and spreading factor

A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity

The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the release of acetycholine, is produced by: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

B. Clostridium botulinum

The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian proteinsynthesis by inactivating EF-2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclise, resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining is: A. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus

A. Escherichia coli * ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E.coli) * Enterotoxin (Causes gastroenteritis) * Traveler’s Diarrhea * Causes secretion of large amounts of fluids & electrolytes that result in diarrhea * Cholera-like toxin * Watery diarrhea

The following statements are true about endotoxins, except: A. they are also known as lipopolysaccharides. B. They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. C. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins. D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except: A. Teeth B. Urethra C. Bronchi D. Skin

C. Bronchi

The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora: A. Skin B. Colon C. Vagina D. Mouth

D. Mouth

Vancomycin is produced naturally from: A. Srep. Nodosus B. Strep. Orientalis C. Strep. griseus D. Ster. Orchidaceous

B. Strep. Orientalis

Polymixin is produced from: A. Bacillus subtilis B. Bacillus cereus C. Bacillus polymyxa D. Bacillus anthracis

C. Bacillus polymyxa Bacillus subtilis - Bacitracin Bacillus cereus - Food Poisoning Bacillus anthracis - Anthrax

The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except: A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Lincomycins D. Cephalosporins

D. Cephalosporins -Inhibit cell wall synthesis

Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins, although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or adeficiency of: A. Plasmid that codes the penicillinase B. Autolytic enzymes C. Cellular growth rates D. Certain cytochromes

C. Cellular growth rates

Nystatin is produced naturally from: A. Strep. Nodosus B. Strep. Noursei C. Strep. Griseus D. Strep. Natalensis

B. Strep. Noursei

This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB: A. Penicillin B. Bacitracin C. Vancomycin D. Cycloserine

D. Cycloserine

Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic: A. Gentamicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Bacitracin D. Polymixin

B. Chloramphenicol

It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms: A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Antisepsis D. Asepsis

B. Disinfection

It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice: A. Chlorine B. Merthiolate C. Hydrogen Peroxide D. Iodine

D. Iodine

This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids: A. Ethylene oxide B. Formaldehyde C. Acids and alkalis D. Hydrogen peroxide

A. Ethylene oxide

It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive soluyions: A. Autoclave B. Filtration C. Radiation D. Pateurization

B. Filtration

This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have Gonorrhea: A. Merthiolate B. Mercurochrome C. Silver sulfadiazine D. Silver nitrite

D. Silver nitrite

The following are milk-borne pathogens, except: A) Mycobaterium bovis B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Clostridium

D) Clostridium * Mycobacterium bovis is a pathogen mainly of cattle. It is responsible for bovine tuberculosis, w/c is transmitted to humans via contaminated milk or food. * Streptococcus spp. is also a fermenting organism.

Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution? A. Autoclaving B. Dry heat (oven) C. Ethylene oxide D. Filtration

D. Filtration

The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following: A. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis B. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis D. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa

C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of: A. L-glutamic acid B. D-glutamic acid C. Polysaccharide D. Nucleic acid

B. D-glutamic acid Only bacterium with a capsule coposed of protein (poly-D-glutamic acid)

Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except: A. It is a large, gram-positive rod B. It is a spore former C. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins. D. It can live inside phagocytic cells.

D. It can live inside phagocytic cells. Bacillus anthracis has a capsule that prevents phagocytosis.

Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except: A. It is a spore former. B. It is a short, gram-positive rod C. It can live inside phagocytic cells. D. It is actively motile.

A. It is a spore former. Listeria monocytogenes, is the only gram (+) motile rod with an ENDOTOXIN.

The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci: A. M protein B. Group A carbohydrate C. Hyaluronic acid capsule D. Protein A

A. M protein

The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus: A. Gram staining B. Catalase test C. Coagulase test D. Hemolysis test

C. Coagulase test

An example of a streptococcal disease sequel: A. Scarlet fever B. Pharyngitis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Rheumatic fever

D. Rheumatic fever

The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis: A. 2 B. 7 C. 12 D. 19

C. 12

The Streptococcus most commonly associated with **subacute bacterial endocarditis:** A. Sterptococcus pyogenes B. Sterptococcus agalactiae C. Viridans streptococci D. Sterptococcus pneumonia

C. Viridans streptococci

Which of the following **does not influence** the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhoea? A. Polysaccharide capsule B. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin C. Genus-specific protein D. Production of IgA protease

C. Genus-specific protein

Neisseria are all: A. Gram positive B. Anaerobes C. Coagulase positive D. Oxidase positive

D. Oxidase positive

In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitides may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoea by: A. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium C. The presence of pili D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate * Neisseria meningitides * Ferments glucose and maltose * Neisseria gonorrhoea * Ferments ONLY glucose

The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans: A. Blood-sucking arthropods B. Contact with contaminated feces C. Animal bites and scratches D. Contact with contaminated urine E. Handling of infected tissues

C. Animal bites and scratches

Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough? A. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract C. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen. D. All of the above

B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract * Bordatella pertusis is the causative agent of whooping cough. * Pertusis: Violent cough * The virulence factor of this organism enables it to attach to ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea and bronchi. It evades host's defences and destroys ciliated cells causing whooping cough

Tularemia may occur in: A. Ulderoglandular form B. Oculoglandular form C. Pulmonary form D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, falcutative anaerobic, nosocomial pathogen: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Proteus vulgaris C. Kleibsiella pneuminiae D. Escherichia coli

D. Escherichia coli

A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus: A. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas C. Proteus D. Serratia

A. Klebsiella

A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus: A. Proteus B. Escherichia C. Serratia D. Klebsiella

A. Proteus

Leprosy may manifest itself as: A. Lepromatous leprosy B. Tuberculoid leprosy C. A and B D. B and C

C. A and B * Lepromatous leprosy (Progressive) form, skin cells are infected and disfiguring form of nodules form all over the body * Tuberculoid leprosy (Neural) form is characterized by regions of the skin that have lost sensation and are surrounded by a border of nodules

Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Cutaneous lesions B. Mucous membrane lesions C. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by: A. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later B. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide C. The VDRL test D. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

D. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

The smallest known free-living microorganism is: A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae

B) Mycoplasma species

The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is: A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts

B) Trophozoite

A class in which only parasitic forms occur: A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa

D) Sporozoa

In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found: A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms? A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C

E) B and C

Blastocyctis hominis is a: A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria

B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst

The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

C) Entamoeba histolytica

Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

C) Entamoeba histolytica

Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A) Entamoeba coli

Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

C) Entamoeba histolytica

The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

C) Entamoeba histolytica

Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts): A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis

D) Iodamoeba butschlii

In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is: A) The period just before a paroxysm B) At the beginning of a paroxysm C) During the late paroxysmal stage D) The period just following a paroxysm

A) The period just before a paroxysm

Definitive host of human malarial parasites: A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C

B) Anopheles mosquito

The sexual cycle is the: A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C

A) Sporogony Sporogony: Sexual cycle, multiplication Schizogony: Asexual cycle, multiplication

Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A) Plasmodium vivax

As a rule, only r**ings and crescent-shaped gametocytes** are observed in peripheral blood, which includes: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

C) Plasmodium falciparum Crescent or sausage shape

The malarial parasite that **enlarges red blood cells:** A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A) Plasmodium vivax

Man may acquire Toxoplasma from: A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs

B) Cats

Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by: A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test

C) Flourescent antibody tests

Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by: A) Bite of the vector insect B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst C) In the body of the parasitic nematode D) Ingestion of infected food

B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst

The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance: A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas

A) Chilomastix mesnili

An axostyle is present in this organism: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Trichomonas D) Plasmodium ovale

C) Trichomonas

Trophozoite that resembles "old man's eyeglasses": A) Plasmodium vivax B) Gardia lamblia C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

B) Gardia lamblia

This organism has lemon-shaped cysts: A) Chilomastix meslinii B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A) Chilomastix meslinii

This causes visceral leishmaniasis: A) Leishmania donovani B) Leishmania tropica C) Leishmania braziliensis D) Trypanosoma cruzi

A) Leishmania donovani

The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection: A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle

C) Pig

A viviparous organism: A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm

B) Trichenella spiralis * A viviparous organism bear live young rather than eggs. * The female Trichenella sp. produces thousands of larvae (not eggs)

Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal? A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura

B) Pinworm The female pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) migrates to the perianal area at night) to lay her eggs. This causes perianal itching.

"Old world" hookworm: A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis

B) Ancylostoma duodenale Necator americanus: "New" world hookworm

This organism causes tropical elephantiasis: A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis

C) Wucheria bancrofti and Brugia malayi

The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism: A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis

C) Ascaris lumbricoides

The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

B) Trichuris trichiura

The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

A) Enterobius vermicularis

Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of: A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat

C) Dog

Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Hookworm D) A and B E) B and C

E) B and C

Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism: A) Hookworm B) Whipworm C) Pinworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides E) Strongyloides stercoralis

E) Strongyloides stercoralis * **Hookworm (Eggs)** * **Strongyloides stercoralis (Larvae)**

Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm

B) Hookworm

The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans: A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium

C) Dipylidium caninum

The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Dipyllobotrium latum

The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus

E) Echinococcus granulosus

The eggs of this worm are operculated: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum

C) Dipyllobotrium latum

Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

B) Fasciolopsis buski

This causes Egyptian hematuria: A) Schistosoma hematobium B) Schistosoma mansoni C) Schistosoma japonicum D) Fasciola hepatica

A) Schistosoma hematobium

The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine: A) Schistosoma hematobium B) Schistosoma mansoni C) Schistosoma japonicum D) Fasciola hepatica

C) Schistosoma japonicum

This organism is acquired by **eating infected raw fish:** A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

D) Chlonorchis sinensis ## Footnote **Chinese liver fluke**

This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

C) Paragonimus weatermani

The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has: A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes C) Hashimotos's thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia

B) Circulating immune complexes

The Coomb's test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of: A) Myasthenia gravis B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C) Waldenstrom's macroglubilemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is: A) Antibody thyroglobuin B) Antibody to DNA C) Antibody to mitochondria D) Antibody to smooth muscle

B) Antibody to DNA High conc. of antinuclear antibodies againt double stranded DNA and the Smith (Sm) nuclear antigen, both w/c are considered specific for SLE.

In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane. B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns. C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane. D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.

C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.

In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of: A) Capsule B) Mucopeptide layer C) M and/or T proteins D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci

C) M and/or T proteins

Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by: A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant's serum C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant

D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant IgM antibodies does not cross the placenta, and it is the first antibody produced against infection.

Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses? A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus

D) Herpes simplex virus Vertically Transmitted Infection (Congenital disease) * Toxoplamosis, * Others: * Rubella, * Cytomegalovirus (CMV) * Herpes, Hepa B, HIV, * Epstein Bar, * Syphilis,

Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus: A)Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum

A)Epidermophyton Epidermophyton : Affects on skin and **nails** Trichophyton: Affects on skin, nails and hair Microsporum: Affects skin and **hair**

A hapten is a substance that: A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule C) Induces tolerance when given alone D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes

B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule A hapten is a low MW substance that doesnt cause formation of antibodies by itself but does so when comibned with another molecule (carrier molecule)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the "positive strand" RNA virus? A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication. B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA. C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form. D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.

B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA. A positive (+) strand RNA virus means that the RNA is just like the messenger RNA (mRNA). When this type of virus enters the host cell, its RNA can be immediately translated by the host's ribosomes into the protein.