Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Module 6 > PACOP - Microbiology,Parasitology and Public Health (Green) > Flashcards

PACOP - Microbiology,Parasitology and Public Health (Green) Flashcards

1
Q

The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

a. Outbreak
b. Zoonotic
c. Endemic
d. Sporadic

A

a. Outbreak

Outbreak- refers to a sudden occurence of a disease

Zoonotic - means the diease is from animals that can be transmitted to humans

Endemic - disease that contantly present in a certain population

Sporadic - disease that occur occationally in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A causative agent of peptic ulcer

a. Escherichia coli
b. Bordetella pertusis
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Helicobacter pylori

A

d. Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of health is designed to prevent the spread of:

a. Dengue fever
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malnutrition
d. Malaria

A

a. Dengue fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The first drug available for HIV:

a. ZDU
b. RMP
c. TMP
d. CMC

A

a. ZDU (Zidovudine)/AZT (Azidothymidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen:

a. Hay fever
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Asthma
d. Desensitation

A

b. Anaphylaxis

 Type 1 - Anaphylactic Reaction

 Type 2 - Cytotoxic Reaction

 Type 3 - Immune Complex Reaction

 Type 4 - Cell-mediated or Delayed type reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

a. Cilium
b. Trichome
c. Flagellum
d. Pilus

A

d. Pilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

a. It can discolour the meat
b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
c. It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
d. It is not readily available

A

b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supply:

a. Lysol
b. Chlorine
c. Ozone
d. Reverse osmosis

A

b. Chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An object that is able to harbour and transmit microorganisms:

a. Mite
b. Fomite
c. Arthropod
d. Vector

A

b. Fomite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Administration of a toxoid cenfers:

a. Naturally acquired active immunity
b. Naturally acquired passive immunity
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
d. Artificially acquired passive immunity

A

c. Artificially acquired active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period:

a. Morbidity rate
b. Prevalence rate
c. Mortality ate
d. AOTA

A

a. Morbidity rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

a. Population size
b. Duration of exposure
c. Concentration of all the disinfectant
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • *Lesions in the oral cavity** caused by measles virus are known as:
    a. Koplik spot
    b. Peyer’s patches
    c. Rose spots
    d. Rashes
A

a. Koplik spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anaerobic bacteria that drive energy by converting formats, acetates and other compounds to methane:

a. Microaerophilic
b. Metanochromi
c. Methanogenic
d. Cyanobacteria

A

c. Methanogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

a. Attenuated microorganisms
b. Immunoglobulin preparations
c. Toxoids
d. Cyanobacteria

A

b. Immunoglobulin preparations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nosocomial infections are:

a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
b. Infections of the nasal area
c. Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
d. Infections among animals

A

a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital

Nosocomial refers originating, acquired or occuring in a hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

a. Pathogenicity
b. Virulence
c. Toxigenicity
d. Toxicity

A

c. Toxigenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

a. Industrial wastes
b. Fecal coliforms
c. Red tide
d. Oil spills

A

b. Fecal coliforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:

a. Straight
b. Slim
c. Blunt
d. Curved

A

d. Curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

It refers to water suitable for drinking:

a. Potable
b. Edible
c. bacteria-free
d. Odor-free

A

a. Potable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:

a. Fermentation
b. Putrefaction
c. Dentrification
d. Transpeptidation

A

b. Putrefaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rod-shape bacteria curved from commas are known as:

a. Bacilli
b. Cocci
c. Spiral
d. Vibrios

A

d. Vibrios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This statement is true about viral infection:

a. Viral infection are self limiting
b. Viral infection confer lifetime immunity
c. viral infections are treated by antibiotics
d. All the statements are correct

A

a. Viral infection are self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The heat stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as:

a. Tetanospasmin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. endotoxin

A

d. endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

To ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as:

a. Invasiveness
b. Pathogenicity
c. Toxigenicity
d. Virulence

A

a. Invasiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:

a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Symbiosis
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:

a. Recyclable
b. Biodegradable
c. Earth-friendly
d. Reversible

A

b. Biodegradable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dengue virus vector:

a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Aedes agypti
c. Anopheles mosquito
d. NOT A

A

b. Aedes agypti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

a. Tinea capitis
b. Tines corporis
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Malaserria furfur

A

d. Malaserria furfur (Causative Agent)

Pityriasis Versicolor/ Tinea versicolor

  • Hyper/ hypopigmentation maculae (spots) on skin
  • Lab diagnosis: skin scrapings (blastospores at hyphae,spaghetti & meatballs appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners

a. Chlamydia
b. Salmonella typi
c. Pneumocystis carinii
d. Legionella pneumophila

A

d. Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The following are communicable diseases, except:

a. Measles
b. Tetanus
c. Pneumonia
d. hepatitis

A

d. hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The following are zoonotic disease, except:

a. Mumps
b. Leptospirosis
c. Anthrax
d. Brucellosis

A

a. Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hansen’s disease is caused by:

a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Myoplasma leprae
d. NOTA

A

a. Mycobacterium leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:

A) Makes use of an autoclave

B) Causes oxidation of cell components

C) Makes use of steam under pressure

D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores

A

B) (Incorrect) Causes oxidation of cell components

Moist heat sterilization

MOA: coagulation of proteins, w/c is caused by hydrogen bond breakage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:

a. Endospore
b. Exospores
c. Trasposon
d. Capsule

A

d. Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:

a. F plasmids
b. R plasmids
c. Tansposons
d. Both B and C

A

d. Both B and C

Prokaryotes : DNA (Chromosomes)

  • Single Circular Chromosomes
  • Plasmid
    • R plasmid –resistance factor
    • F plasmid –fertility factor
  • Lack Histones
  • Transpoons
    • Small segements of DNA (700-40000 base pairs), w/c can move from one region of a DNA molecule to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:

a. Protozoa
b. Rickettias
c. Chlamydias
d. Myoplasmas

A

b. Rickettias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The first chemotherapeutic agent significally discovered and evaluated:

a. Sulfonmide
b. Penicillin
c. Salvarsan
d. NOTA

A

c. Salvarsan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

a. Enriched media
b. Selective media
c. Anaerobic media
d. Differential media

A

c. Anaerobic/ Reducing media

Enrichment Media : Similar to selective media but designed to increase numbers of desired microbes to detectable levels.

Selective Media :Suppression of unwanted microbes; encouraging desired microbes.

Differential Media: Differentiate of colonies of desired microbes from others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as:

a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Sanitizer
d. Germicide

A

d. Germicide (Manor)
a. Antiseptic: destruction of vegetative pathogens on living tissue.
b. Disinfectant: destruction of vegetative pathogens usually on inanimate surfaces/objects.
c. Sanitizer: refers to the application of treatment intended to lower microbial counts to safe public health levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An example of ionizing radiation:

a. X-ray
b. UV
c. Sunlight
d. AOTA

A

a. X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

a. Ribosomes
b. Nucleus
c. Cytoplasm
d. Mitochondria

A

d. Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The organism with atypical cell wall:

a. Mycoplasms
b. Rickettias
c. Chlamydias
d. Viruses

A

a. Mycoplasms : Wall-less organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Koch’s postulates include the following, except:

a. The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
b. The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
c. The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
d. The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured

A

a. Wrong - The suspected organism should be present in health individuals

The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:

a. Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic”
b. Fractional sterilization
c. Pasteur flask
d. Fermentation

A

b. Fractional sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

a. Dimorphism
b. Polymorphism
c. Pleomorphism
d. Fleximorphism

A

c. Pleomorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:

a. Olive oil
b. Culture media
c. Water
d. Glassware

A

a. Olive oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

a. Virus
b. Bacillus thuringiensis
c. Bacillus stearothermophillus
d. Clostridium botulinum

A

c. Bacillus stearothermophillus

Common Biological Indicator:

  • Autoclave: Bacillus stearothermophilus
  • Oven Sterilization: Bacillus subtilis
  • Detergent: Bacillus thurigiensis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:

a. Log phase
b. Lag phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase

A

c. Stationary phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A process by which bacterial endospore return to its vegetative state:

a. Polymorphism
b. Mutagenicity
c. Germination
d. Sporulation

A

c. Germination

a. Polymorphism
b. Mutagenicity
c. Germination : endospore becomes vegetative cells.
d. Sporulation :vegetative cells form an endospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ribosomes of candida albicans(fungi) are reffered to as:

a. 70s
b. 80s
c. 90s
d. 100s

A

b. 80s

Eukaryotes = 80s Ribosomes (subunits: 60s/40s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

a. Thermophiles
b. Psychrophies
c. Acidophies
d. Mesophiles

A

d. Mesophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:

a. Sporulation
b. Transverse binary fission
c. Germination
d. NOTA

A

b. Transverse binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:

a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Both A and C

A

a. Transduction

  • Transduction: mediated by bacteriophage (viruses that infect bacteria)
  • Conjugation: one-way transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell through a sex pilus/pili
  • Transformation: uptake of naked DNA by bacterium
  • Transposition (“jumping genes”) : move from one DNA to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A structurally mature infections viral particle:

a. Virion
b. Capsid
c. Capsule
d. Spore

A

a. Virion

  • Virion: complete, fully developed, infectious viral particle composed of nucleic acid genome packaged into a protein coat (capsid), which may be surrounded by a membrane (envelope)
  • Capsid (Protein Coat) : protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virus
  • Capsule: outer viscous covering of some bacteria composed of polysaccharide or polypeptide.
  • Spore: productive structure formed by Actinomycetes (bacteria) and fungi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

a. Dinoflagellate
b. Diatom
c. Euglenoid
d. NOTA

A

a. Dinoflagellate

Brown algae - Phaeophyta

Green algae - Chlorophyta

Red algae - Rodophyta

Golden brown - Chrysophyta

Dinoflaggelates - Pyrophyta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A theory that states that life originates from none life:

a. Theory of spontaneous generation
b. Koch’s Postulates
c. Germ Theory
d. NOTA

A

a. Theory of spontaneous generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

a. T-helper lymphocytes
b. B-lymphocytes
c. Phagocytes
d. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

A

a. T-helper lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals:

a. Health Sector Reform Agenda
b. National Health Objectives
c. Sentrong sigla
d. Health Passport Initiative
e. NOTA

A

c. Sentrong sigla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among various sectors:

a. Health Sector Reform Agenda
b. National Health Objectives
c. Sentrong sigla
d. Health Passport Initiative
e. NOTA

A

b. National Health Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health related matters:

a. DOH
b. WHO
c. QUERT
d. Sentrong Sigla
e. NOTA

A

a. DOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  • *Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants** are among the major activities under this program:
    a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy
    b. Nutrition Program
    c. National Drug Policy Program
    d. WHO - Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine
    e. NOTA
A

d. Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Its main objective is attained by all people of the highest possible level of health:

a. PhilHealth
b. DOH Hospitals
c. UNICEF
d. WHO
e. NOTA

A

d. WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:

a. Internal Management
b. Health regulation
c. External Affairs
d. Health Regulation Development
e. NOTA

A

d. Health Regulation Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

An employee liability law that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work related injuries:

a. OSH Act
b. Workers compensation law
c. Civilian rehabilitation
d. Coal Mine health and Safety Act
e. NOTA

A

b. Workers compensation law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:

a. Mesothelioma
b. Chemical Hazards
c. Physical Hazards
d. Ergonomic hazards
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

Pneumoconiosis : inhalation of organic irritant most often found in textile mills such as dust of cotton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:

a. Biological
b. Chemical
c. Physical
d. Ergonomic
e. NOTA

A

c. Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:

a. Sulfur dioxide
b. CO
c. CO2
d. Lead
e. NOTA

A

c.CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The following are the functions of Amiotic fluid, except:

a. Allows the movement of fetus
b. Protects against mechanical injury
c. Provides stable temperature
d. Allows the fetus to float
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism:

a. Canning
b. Pasteurization
c. Irradiation
d. Drying
e. NOTA

A

a. Canning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidant

a. Vit. A
b. Vit. D
c. Vit. E
d. Vit. K
e. NOTA

A

c. Vit. E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

a. Cirrhosis
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Fatty liver
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

c. Fatty liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:

a. Smaller size
b. Deformities of limb
c. Heart defects
d. Poor coordination
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:

a. Initial stage
b. Middle stage
c. Third stage
d. Final stage
e. NOTA

A

b. Middle stage

Blackout is a n episode of temporary anterograde amnesia (person forgets all or part of what occured during a drinking stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog

a. CO2
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Nitrogen oxide
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

e. B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms:

a. Acidification
b. Alkalinification
c. Nitrification
d. Eutrophication
e. NOTA

A

d. Eutrophication

Addition of organic matter and subsequent removal of oxygen in a body of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A drug treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol

a. Naltrexone
b. Antabuse
c. Tranquilizers
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

b. Antabuse (Disulfiram)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:

a. Pregnancy
b. Fertilization
c. Implantation
d. Cleavage
e. NOTA

A

a. Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:

a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Chromium
d. Zinc
e. NOTA

A

a. Copper

Manganese: protein synthesis and glucose
Chromium: potentiates the effects of insulin and is important in glucose use
Zinc: necessary for DNA and RNA synthesis. Cofactor of variety of enzymatic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

It describes the amount of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:

a. RDA
b. REA
c. RAD
d. RAE
e. NOTA

A

a. RDA

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA): average daily level of intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97%-98%) healthy people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients:

a. Primary malnutrition
b. Secondary malnutrition
c. Undernutrition
d. Overnutrition
e. NOTA

A

b. Secondary malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Deficiency of thiamine leads to:

a. Beri-beri
b. Pellagra
c. Stomatitis
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

a. Beri-beri

  • Beri-beri (Vit. B1 - Thiamine) : Wernicke’s Korsakoff
  • Pellagra (Vit B3 - Niacin) : Hartnup disease (Trp)
  • Stomatitis (Vit B2 - Riboflavin)
  • (Vit. B5 - Pantothenic acid) : Burning feet syndrome
  • (Vit. C - Ascorbic acid) : Scurvy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:

a. Cirrhosis
b. Alcoholism
c. Hang-over
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

c. Hang-over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Vit. B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

a. Steven johnson’s syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome
d. A and B
e. NOTA

A

c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate?

a. Polio virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
b. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
c. Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
d. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome

A

b. Epstein-Barr virus is a double-stranded DNA, enveloped and with icosahedral symmetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:

a. Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis
b. Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologis types
c. Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus.
d. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

A

d. Wrong - Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The following statements regarding coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:

a. It is dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body
b. Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs
c. When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts
d. The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

A

c. Wrong - When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts

  • coccidiodes immitis : dimorphic fungus (can grow as either a yeast or mold depending on the environment)
    • Yeast : Body Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:

a. They are integral parts of the cell wall
b. They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli
c. They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that has the toxic acrtivity
d. Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines

A

a. They are integral parts of the cell wall
- > Gram (-) : Endotoxin Only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:

a. It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways
b. Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells
c. Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils
d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria

A

d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria

C5-C9 (MAC: Membrane attack complex) : is responsible for cytolysis, such as Neiserria meningitides and N. Gonorrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?

a. Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease
b. But leaves antigenicity intact.
c. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
d. Both pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children
e. The pneumococcal vaccine contains capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.

A

c. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.

Pertusis, (killed whole or acellular) and Haemophilus influenzae (polysaccharide from Haemophilus influenzae conjugated with protein to enchance effectiveness) are both recommended to childred prior to school age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which of the following is least likely to do this? a. Hepatitis A virus

b. Polio virus
c. Rotavirus
d. Mumps virus

A

d. Mumps virus

Mumps virus replicates in the Upper respiratory tract and in the regional lymph nodes and spreads via blood to distant organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Penicillin is very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reations. In these allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate:

a. Penicillin a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response
b. Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them
c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell
d. Penicillin interacts with the early comnplements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory mediators

A

c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell

Penicillin is a hapten, a foreign substance that has a low MW and not antigenic UNLESS it is attached to a carrier molecule, when attached to a high MW protein can stimulate immune response such as production of antibody (produced from B cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The causative agent of suppurative disease like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative disease like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

Group A (Beta-hemolyic) Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The causative agent for food poisoning, TSS and skin boils

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

a. Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Normal flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A group of streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

e. Streptococcus agalactiae

Group B Streptococci

  • part of normal flora of female genitalia
  • neonatal sepsis, pneumonia
  • Neonatal meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

c. Streptococcus pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A gram-negative, kidney bean shaped diplococcic causing gonorrhoea

a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus antracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

B. Gonococcus/ Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A gram-negative, kidney shaped diplococcic, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx

a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus antracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

a. Meningococcus/ Neiseeria memingitides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Anaerobic, gram-positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm

a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus antracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

d. Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Aerobic, non- spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.
A. Meningococcus
B. Gonococcus
C. Bacillus antracis
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Listeria monocytogenes

A

e.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Large, spore- forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly- D- glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s disease. A. Meningococcus
B. Gonococcus
C. Bacillus antracis
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Listeria monocytogenes

A

c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”.
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Closrtidium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Clostridium dificile

A

b.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The causative agent of gas gangrene.
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Closrtidium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Clostridium dificile

A

A. Clostridium perfringens

Anaerobic, non-motile bacteria that is common etiologic agent of gangrene - putrid smelling gaseous discharge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system.
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Closrtidium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Clostridium dificile

A

D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

Corynebacteria (Coryne = club shaped) tend to be pleomorphic. They are commonly seen in chiense latter arrangement (pleomorphic pallisading rods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Anaerobic, gram- positive, spore- forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Closrtidium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Clostridium dificile

A

E. Clostridium dificile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Closrtidium tetani
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Clostridium dificile

A

C. Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A

D. Vibrio cholerae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow’s agar. A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A

E. Camphylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Facultative gram negative rods, non- lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A

C. Shigella dysenteriae

Bacillary Dysentery : Bloody diarrhea w/ mucus and pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travellers diarrhea” are the most common disease caused by this gram negative, non- lactose fermenting bacilli.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A

A. Escherichia coli

  • ETEC: Enterotoxigenic E.coli
    • Cholera-like toxin, Watery Diarrhea, TRAVELER’S DIARRHEA
  • EIEC: Enteroinvasive E.coli
    • Invaded intestinal epithelium, Blood w/ Pus contaning stools and Fever
  • EHEC :Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
    • Most virulent, Verotoxin/ Shigella-like toxin, Blood diarrhea
  • EPEC: Enteropathogenic E.coli
    • Infantile diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non- lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni

A

B. Salmonella typhi

  • Gram negative, motile, encapsulated bacilli found in humans capable of producing hydrogen sulfide.
  • It doesn’t germent lactose.
  • Causes typhoid fever
  • DOC: Ceftriaxone (3rd gen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Leptospira interrogans

A

D. Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.

A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Leptospira interrogans

A

E. Leptospira interrogans

  • Spiral-shaped aerobic organism that cause leptospirosis.
  • Treatment: Pen G and Doxycyclines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Spirochete, which is causative agent of lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages.
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Leptospira interrogans

A

C. Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

An acid- fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Leptospira interrogans

A

A. Mycobacterium leprae

An acid-fast rod, a non-motile facultative intracellular organism that causes Leprosy/ Hansen’s Disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

An acid- fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein- Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. It can be treated wth Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Leptospira interrogans

A

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Treatment: RIPES

  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Gancyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type
B. Varicella- Zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Epstein- Barr virus

A

D. Cytomegalovirus

Vertically Transmitted Infection (Congenital disease)

Treatment:

  • Ganciclovir
  • Foscarnet
  • Valganciclovir
  • Cidofovir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

The causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type
B. Varicella- Zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Epstein- Barr virus

A

E. Epstein- Barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can be treated with Acylovir.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type
B. Varicella- Zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Epstein- Barr virus

A

C. Herpes simplex virus type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
B. Varicella- Zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Epstein- Barr virus

A

A. Herpes Simplex virus Type 1

Gingivostomatitis (cold sores)

122
Q

The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type
B. Varicella- Zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Epstein- Barr virus

A

B. Varicella- Zoster virus

Treatment:

  • Acyclovir
  • Valacyclovir
  • Famciclovir
  • Penciclovir
  • Docosanol
123
Q

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal cells?
A. Human cells undergoes mitosis, but not bacteria or fungi
B. Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan
C. Human and bacterial cells have plasmid, whereas fungal cells do not have.
D. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.

A

D. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.

Ribosomes (Protein Synthesis)

  • Eukaryotes (algae, fungi, plants and animals)
    • 80S (Sub-units: 60s & 40s)
  • Prokaryotes (Bacteria)
    • 70S (Sub-units: 50s & 30s)
124
Q

The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:
A. They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins
B. They are more heat stable than exotoxins.
C. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
D. They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.

A

C. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.

125
Q

The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B. IgG and IgM antibodies
C. Helper- T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

A

B. IgG and IgM antibodies

126
Q

The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:
A. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
B. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
C. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
D. Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor

A

D. Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor

DNA is transferred directly by cell to cell contact resulting to exchange of genetic information.

127
Q

The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
A. The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermis
B. Escherichia coli is a normal flora of the throat.
C. Colon is the major site where bacteroides fragilis can be found.
D. Nose is one of the most common site Staphylococcus aureus can be found.

A

B. Escherichia coli is a normal flora of the throat.

E.coli is a normal flora of the colon

128
Q

Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defense against bacteria?
A. Activation of the lysozymes that degrades the cell wall
B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C. Facilitation of phagocytosis
D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

A

C. Facilitation of phagocytosis

129
Q

Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B. Inactivates elongation factor- 2
C. Blocks release of acetylcholine
D. Causes the release of necrosis factor

A

D. Causes the release of necrosis factor

Phagocytosis of gram negative bacteria causes the phagocytes to secrete a polypeptide called Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

130
Q

The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Cell wall
D. Ribosomes

A

D. Ribosomes

131
Q

Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Botolinum toxin
D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. Cholera toxin

A

C. Botolinum toxin

Botulinum toxin, produced by Clotrium botulinum is a neurotoxin (Interferes with normal nerve impulse) that inhibits release of acetylcholine from peripheral nerves.

132
Q

Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor- 2
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Botolinum toxin
D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. Cholera toxin

A

A. Diphtheria toxin

Corynebacterium diptheriae

  • Cytotoxin :Kills host cells or alters functions
  • Produces a exotoxin that has 2 subunits
    • A Subunit - blocks protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor 2
    • B Subunit - provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue
  • Nerve, heart & kidney cells
133
Q

Stimulates T- cells to produce cytokines
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Botolinum toxin
D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. Cholera toxin

A

D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

134
Q

Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP- ribosome to a G protein
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Botolinum toxin
D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. Cholera toxin

A

E. Cholera toxin

Vibrio cholerae : Enterotoxin

  • Increases levels of cAMP, causing secretion of electrolytes from the intestinal epithelium resulting to the secretion of fluid into intestinal tract
135
Q

Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Botolinum toxin
D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
E. Cholera toxin

A

B. Tetanus toxin

136
Q

An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the bacteria?
A. Colon
B. Nose
C. Throat
D. Vagina

137
Q

The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Streptococcus fecalis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Vibrio cholera

A

A. Clostridium perfringens (Gaseous gangrene)

138
Q

A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridians group of Streptococcus. Which of the following sites is most likely to be source of the organism?
A. Skin
B. Colon
C. Oropharynx
D. Urethra

A

C. Oropharynx

Nasopharynx, gingival crevices, human GIT

139
Q

The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

A

C. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis

Coagulase Positive:

  • S. aureus and S. intermedius
140
Q

Five hours after eating friend rice at a restaurant,you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Salmonella typhi

A

C. Bacillus cereus

141
Q

Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?
A. Plague
B. Lyme disease
C. Brucellosis
D. Epidermic typhus

A

C. Brucellosis

  • Presents an undulating fever (fever peaks at night and returns to normal in the morning)
  • Transmitted via direct contact with contaminated livestock or aborted placentas, or ingestion of contaminated milk products
142
Q

Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Coxiella burnetii

A

B. Rickettsia typhi

143
Q

The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:

a. Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize suffient ATP.
b. Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall
c. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. Psittaci has only one serotypes
d. Most Chlamydia are transmitted by arthropods.

A

d. wrong - Most Chlamydia are transmitted by arthropods.

Transmitted to human by intepersonal contact or by airbourne respiratory routes

144
Q

A 55- year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram- negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non- lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be causative agent of his urinary tract infection?
A. Streptococcus faecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Protues vulgaris
D. Escherichia coli

A

D. Escherichia coli

Proteus vulgaris exhibits swaming motility.

145
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms?
A. Streptococcus faecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Escherichia coli

A

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

146
Q

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient.
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Serratia marcescenes
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

147
Q

Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A. Passive immunity
B. Passive- active immunity
C. Active immunity
D. Cell-mediated immunity

A

A. Passive immunity

148
Q

The following statements concerning interferon are correct, except:
A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses
B. Interferon is induced by double- stranded DNA.
C. Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species.
D. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

A

D. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

149
Q

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct, except:
A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell
C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.

A

C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides

150
Q

The following statements about lysogensy are correct, except:
A. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.
C. Viruses DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
D. Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that can cause human disease.

A

A. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.

Viruses do not cause lysis of the whole cell when they multiply, rather the phage remains latent or inactive.

151
Q

The following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
A. Varicella- zoster virus
B. Papillomavirus
C. Influenza virus
D. HIV virus

A

B. Papillomavirus

Causes warts.

Morphology:

Naked icosahedral, double stranded DNA virus

152
Q

The following viruses posses RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Smallpox virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Rotavirus

A

B. Smallpox virus

153
Q

The following viruses posses double- stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A. Coxsackie virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Rotavirus
D. Adenovirus

A

A. Coxsackie virus

154
Q

Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?
A. It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
B. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
C. It causes tumor in experimental animals.
D. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.

A

B. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.

155
Q

The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
A. They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B. The virions contain RNA polymerase.
C. They each have a single antigenic type.
D. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.

A

B. The virions contain RNA polymerase.

156
Q

The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
A. They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C. Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses.
D. They each have a single antigenic type.

A

D. They each have a single antigenic type.

157
Q

The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
A. They are non- enveloped RNA viruses.
B. They each have multiple antigenic types.
C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
D. They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.

A

C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.

158
Q

Herpes simplex virus
A. DNA enveloped virus
B. DNA non- enveloped virus
C. RNA enveloped virus
D. RNA non- enveloped virus
E. Viriod

A

A. DNA enveloped virus

(-viridae)

  • RNA naked (PRC)
    • Picorna, Rheo, Calici
  • RNA enveloped
    • the rest
  • DNA naked (PAPA)
    • Papa, Parvo, Adeno
  • DNA enveloped (HepHeP)
    • Herpes, Hepadna, Pox
159
Q

Human T- cell leukemia virus
A. DNA enveloped virus
B. DNA non- enveloped virus
C. RNA enveloped virus
D. RNA non- enveloped virus
E. Viriod

A

C. RNA enveloped virus

160
Q

Human papillomavirus
A. DNA enveloped virus
B. DNA non- enveloped virus
C. RNA enveloped virus
D. RNA non- enveloped virus
E. Viriod

A

B. DNA non- enveloped virus

161
Q

Rotavirus
A. DNA enveloped virus
B. DNA non- enveloped virus
C. RNA enveloped virus
D. RNA non- enveloped virus
E. Viriod

A

D. RNA non- enveloped virus

162
Q

The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Herpes simples virus

A

B. Hepatitis A virus

163
Q

Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus?
A. Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
C. Parenteral administration of live vaccine
D. Oral administration of live vaccine

A

D. Oral administration of live vaccine

Sabin Vaccine : OPV/ Oral Polio Vaccine

164
Q

The following clinical syndrome are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
A. Myocarditis/Pericarditis
B. Hepatitis
C. Mononucleosis
D. Meningitis

A

C. Mononucleosis

Coxsackievirus:

  • Group A : attack skin, mucous membranes
  • Group B : attack heart, pancrease, liver

Clinical syndromes associated with picornavirus:

  • A. Myocarditis/Pericarditis: Coxsackie B/ Echoviruses
  • B. Hepatitis: Hepatitis A
  • C. Mononucleosis: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a herpesviridae, responsible for infectious mononucleosis and associated with Burkitt Lymphoma
  • D. Meningitis: Coxsackie B
165
Q

The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
A. The vaccine cantains live, attenuated rabies virus.
B. If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as
Skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given.
C. When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given.
D. The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.

A

A. The vaccine cantains live, attenuated rabies virus.

166
Q

The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:
A. The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract.
B. Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
C. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
D. Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.

A

C. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.

167
Q

It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Dengue virus
E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A

C. Human papilloma virus

168
Q

Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Dengue virus
E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A

E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

169
Q

It is important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Dengue virus
E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A

B. Cytomegalovirus

170
Q

Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion.
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Dengue virus
E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A

A. Hepatitis C virus

171
Q

It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Dengue virus
E. St. Louis encephalitis virus

A

D. Dengue virus

172
Q

Virus lack all of the following organelles, except:
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleus
C. Mitotic apparatus
D. DNA
E. Nuclear membrane

173
Q

The following are true about prokaryotes, except:
A. They are relatively small.
B. Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
C. They lack autonomous organelles.
D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

A

D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

174
Q

Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Helminths

A

A. Bacteria

175
Q

Phylogenetic prokaryotic are based on:
A. Shared morphologic attributes
B. Evolutionary relationships characteristics
C. Shape
D. Helminths

A

B. Evolutionary relationships characteristics

176
Q

The peptidoglycan of gram- negative bacteria probably is:
A. 20 layers thick
B. 40 layers thick
C. 10 layers thick
D. 80 layers thick
E. 1 layer thick

A

E. 1 layer thick

177
Q

Porins are:
A. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins
B. Periplasmic proteins
C. Outer membrane proteins
D. Inclusion bodies

A

C. Outer membrane proteins

178
Q

Gram- negative bacteria cell wall contains the following components, except:
A. Lipoproteins
B. Lipotechoic acid
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Phospholipid

A

B. Lipotechoic acid

179
Q

This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA.
A. Nucleoid
B. Plasmids
C. Mesosomes
D. Transposons

A

C. Mesosomes

180
Q

The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:
A. Flagella
B. Pili
C. Cilia
D. Pseudopods

A

A. Flagella

181
Q

An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:
A. Nucleic acids
B. Glycogen
C. Steroids
D. Spindle fibers

A

B. Glycogen

Inclusion granules typically consist of glycogen and starch.

182
Q

The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:
A. Polymerized d- glutamic acid
B. Flagellin
C. Dipicolinic acid
D. Techoic acid

A

C. Dipicolinic acid

183
Q

This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A. Flagella
B. Fimbriae
C. Capsule
D. Endospores

A

B. Fimbriae

184
Q

This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and even catheters:
A. Capsule
B. Slime layer
C. Pili
D. Flagella

A

B. Slime layer

185
Q

The following are true for endospores, except:

A. Highly resistant to disinfectants

B. Can survive for many years, especially in soil

C. Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation

D. Killed by heating at 100o C

A

D. Killed by heating at 100o C

They are destroyed through autoclave, w/c uses steam under pressure to 121oC for 15 minutes

186
Q

A rod- like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as:
A. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
B. Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacili
C. Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic stretobacillus
D. Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli

A

A. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli

Microorganism are classified into 3 primary groups on the basis of their pregerred range of temperature:

  • Psychrophiles (cold-loving microbes)
  • Mesophilic (moderate temperature loving microbes)
  • Thermophiles (heat-loving microbes)
187
Q

Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
A. Heterotrophs
B. Autotrophs
C. Chemoautotrophs
D. Photoautotrophs

A

A. Heterotrophs

  • Carbon
    • Heterotrophs: organic compounds as primary carbon source
    • Autotrophs: CO2 as primary carbon source
  • Energy
    • Chemotrophs: light as energy source (photosynthetic)
    • Phototrophs: chemicals (organic compounds) as energy source
188
Q

The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the:
A. Stationary phase
B. Log phase
C. Lag phase
D. Death phase

A

C. Lag phase

189
Q

The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
A. Thermal death time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Thermal death point

A

C. Generation time

190
Q

Which of the following organism is a predatory bacterium?
A. Salmonella thypinurium
B. Pseudomonas seruginosa
C. Bellovibrio bacteriovirus
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

C. Bellovibrio bacteriovirus

191
Q

Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:
A. Activated transport
B. Faciliated diffusion
C. Carrier- mediated transport
D. Any of the above

A

D. Any of the above

Materials move across plasma membrane or both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells via 2 process:

  • Passive (Simple diffusion, Facilitated diffusion, Osmosis)
  • Active Transport
192
Q

Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
A. Heterofermenters
B. Homofermenters
C. Glyoxalate hunt fermenters
D. Oxidative fermenters

A

B. Homofermenters

Bacteria that ferment substate to singe end prodcuts, such as Streptococcus and Lactobacillis that produces ONLY lactic acid (Homofermenters)

193
Q

The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:
A. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acid/Steriods
B. Nucleic acid/Chitin/Peptidoglycan
C. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
D. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin

A

C. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids

194
Q

Which of the following statements is true about drug resistant plasmids?
A. Found only in gram- negative bacteria
B. Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
C. May be divided into two distinct genetic components:the RTF and r determinant
D. Two of the above

A

C. May be divided into two distinct genetic components:the RTF and r determinant

195
Q

Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?
A. It requires the F factor
B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
C. It is mediated by a bacterial virus
D. It is found only in gram- negative bacteria

A

B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili

196
Q

It is the relationship between the host and normal microbiota:
A. Disease
B. Infection
C. Symbiosis
D. Parasitism

A

C. Symbiosis

197
Q

It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:
A. Disease
B. Infestation
C. Infection
D. Syndromes

A

C. Infection

A. Disease: an abnormal state in w/c part or all of the body is not properly adjusted is incapable of performing normal fuction, any change in the state of health
B. Infestation: Parasite
C. Infection: Invasion or growth of microorganism in the body
D. Syndromes: specific group of sign and symptoms that accompany a disease

198
Q

Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A. Acute
B. Subacute
C. Chronic
D. Latent

199
Q

This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A. Decline phase
B. Prodormal stage
C. Illness stage
D. Convalescence stage

A

B. Prodormal stage

200
Q

The number of cases of Filipino with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is described as:
A. Endemic
B. Epidemic
C. Pandemic
D. Acute

A

C. Pandemic

201
Q

It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A. Virulence
B. Pathogenicity
C. Attenuation
D. In-vitro growth rates

A

B. Pathogenicity

A. Virulence: the degree of pathogenicity
B. Pathogenicity: the ability of microorganism to cause disease by overcomming the defences of a host
C. Attenuation: use living, but attenuated (weakened) microbes

202
Q

The two major components of virulence include:
A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity
B. Adherence factors and antiphagocycotic mechanisms
C. Intracellular and extracellular survival
D. Capsules and spreading factor

A

A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity

203
Q

The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

B. Clostridium botulinum

204
Q

The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian proteinsynthesis by inactivating EF-2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

205
Q

The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclise, resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

A. Escherichia coli

  • ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E.coli)
    • Enterotoxin (Causes gastroenteritis)
    • Traveler’s Diarrhea
    • Causes secretion of large amounts of fluids & electrolytes that result in diarrhea
    • Cholera-like toxin
    • Watery diarrhea
206
Q

The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:
A. they are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B. They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

A

D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

207
Q

The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
A. Teeth
B. Urethra
C. Bronchi
D. Skin

A

C. Bronchi

208
Q

The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
A. Skin
B. Colon
C. Vagina
D. Mouth

209
Q

Vancomycin is produced naturally from:
A. Srep. Nodosus
B. Strep. Orientalis
C. Strep. griseus
D. Ster. Orchidaceous

A

B. Strep. Orientalis

210
Q

Polymixin is produced from:
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus polymyxa
D. Bacillus anthracis

A

C. Bacillus polymyxa

Bacillus subtilis - Bacitracin
Bacillus cereus - Food Poisoning
Bacillus anthracis - Anthrax

211
Q

The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Lincomycins
D. Cephalosporins

A

D. Cephalosporins

-Inhibit cell wall synthesis

212
Q

Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins, although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or adeficiency of:
A. Plasmid that codes the penicillinase
B. Autolytic enzymes
C. Cellular growth rates
D. Certain cytochromes

A

C. Cellular growth rates

213
Q

Nystatin is produced naturally from:
A. Strep. Nodosus
B. Strep. Noursei
C. Strep. Griseus
D. Strep. Natalensis

A

B. Strep. Noursei

214
Q

This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
A. Penicillin
B. Bacitracin
C. Vancomycin
D. Cycloserine

A

D. Cycloserine

215
Q

Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
A. Gentamicin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Bacitracin
D. Polymixin

A

B. Chloramphenicol

216
Q

It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Antisepsis
D. Asepsis

A

B. Disinfection

217
Q

It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:
A. Chlorine
B. Merthiolate
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
D. Iodine

218
Q

This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Formaldehyde
C. Acids and alkalis
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

A. Ethylene oxide

219
Q

It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive soluyions:
A. Autoclave
B. Filtration
C. Radiation
D. Pateurization

A

B. Filtration

220
Q

This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have Gonorrhea:
A. Merthiolate
B. Mercurochrome
C. Silver sulfadiazine
D. Silver nitrite

A

D. Silver nitrite

221
Q

The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:

A) Mycobaterium bovis

B) Salmonella

C) Streptococcus

D) Clostridium

A

D) Clostridium

  • Mycobacterium bovis is a pathogen mainly of cattle. It is responsible for bovine tuberculosis, w/c is transmitted to humans via contaminated milk or food.
  • Streptococcus spp. is also a fermenting organism.
222
Q

Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution? A. Autoclaving
B. Dry heat (oven)
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Filtration

A

D. Filtration

223
Q

The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:
A. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
B. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa
C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
D. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa

A

C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis

224
Q

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:
A. L-glutamic acid
B. D-glutamic acid
C. Polysaccharide
D. Nucleic acid

A

B. D-glutamic acid

Only bacterium with a capsule coposed of protein (poly-D-glutamic acid)

225
Q

Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:
A. It is a large, gram-positive rod
B. It is a spore former
C. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D. It can live inside phagocytic cells.

A

D. It can live inside phagocytic cells.

Bacillus anthracis has a capsule that prevents phagocytosis.

226
Q

Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:
A. It is a spore former.
B. It is a short, gram-positive rod
C. It can live inside phagocytic cells.
D. It is actively motile.

A

A. It is a spore former.

Listeria monocytogenes, is the only gram (+) motile rod with an ENDOTOXIN.

227
Q

The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:
A. M protein
B. Group A carbohydrate
C. Hyaluronic acid capsule
D. Protein A

A

A. M protein

228
Q

The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Gram staining
B. Catalase test
C. Coagulase test
D. Hemolysis test

A

C. Coagulase test

229
Q

An example of a streptococcal disease sequel:
A. Scarlet fever
B. Pharyngitis
C. Puerperal sepsis
D. Rheumatic fever

A

D. Rheumatic fever

230
Q

The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A. 2
B. 7
C. 12
D. 19

231
Q

The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A. Sterptococcus pyogenes
B. Sterptococcus agalactiae
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Sterptococcus pneumonia

A

C. Viridans streptococci

232
Q

Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhoea?
A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
C. Genus-specific protein
D. Production of IgA protease

A

C. Genus-specific protein

233
Q

Neisseria are all:
A. Gram positive
B. Anaerobes
C. Coagulase positive
D. Oxidase positive

A

D. Oxidase positive

234
Q

In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitides may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoea by:
A. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C. The presence of pili
D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

A

D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

  • Neisseria meningitides
    • Ferments glucose and maltose
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea
    • Ferments ONLY glucose
235
Q

The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A. Blood-sucking arthropods
B. Contact with contaminated feces
C. Animal bites and scratches
D. Contact with contaminated urine
E. Handling of infected tissues

A

C. Animal bites and scratches

236
Q

Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?
A. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible
B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract
C. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D. All of the above

A

B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract

  • Bordatella pertusis is the causative agent of whooping cough.
  • Pertusis: Violent cough
    • The virulence factor of this organism enables it to attach to ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea and bronchi. It evades host’s defences and destroys ciliated cells causing whooping cough
237
Q

Tularemia may occur in:
A. Ulderoglandular form
B. Oculoglandular form
C. Pulmonary form
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

238
Q

The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, falcutative anaerobic, nosocomial pathogen:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Kleibsiella pneuminiae
D. Escherichia coli

A

D. Escherichia coli

239
Q

A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A. Klebsiella
B. Pseudomonas
C. Proteus
D. Serratia

A

A. Klebsiella

240
Q

A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A. Proteus
B. Escherichia
C. Serratia
D. Klebsiella

A

A. Proteus

241
Q

Leprosy may manifest itself as:
A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. A and B
D. B and C

A

C. A and B

  • Lepromatous leprosy (Progressive) form, skin cells are infected and disfiguring form of nodules form all over the body
  • Tuberculoid leprosy (Neural) form is characterized by regions of the skin that have lost sensation and are surrounded by a border of nodules
242
Q

Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:
A. Cutaneous lesions
B. Mucous membrane lesions
C. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

A

D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

243
Q

The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:
A. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
B. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C. The VDRL test
D. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

A

D. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

244
Q

The smallest known free-living microorganism is:
A) Viruses
B) Mycoplasma species
C) Rickettsia
D) Chlamydiae

A

B) Mycoplasma species

245
Q

The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:
A) Sporozoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Merozoite
D) Cysts

A

B) Trophozoite

246
Q

A class in which only parasitic forms occur:
A) Sarcodina
B) Mastigophora
C) Ciliata
D) Sporozoa

A

D) Sporozoa

247
Q

In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
A) Stool
B) Urine
C) Sputum
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

A

D) All of the above

248
Q

Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
A) Formalin-ether
B) Kato thick smear
C) Stool dilution
D) A and B
E) B and C

A

E) B and C

249
Q

Blastocyctis hominis is a:
A) Zooparasite
B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
C) New name for Enatamoeba coli
D) Bacteria

A

B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst

250
Q

The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

C) Entamoeba histolytica

251
Q

Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

C) Entamoeba histolytica

252
Q

Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

A) Entamoeba coli

253
Q

Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

C) Entamoeba histolytica

254
Q

The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

C) Entamoeba histolytica

255
Q

Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis

A

D) Iodamoeba butschlii

256
Q

In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A) The period just before a paroxysm
B) At the beginning of a paroxysm
C) During the late paroxysmal stage
D) The period just following a paroxysm

A

A) The period just before a paroxysm

257
Q

Definitive host of human malarial parasites:
A) Any domestic animal
B) Anopheles mosquito
C) Man
D) B and C

A

B) Anopheles mosquito

258
Q

The sexual cycle is the:
A) Sporogony
B) Schizogony
C) Either B or C
D) Neither B nor C

A

A) Sporogony

Sporogony: Sexual cycle, multiplication
Schizogony: Asexual cycle, multiplication

259
Q

Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

A) Plasmodium vivax

260
Q

As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which includes:
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

C) Plasmodium falciparum

Crescent or sausage shape

261
Q

The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

A) Plasmodium vivax

262
Q

Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:
A) Mice
B) Cats
C) Dogs
D) Pigs

263
Q

Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:
A) Stool examination
B) Thin blood film
C) Flourescent antibody tests
D) Intradermal test

A

C) Flourescent antibody tests

264
Q

Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:
A) Bite of the vector insect
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
C) In the body of the parasitic nematode
D) Ingestion of infected food

A

B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst

265
Q

The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:
A) Chilomastix mesnili
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Trichomonas hominis
D) Retortamonas

A

A) Chilomastix mesnili

266
Q

An axostyle is present in this organism:
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Trichomonas
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

C) Trichomonas

267
Q

Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Gardia lamblia
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

B) Gardia lamblia

268
Q

This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:
A) Chilomastix meslinii
B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum
D) Plasmodium ovale

A

A) Chilomastix meslinii

269
Q

This causes visceral leishmaniasis:
A) Leishmania donovani
B) Leishmania tropica
C) Leishmania braziliensis
D) Trypanosoma cruzi

A

A) Leishmania donovani

270
Q

The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:
A) Dog
B) Cat
C) Pig
D) Cattle

271
Q

A viviparous organism:
A) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Trichenella spiralis
C) Hookworm
D) Pinworm

A

B) Trichenella spiralis

  • A viviparous organism bear live young rather than eggs.
  • The female Trichenella sp. produces thousands of larvae (not eggs)
272
Q

Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
A) Hookworm
B) Pinworm
C) Trichinella spiralis
D) Trichuris trichiura

A

B) Pinworm

The female pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) migrates to the perianal area at night) to lay her eggs. This causes perianal itching.

273
Q

“Old world” hookworm:
A) Necator americanus
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Ancylostoma caninum
D) Toxocara canis

A

B) Ancylostoma duodenale

Necator americanus: “New” world hookworm

274
Q

This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:
A) Loa loa
B) Onchocerca volvulus
C) Wucheria bancrofti
D) Dracunculus medinensis

A

C) Wucheria bancrofti

and Brugia malayi

275
Q

The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Strongyloides stercoralis

A

C) Ascaris lumbricoides

276
Q

The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Trichuris trichiura
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Trichinella spiralis

A

B) Trichuris trichiura

277
Q

The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Trichuris trichiura
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Trichinella spiralis

A

A) Enterobius vermicularis

278
Q

Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
A) Pig
B) Monkey
C) Dog
D) Cat

279
Q

Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Hookworm
D) A and B
E) B and C

A

E) B and C

280
Q

Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Hookworm
B) Whipworm
C) Pinworm
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
E) Strongyloides stercoralis

A

E) Strongyloides stercoralis

  • Hookworm (Eggs)
  • Strongyloides stercoralis (Larvae)
281
Q

Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
A) Whipworm
B) Hookworm
C) Pinworm
D) Large intestinal roundworm

A

B) Hookworm

282
Q

The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:
A) Hymenolepsis nana
B) Hymenolepsis diminuta
C) Dipylidium caninum
D) Taenia solium

A

C) Dipylidium caninum

283
Q

The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Echinococcus granulosus

A

C) Dipyllobotrium latum

284
Q

The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Echinococcus granulosus

A

E) Echinococcus granulosus

285
Q

The eggs of this worm are operculated:
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum

A

C) Dipyllobotrium latum

286
Q

Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani
D) Chlonorchis sinensis

A

B) Fasciolopsis buski

287
Q

This causes Egyptian hematuria:
A) Schistosoma hematobium
B) Schistosoma mansoni
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Fasciola hepatica

A

A) Schistosoma hematobium

288
Q

The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:
A) Schistosoma hematobium
B) Schistosoma mansoni
C) Schistosoma japonicum
D) Fasciola hepatica

A

C) Schistosoma japonicum

289
Q

This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani
D) Chlonorchis sinensis

A

D) Chlonorchis sinensis

Chinese liver fluke

290
Q

This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani
D) Chlonorchis sinensis

A

C) Paragonimus weatermani

291
Q

The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia
B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis
D) Pernicious anemia

A

B) Circulating immune complexes

292
Q

The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia
D) Rheumatoid arthritis

A

B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

293
Q

The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin
B) Antibody to DNA
C) Antibody to mitochondria
D) Antibody to smooth muscle

A

B) Antibody to DNA

High conc. of antinuclear antibodies againt double stranded DNA and the Smith (Sm) nuclear antigen, both w/c are considered specific for SLE.

294
Q

In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.

A

C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.

295
Q

In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci

A

C) M and/or T proteins

296
Q

Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:
A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant

A

D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant

IgM antibodies does not cross the placenta, and it is the first antibody produced against infection.

297
Q

Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses?
A) Varicella-zoster
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Poliovirus
D) Herpes simplex virus

A

D) Herpes simplex virus

Vertically Transmitted Infection (Congenital disease)

  • Toxoplamosis,
  • Others:
  • Rubella,
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • Herpes, Hepa B, HIV,
  • Epstein Bar,
  • Syphilis,
298
Q

Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus: A)Epidermophyton
B) Trichophyton
C) Microsporum
D) Trichosporum

A

A)Epidermophyton

Epidermophyton : Affects on skin and nails
Trichophyton: Affects on skin, nails and hair
Microsporum: Affects skin and hair

299
Q

A hapten is a substance that:
A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule
C) Induces tolerance when given alone
D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes

A

B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule

A hapten is a low MW substance that doesnt cause formation of antibodies by itself but does so when comibned with another molecule (carrier molecule)

300
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.

A

B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.

A positive (+) strand RNA virus means that the RNA is just like the messenger RNA (mRNA).

When this type of virus enters the host cell, its RNA can be immediately translated by the host’s ribosomes into the protein.

Module 6 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions