1
Q
1. Other name of Ferric ammonium sulfate A. Ferric alum B. Fe NH4 (SO4)2 C. Fe (NH4)2(SO4)2 D. A and B E. A and C
A
D
2
Q
2. The following is/are example/s of metal-ion indicators. I. Murexide II. Calmagite III. Pyrocathecol violet IV. Ferric alum A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III and IV
A
C
3
Q
3. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in: A. % w/w B. % w/v C. Both a and b D. None of the choices
A
B
4
Q
4. Standard solution in precipitation method od analysis A. Disodium edetate B. Silver nitrate C. Sodium Methoxide D. Perchloric acid
A
B
5
Q
5. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element A. Masking agent B. Demasking agent C. Both a and b D. None of the choices
A
A
6
Q
6. Argentometric titration is titration with \_\_\_\_\_\_ ion. A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Silver D. Potassium
A
C
7
Q
7. Fajans titration uses \_\_\_\_ indicator. A. Acid-base B. Adsorption C. Metal-ion D. None of the choices
A
B
8
Q
8. Reasons why residual titration are performeD. A. Reaction proceeds slowly B. Poor solubility of the sample C. Sample does not give sharp end point D. All of the choices
A
D
9
Q
9. Solutions containing all the reagents and solvents used in the analysis, but no deliberately added analytE. A. Blank solution B. Solution with sample C. Standard solution D. Test solution
A
A
10
Q
10. Describes how close a measured value is to the true valuE. A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Range D. Standard deviation
A
A
11
Q
11. Primary standard in the standardization of perchloric acid A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate B. Calcium carbonate C. Benzoic acid D. Sodium carbonate
A
A
12
Q
12. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxidE. A. Benzoic acid B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Sodium carbonate D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
A
A
13
Q
13. The term dried to constant weight means that two consecutive weighing do not differ by more than: A. 0.0002 g B. 0.2 mg C. 0.5 mg/g D. All of the choices E. C only
A
D
14
Q
14. Other name of systematic error A. Determinate B. Indeterminate C. Random D. Both b and c
A
A
15
Q
15. Ferric ammonium sulfate is used as indicator in the standardization of: A. Silver nitrate B. Ammonium thiocyanate C. Edetate disodium D. All of the choices
A
B
16
Q
16. The end point of using number ferric ammonium sulfate is: A. White precipitate B. Red-brown color C. Pink color D. Blue color
A
B
17
Q
17. Limit moisture in nonaqueous titrimetric analysis is less than: A. 0.5 % B. 0.05 % C. 0.2 % D. 0.02 %
A
B
18
Q
18. Complete reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH - A. Na2C4H4O6 B. H2O C. Both a and b D. None of the choices
A
C
19
Q
19. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom. A. Monodentate B. Bidentate C. Tridentate D. Tetradentate
A
A
20
Q
20. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of sodium thiosulfate in optimum range for the stability of the solution? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Chloroform C. Thymol D. Sodium carbonate
A
D
21
Q
21. Standard solution in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis-acidimetry A. perchloric acid B. hydrogen bromide C. both a and b D. none of the choices
A
C
22
Q
22. Standards solutions are also known as: A. test solutions B. volumetric solutions C. saturated solution D. none of the choices
A
B
23
Q
23. If starch is used as an indicator, the end point is/are: A. appearance of intense blue color B. disappearance of intense blue color C. both of the choices D. none of the choices
A
C
24
Q
24. Types of chemical reaction used in the volumetric analysis A. redox B. neutralization C. diazotization D. all of the choices E. a and b only
A
D
25
```
25. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
A. Solubilizing agent
B. Change in pH of the solution
C. As preservative
D. All of the choices
```
A
26
```
26. Other name of ferrous phenanthrolinE.
A. eosin Y
B. crystal violet
C. ferroin
D. ferric alum
```
C
27
```
27. Color of the complex resulting from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline:
A. blue
B. red
C. pink
D. violet
```
B
28
```
28. Primary standard in the standardization of ceric sulfate solution
A. potassium hydrogen phthalate
B. calciuim carbonate
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. arsenic trioxide
```
D
29
```
29. In the standardization of iodine solution, why is there a need to boil the solution of arsenic trioxide?
A. it increases the solubility
B. it makes the solution stable
C. both a and c
D. none of the choices
```
A
30
```
30. Indicator in iodometric method of analysis.
A. KMnO4
B. Methyl red TS
C. Methyl orange TS
D. Starch TS
```
D
31
```
31. A molecule which provides groups of attachment to metal ions.
A. Ligand
B. Chelate
C. Both a and b
D. None of the choices
```
A
32
```
32. HCl + Calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
A. Carbonic acid
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Both a and c
D. None of the choices
```
D
33
```
33. The reaction between HCl and calcium carbonate can be seen in the standardization of:
A. Silver nitrate
B. Ammonium thiocyanate
C. Edetate disodium
D. Sulfuric acid
```
C
34
```
34. A substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction.
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Both a and c
D. None of the choices
```
A
35
```
35. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the metal ion with a ligand is called _____.
A. Formation constant
B. Solubility product constant
C. Solubility constant
D. None of the choices
```
A
36
```
36. NaCl ______ the stability of EDTA complex.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No effect
D. None of the choices
```
B
37
```
37. Organic solvents _______ the stability of EDTA complex.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No effect
D. None of the choices
```
A
38
```
38. Indicator in Redox Titration using KMnO4
A. Starch TS
B. KMnO4
C. Methyl red TS
D. Methyl orange
```
B
39
```
39. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely used method for determining nitrogen in substancE.
A. Non-aqueous titrimetry
B. Precipitation
C. Redox itration
D. Kjeldahl method
```
D
40
```
40. Most suitable indicator to use in titration of organic acids
A. Methyl red TS
B. Methyl orange TS
C. Phenolphthalein
D. All of the choices
```
C
41
41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte is weakly acidic
II. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is acid halidE.
III. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte contains heterocyclic nitrogen compounD.
IV. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is barbituratE.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, and IV
D
42
```
42. Indicator/s used in nonaqueous titrimetry
I. Nile blue
II. Crystal violet
III. Malachite green
IV. Phenolphthalein
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
```
C
43
```
43. Standard solutions in nonaqueous alkalimetry.
I. Lithium methoxide
II. Perchloric acid
III. Hydrogen bromide
IV. Sodium hydroxide
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
```
A
44
```
44. The use of chloroform in sodium thiosulfate solution.
A. To stabilize the solution
B. To increase its solubility
C. To prevent bacterial growth
D. To maintain pH of the solution
```
C
45
45. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of organic solvent.
II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of electrolytes.
III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above 25 °C
IV. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature of 25°C.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III and IV
C
46
```
46. When a weak base is to be titrated with weak acid, the indicator used is:
A. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl orange
C. Methyl red
D. No indicator is suggested
```
D
47
47. The formula to compute the equivalent weight of a reducing agent.
A. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons gain
B. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons loss
C. Both a and b
D. None of the choices
B
48
```
48. The used of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine solution ______.
A. Increase the solubility
B. as buffer
C. As preservative
D. To prevent bacterial growth
```
B
49
```
49. Method/s determining the total nitrogen in a sample
A. Macromethod
B. Semimicro method
C. Both a and c
D. None of the choices
```
C
50
```
50. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is:
A. Desiccator
B. Separatory funnel
C. Furnace
D. Incubator
```
A
51
51. The following is/are true about EDTA:
I. EDTA forms strong 1:1 complexes with most metal ions.
II. It prevents metal-catalyzed oxidation of fooD.
III. It is a pentadentate molecule
IV. It contains 3 oxygen and 2 hydrogen atoms that are capable of entering complexation reaction with metal ion.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
B
52
```
52. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardized sodium hydroxidE. What is the molarity if 33.26 mL reacts with 0.3337 g sulfamic aciD. MW=97
A. 0.304
B. 0.1004
C. 0.1005
D. 0.403
```
B
53
```
53. A 0.2185 g sample of NaCl was assayed using Volhard method using 50 mL of 0.998N silver nitrate and 11.9 mL of 0.1350N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the NaCl in the samplE. MW NaCl = 58.45
A. 42.6
B. 62.4
C. 90.5
D. 6.24
```
A
54
```
54. A 4.59 mL sample of HCl, specific gravity 1.3, required 50.5 mL of 0.9544N NaOH in a titration. Calculate the % w/w HCl.
A. 29%
B. 1%
C. 92%
D. 69%
```
A
55
```
55. What is the titer value for 0.05 M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW= 142.9
A. 3.57 mg
B. 7.15 mg
C. 73.5 mg
D. 53.7 mg
```
B
56
```
56. A 10 mL sample of sulfuric acid solution required 16.85 mL of NaOH solution in a titration. Each mL of the NaOH solution was equivalent to 0.2477 g of potassium hydrogen phthalatE. Calculate the sulfuric acid content in %w/v. MW=98
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
```
A
57
```
57. Limestone consists mainly of the mineral calcite, CaCO3. The carbonate content of 0.5413 g of powdered limestone was measured by suspending the powder in water, adding 10 mL of 1.392 M HCl and heating to dissolve the solid and expel CO2. The excess acid required 39.96 mL of 0.1004 M NaOH for complete titration to a phenolphthalein end point. Find the weight % of the calcite in the limestonE. MW=100
A. 29%
B. 39%
C. 92%
D. 96%
```
C
58
```
58. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyzed 256μL of a solution containing 37.9 mg protein/mL. The liberated ammonia was collected in 5 mL of 0.0336 M HCl, and the remaining acid required 6.34 mL of 0.010 M NaOH for complete titration. What is the weight % of nitrogen in the protein? MW= 14
A. 3.86
B. 15.1
C. 51.5
D. 5.65
```
B
59
```
59. How many grams of Cupric (II) Sulfate pentahydrate should be dissolves in a volume of 500 ml to make 8 X 10-3 M solution?
MW= 249.54
A. 0.998
B. 9.98
C. 99.8
D. 109.1
```
A
60
```
60. The molarity of concentrated HCl purchased in the laboratory is approximately 12.1 M. How many mL of this reagent should be diluted to 2 L to make 0.1 M?
A. 1.65
B. 6.53
C. 16.53
D. 165.3
```
C
61
```
61. A solution with a final volume of 500 mL was prepared by dissolving 25 mL of methanol (density= 0.7914 g/mL) in chloroform. Calculate the molarity of methanol in the solution. MW= 32.
A. 0.12
B. 1.24
C. 12.4
D. 124
```
B
62
```
62. The above solution (question no.61) has a density of 1.454 g/mL. Find the molality of methanol.
A. 0.87
B. 0.77
C. 8.7
D. 7.7
```
A
63
```
63. What is the use of HgI2 in the preparation of starch TS?
A. To increase the solubility of starch
B. To impart color
C. As a preservative
D. To stabilize the pH
```
C
64
```
64. Process of measuring the actual quantity mass, volume, force, etC. that correspond to an indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument.
A. Weighing
B. Calibration
C. Both a and c
D. None of the choices
```
B
65
```
65. Also known as Eosin Y.
A. Dichlorofluorescein
B. Tetrabromophenolpthalein
C. Tetrabromofluorescein
D. Xylenol orange
```
C
66
```
66. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
A. Amylopectin
B. Amylose
C. Glucose
D. Sucrose
```
B
67
```
67. When a reducing analyte is titrated directly with iodine, the method used is called
A. Iodometry
B. Iodimetry
C. Cerimetry
D. Permanganometry
```
B
68
```
68. The 0.1 N iodine solution is standardized using
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
C. Arsenic trioxide
D. Sodium carbonate
```
C
69
```
69. Iodimetry is an indirect analysis of:
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Acid
D. Base
```
A
70
70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to USP 27?
I. In azeotropic method of water of analysis toluene is used as solvent.
II. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene and xylene are used as solvents.
III. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene, xylene, and water are used as solvents.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III
D. None of the statement is correct
A
71
```
71. What weight of arsenic trioxide (93.73%) would be used as a sample so that 26.6 mL of 0.1120 N iodine would be needed to titrate it? MW = 197.46
A. 0.14896 g
B. 0.4896 g
C. 0.1111 g
D. 0.9145 g
```
A
72
```
72. The type of alkaliodal assay where the total alkaloid is determineD.
A. Ultimate
B. Specific
C. Proximate
D. Extraction
```
C
73
73. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the azeotropic toluene distillation methoD.
II. Method II of water content determination in USP 27 is the titrimetric methoD.
III. Method III of water content determination in USP 27 is the gravimetric methoD.
IV. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the Karl Fischer methoD.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
C
74
```
74. Residue on ignition is also called:
A. Loss on ignition
B. Loss on drying
C. Acid-soluble ash
D. Sulfated ash
```
D
75
```
75. Primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is:
A. Anhydrous sodium carbonated
B. Sodium tartrate
C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
D. Sodium oxalate
```
B
76
```
76. Method 1 for determining alcohol-soluble extractives is also known as:
A. Hot extraction method
B. Cold extraction method
C. Hot compressed method
D. Cold compressed method
```
A
77
77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
I. Iodine value is a quantitative measure of the amount of unsaturated fatty acid in fats.
II. Method I of determining iodine value is also known as Hanus methoD.
III. Wij's method is also a method of determining iodine valuE.
IV. Hubl's method is official method of determining iodine valuE.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. All of the statements are correct
C
78
```
78. Koettsdorfer number is also known as:
A. Acid value
B. Saponification value
C. Ester value
D. Iodine value
```
B
79
```
79. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 g/mole) is:
A. 67
B. 0.067
C. 0.114
D. 0.026
```
A
80
```
80. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in
A. Permanganometry
B. Ceric sulfate titration
C. iodometry
D. Iodimetry
```
B
81
```
81. A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the % purity of the samplE. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4
A. 97.2
B. 72.9
C. 27.9
D. 9.72
```
A
82
```
82. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5 N of the solution. MW = 126
A. 36.5 g
B. 63.5 g
C. 31.5 g
D. 23.5 g
```
C
83
```
83. If 10g of olive oil required 20 mL of 0.0211 N NaOH in the titration of the free fatty acids. What is the acid number of the oil?
A. 2.9
B. 2.4
C. 11.50
D. 115
```
B
84
```
84. Does the acid value of the above conform with the official requirement? (In 10g of olive oil, the specification is <5mL of 0.1N NaOH.)
A. Yes
B. No
C. Uncertain
D. None of the above
```
A
85
```
85. In phenol contain determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with KOH solution. The % phenol is:
A. 73
B. 69
C. 7.3
D. 77
```
D
86
```
86. A 4.0570 g sample of chlorinated lime was mixed with enough water to make 1000mL. A 100 mL of the mixture was treated with potassium iodide and acetic acid, then titrated with 22.4 mL of sodium thiosulfate solution. A 20 mL sample of sodium thiosulfate was found to be equivalent to 0.2996 g of pure iodinE. Calculate the available chlorine in the samplE.
MW Iodine = 126.9 ; MW Cl = 35.45
A. 27.35%
B. 27.45%
C. 29.02%
D. 23.1%
```
D
87
```
87. Military standard table is also known as:
A. Government sampling plan
B. MIL-STD-105D
C. ABC-STD 105D
D. All of the choices
```
D
88
```
88. The % hexane extractive obtained from 27.5820 g of crude drug yielding a residue of 0.9155g of extractive is:
A. 3.32%
B. 33.2%
C. 4.30%
D. 4.6%
```
A
89
```
89. Calculate the menthyl acetate content in % if 9.5 g sample of peppermint oil was refluxed with 25 mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 22.5 ml of 0.4900N HCl for the residual titration. The blank was run using the same volume of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 26.0mL of 0.4900N HCl to bring about the end point. Each mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH consumed in the saponification is equivalent to 99.15 mg menthyl acetatE.
A. 4.82%
B. 3.58%
C. 4.80%
D. 8.4%
```
B
90
```
90. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215g of the crude drug; the volume of 0.0245N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225N sodium hydroxide solution. Each ml of 0.02N sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloiD.
A. 2.67%
B. 6.72%
C. 7.62%
D. 6.5%
```
A
91
```
91. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighing 0.21g if 26mL and 12 mL of 0.1100 N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration respectively.
A. 90
B. 93
C. 108
D. 200
```
A
92
```
92. Identify the sample of the above question with USP requirement of:
A. Persic oil 90-108
B. Corn oil 102-128
C. Olive oil 79-88
D. None of the choices
```
A
93
```
93. Find the acid value of oleic acid sample weighing 2g which require 45mL 0f 0.1102 NaOH to bring about the end point.
A. 196
B. 200
C. 345
D. 139
```
D
94
```
94. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification value of 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample?
A. 8.5
B. 86.5
C. 186.5
D. 56.5
```
A
95
```
95. A 50 mL aliquot of solution containing .450g of magnesium sulfate in 0.5L required 37.6 mL of EDTA solution for titration. How many mg of calcium carbonate will react with 1 mL of this EDTA solution? MW magnesium sulfate = 120.37; MW CaCO3 = 100
A. 0.9943 mg
B. 9.99 mg
C. 99.94 mg
D. 9943 mg
```
A
96
96. The following is/are true about auxillary complexing agent.
I. Eriochrome black is an example of an auxillary complexing agent
II. Auxillary complexing agents are also ligands
III. Auxillary complexIng agents binds the metal strong enough to prevent the hydroxide from precipitating, but weakly enough to give up the metal ion when EDTA is addeD.
IV. It is used to permit many metals to be titrated in alkaline solution with EDTA.
A. I only
B. II and III
C. II, III, and IV
D. III, and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
C
97
97. The following is/ are true about EDTA titration.
I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration.
II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called EDTA indicator.
III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA indicator
IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration.
A. I only
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
D
98
98. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. A redox indicator is a compound that changes color when it goes from oxidized to reduced state
II. Starch is a redox indicator
III. Ferroin is a redox indicator
IV. The hydrolysis is product of starch is glucose which is a reducing agent
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III, I, II, and III
D. I, III, and IV
E. I, II, III, and IV
D
99
99. Which of the following statement/ is/are correct?
I. KMnO4 can be standardized using arsenic trioxide
II. KMnO4 serves as indicator in acidic solution.
III. Hydrogen peroxide can be analyzed using KMnO4.
IV. KMnO4 in acidic solution is reduced to colorless Mn+2
A. I and II
B. I, II, and III
C. II, III, and IV
D. II and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
C
100
100. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent
II. Potassium dichromate is used chiefly for the determination Fe+2 and indirectly sample that will oxidized Fe+2 to Fe+3.
III. Potassium dichromate to chronous ion, gains 6 electrons
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
D
101
101. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry.
II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce iodine which us then titrated with sodium thiosulfatE.
III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV
C
102
```
102. Koppeschaar's solution is also known as:
A. 0.1 N Iodine solution
B. 0.1 N Bromine solution
C. 0.1 M sodium nitrite solution
D. 0.1 N sodium thiosulfate solution
```
B
103
```
103. Assay of sulfa drugs can be determined by this reaction with sodium nitritE.
A. Neutralization
B. Complexation
C. Precipitation
D. Diazotization
```
D
104
```
104. 0.1 N Bromine is employed as:
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Masking agent
D. Demasking agent
```
A
105
```
105. A precisely manufactured glass tube with graduations enabling to measure the volume of liquid delivered through the stopcock at the bottom.
A. Separatory funnel
B. Graduated cylinder
C. Buret
D. Pipet
```
C
106
```
106. Dichlorophenol-indophenol solution is standardized using:
A. Sulfanilamide USP
B. ascorbic acid USP
C. Sulfathiazole USP
D. Resorcinol USP
```
B
107
```
107. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using:
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Potassium phthalate
C. Sodium oxalate
D. Tromethamine
```
D
108
```
108. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as:
A. Hub's method
B. Wij's method
C. Hanus method
D. All of the choices
```
B
109
```
109. Residual titration method is also known as:
A. Direct titration
B. Indirect titration
C. Back titration
D. Redox titration
```
C
110
```
110. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + - 25°C. This temperature is represented by:
A. Very dull heat
B. Dull red heat
C. White red heat
D. Bright red heat
```
B
111
```
111. The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer by determining its refractive index is:
A. Rose oil
B. Water
C. Methanol
D. Peanut oil
```
B
112
```
112. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:
A. Method I c
B. Method II
C. Method I a
D. Method III
```
A
113
```
113. Perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid and perchloric acid in dioxane are volumetric solution used in what type of analysis?
A. Direct acidimetry
B. Direct alkalimetry
C. Non-aqueous acidimetry
D. Non-aqueous alkalimetry
```
C
114
```
114. The primary standard used in the standardization of the above VS is:
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Potassium biphthalate
D. Benzoic acid
```
C
115
115. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Phenol is assayed using residual iodometry using excess bromine solution.
II. 0.1 N Bromine solution contains potassium bromide and potassium bromatE.
III. Bromine vapor is liberated from KBr and KBrO3 in basic environment.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III
D. None of the choices
B
116
```
116. A 1.5g of liquefied phenol was dissolve in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30 mL sample of the solution was treated with 30 mL of 0.1 N Bromine solution and HCl. The mixture was treated with KI and titrated with 8.7 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfatE. It was also found that 21 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate was required in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20 mL of the bromine solution was treated with KI and HCl. Compute for the % phenol in the samplE. MW Phenol = 94.
A. 59.4
B. 69.4
C. 79.4
D. 89.4
```
C
117
```
117. Hydrolysis products of ASA
A. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide
B. Acetic acid + salicylic acid
C. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium salicylate + water
```
B
118
```
118. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is:
A. Acidimetry
B. Alkalimetry
C. Compleximetry
D. Redox Titration
```
A
119
```
119. A characteristic of a substance which is suitable for non-aqueous titrimetry is:
A. Weakly reactive
B. Weakly basic
C. Very soluble in water
D. a and b
E. b and c
```
D
120
```
120. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is :
A. Oxalic acid
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Vinegar
D. Bromine solution
```
A
121
```
121. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is:
A. +2
B. +1
C. +5
D. +7
```
D
122
```
122. Which of the following chemicals is not included in preparing the Karl Fischer reagent?
A. Pyridine
B. Acetone
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Iodine
```
B
123
```
123. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determineD.
A. Neutralization
B. Standardization
C. Titration
D. Complexation
```
B
124
```
124. Titer is an expression of concentration of solution is determineD.
A. g of solute/ 100 mL
B. g or mg/mL
C. g of solute / L
D. b and c
```
B
125
```
125. Methyl orange in base medium is colored:
A. Yellow
B. Pink
C. Colorless
D. Green
```
A
126
```
126. Assay of zinc oxide is what type of analysis?
A. Alkalimetric residual
B. Acidimetric direct
C. Acidimetric residual
D. Alkalimetric direct
```
C
127
```
127. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali.
A. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red
C. Phenol red
D. Phenolphthalein
```
D
128
```
128. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored:
A. Yellow
B. Pink
C. Colorless
D. Blue
```
B
129
```
129. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of defect?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Minor
D. Performance
```
D
130
130. Performs and evaluate microbiological assay, sterility, pyrogen, and bacteriological test, safety or acute toxicity test.
A. Material inspection section
B. Analytical laboratory
C. Biological testing
D. Specification and analytical laboratory
C
131
```
131. This analysis is done by dissolving the substance under examination in an accurately measured quantity of standard solution known to be in excess and back titrating the excess solution with another standard solution.
A. Gravimetric analysis
B. Acidimetric analysis
C. Direct alkalimetric analysis
D. Residual titration
```
D
132
```
132. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of 1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is:
A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Hydroxyl value
D. Saponification value
```
D
133
```
133. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is:
A. Refractometer
B. Polarimeter
C. Spectrometer
D. Flame photometer
```
B
134
```
134. Analysis in which separation of the constituents from the sample is done and then weighing the product is:
A. Volumetric analysis
B. Instrumental method of analysis
C. Gravimetric analysis
D. Special method of analysis
```
C
135
```
135. The end point of iodometry using starch TS as indicator is:
A. Intense blue color
B. Disappearance of blue color
C. Greenish-blue color
D. Disappearance of green-blue color
```
B
136
136. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Ester value is the number of mg of KOH required to saponify the ester in 1 g of fat or oil.
II. Ester value = saponification value + Acid value
III. Ester value determination is applicable to fats, volatile oils, and alcohols.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III
D. All of the statements are incorrect
A
137
137. Which of the following area is not a responsibility of quality control manager?
A. Specification and analytical development
B. Biological testing lab
C. Analytical lab
D. Market research
D
138
```
138. Hexane is the best solvent extracting:
A. Resins
B. Fats
C. Volatile oil
D. Acid
```
B
139
```
139. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number?
A. Acid value
B. Saponification value
C. Ester value
D. Iodine value
```
B
140
```
140. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is:
A. Cholesterol
B. Phytosterol
C. Lard
D. Wax
```
A
141
```
141. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of:
A. Cellulose
B. Cholesterol
C. Phytosterol
D. All of the choices
```
A
142
```
142. The unsaponifiable matter present in vegetable oils and fats is:
A. Cholesterol
B. Cellulose
C. phytosterol
D. lard
```
C
143
```
143. If a 0.47 g sample of potassium iodide yielded 0.7564 g of silver iodide precipitate by gravimetric assay, compute for the % purity of the potassium iodidE. MW KI = 165.90; MW AgI = 234.76
A. 83.7%
B. 93.7%
C. 103.7%
D. 113.7%
```
D
144
```
144. Which of the following volumetric solutions is used in diazotization analysis of sulfa drugs?
A. 0.1 M sodium nitrite
B. 0.05 edetate disodium
C. 0.01 M sodium nitrite
D. 0.1 N Iodine solution
```
A
145
145. Phenol is assayed using this method of analysis.
A. Residual alkalimetry
B. Volumetric precipitation
C. Residual iodometry using excess bromine
D. Iodimetry
C
146
```
146. Calculate the molarity of sodium nitrite volumetric solution, if 31.6 mL of this solution reacts with 0.5004 g of sulfanilamide (C6H8N2O2S) to reach an end point. MW of sulfanilamide = 172.2
A. 0.09196
B. 0.91960
C. 0.21090
D. 0.01209
```
A
147
```
147. A 0.5110 g sample of sulfathiozole was assayed using 18.8 mL of 0.1005 M sodium nitrite solution in a titration. Each mL of 0.1 M sodium nitrite is equivalent to 25.53 mg of C9H9N3O2S2. Calculate the % C9H9N3O2S2 in the samplE.
A. 99%
B. 95%
C. 94%
D. 93%
```
C
148
```
148. Which of the following standard solutions is not used in redox titration?
A. Sodium thiosulfate solution
B. Iodine solution
C. Bromine solution
D. Sodium hydroxide solution
```
D
149
```
149. Assay of ASA (raw material) is an example of what method of analysis?
A. Direct alkalimetry
B. Residual alkalimetry
C. Direct acidimetry
D. Residual acidimetry
```
B
150
```
150. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of what method of analysis?
A. Direct titration - Redox
B. Indirect titration - Redox
C. Residual titration - Redox
D. Iodimetry
```
C
151
```
151. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug or pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Special method
B. Identification test
C. Pharmacopeial testing
D. Pharmaceutical assaying
```
D
152
```
152. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same
A. Normality
B. Volume
C. Number of mEq
D. Weight
```
C
153
```
153. Most of the official drugs containing Calcium and Magnesium are determine by:
A. Gravimetric
B. Complexometry
C. Bioassay
D. Non-aqueous matter
```
B
154
```
154. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:
A. Direct
B. Residual
C. Indirect
D. All of the above
```
D
155
```
155. The iodine value of an oil is a quantitative measure of:
A. Phenol coefficient
B. Saturated fatty acid
C. Unsaturated fatty acid
D. Unsaponifiable matter
```
C
156
```
156. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of 0.1055 N iodine solution (atomic weight: As=74.92, O=16) The percentage purity of the sample is:
A. 90.44
B. 90.23
C. 89.0
D. 90.54
```
A
157
```
157. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder using 3.50 g samplE. The water equivalence factor, F, of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume consumed was 9.2 mL. The % water content was:
A. 1.20
B. 1.21
C. 12.10
D. 1.10
```
B
158
```
158. Twenty tablets of Ascorbic acid weighed 4.250 g and a powdered sample of 0.3075 g used up 21.5 mL of 0.1085 N iodine solution. What was the amount of Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1 N iodine is equivalent to 8.80 mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic Acid). The amount is:
A. 283.7 mg
B. 141.86 mg
C. 0.2836 g
D. A and C
```
D
159
```
159. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is:
A. Methyl red
B. Carbol fucshin
C. Crystal violet
D. Saffranin
```
C
160
```
160. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is:
A. Cell wall
B. Fimbriae
C. Spore
D. Cytoplasmic membrane
```
D
161
```
161. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with the standard acid is:
A. Acidimetry
B. Alkalimetry
C. Complexometry
D. Redox
```
A
162
```
162. Analysis where separation of the constituent from the sample is done that weighing the products is:
A. Volumetric
B. Gravimetric
C. Special
D. Gasometric method
```
B
163
```
163. Adsorption indicators are used in:
A. Complexometric reaction
B. Acidimetry
C. Volumetric precipitation
D. Alkalimetry
```
C
164
```
164. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:
A. g of solute per 100 mL
B. g or mg of solute per mL
C. g per liter
D. A and C
```
A
165
```
165. Iodimetry is what type of titration?
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Residual
D. A and C
```
A
166
```
166. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determines is:
A. Ultimate
B. Specific
C. Proximate
D. Precision
```
C
167
```
167. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
A. Polarimeter
B. Refractometer
C. Spectrometer
D. Flame photometer
```
A
168
```
168. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is:
A. Thymol blue
B. Hydroxynapthol blue
C. Methyl red
D. Methylene blue
```
B
169
```
169. In neutralization methods in aqueous medium, a product is:
A. Oil
B. Salt
C. Precipitate
D. A and B
```
B
170
```
170. The moisture content of a drug maybe:
A. Water of hydration
B. Water in the adsorbed form
C. Water of crystallization
D. All of the above
```
D
171
```
171. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:
A. +1
B. +2
C. +4
D. +3
```
A
172
```
172. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it consists of:
A. Prism
B. Lamp house
C. Cell compartment
D. B and C
```
A
173
```
173. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:
A. Prism
B. Lamp house
C. Oil
D. Volatile oil
```
B
174
```
174. To keep samples moisture-free the apparatus used is:
A. Desiccator
B. Furnace
C. Incubator
D. Oven
```
A
175
```
175. Microbial assay of an antibiotics maybe performed using the following except:
A. Test tube inoculation
B. Cylinder plate method
C. Paper disk method
D. Titration process
```
D
176
```
176. Result of the experiment that are close to one another is considered to be:
A. Accurate
B. Cylinder plate method
C. Approximate
D. A and C
```
B
177
```
177. Flame Spectroscopy procedures maybe divided into:
A. Flame emission
B. Atomic adsorption
C. Nuclear magnetic resonance
D. A and B
```
D
178
```
178. Safety and Toxicity test are conducted using:
A. Rabbits
B. Dogs
C. White mice
D. Guinea pig
```
C
179
179. A parenteral is declared pyrogenic if the temperature rise in rabbits is:
A. Less than 1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
B. 0.6°C in in the 1 of the 9 readings
C. >1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
D. None of the above
C
180
```
180. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following except:
A. Fats
B. Volatile oil
C. Alcohols
D. Fatty oils
```
C
181
```
181. In Gas chromatography, the results of the assay is expressed in:
A. Retention on the column
B. Rf value
C. Volume of the gas used
D. Adsorbent
```
A
182
```
182. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined by:
A. Neutralization
B. Standardization
C. Hydration
D. Titration
```
B
183
```
183. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a wavelength range of:
A. 3-5 μm
B. 380-780 μm
C. 200-380 μm
D. 15-300 μm
```
A
184
```
184. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
A. Sodium carbonate anhydrous
B. Potassium biphthalate
C. sodium tartrate dihydrate
D. sodium bicarbonate
```
C
185
```
185. the molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is:
A. 98
B. 49
C. 0.098
D. 0.049
```
B
186
```
186. The type of ash where sulfuric acid used to whiten the ash is:
A. acid insoluble ash
B. sulfated ash
C. loss on ignition
D. ROI
```
B
187
```
187. The oil from peppermint can be determined by using:
A. Cassia flask
B. Bobcock bottle
C. Pycometer
D. Titration
```
B
188
```
188. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of sodium hydroxide pellets are needed to make 500 mL of 1.5 N solution?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60
```
B
189
```
189. Using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following data were obtained: absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55. A of the sample was 0.58. Concentration of the standard used was 16.5 mcg. The concentration of the sample was:
A. 15.5 mcg
B. 17.55 mcg
C. 17.40 mcg
D. 15.9 mcg
```
C
190
```
190. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by the particles of a suspension.
A. Reflected
B. Absorbed
C. Transmitted
D. Absorbed
```
A
191
```
191. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the adsorbent is:
A. Column
B. Paper
C. TLC
D. Gas
```
B
192
```
192. All of the following are optical devices except:
A. pH meter
B. Spectrophotometer
C. Colorimeter
D. Filter photometer
```
A
193
```
193. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. KMnO4
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Sodium nitrite
```
B
194
```
194. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by:
A. Iodimetry
B. Micro-bio/ turbidimetric
C. Fluorometry
D. Iodometry
```
B
195
```
195. The assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil may be by:
A. Gravimetric
B. Bisulfite
C. Hydroxylamine
D. B and C
```
D
196
```
196. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is:
A. Law of mass action
B. Beer's law
C. Boyle's law
D. Newton's law
```
B
197
197. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation of:
A. Volatile component in a liquid mixture
B. Amino acids
C. Blood components
D. A and B
A
198
```
198. In column Chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of
narrow bands in a column is called:
A. Chromatogram
B. Eluent
C. Development
D. A and B
```
C
199
```
199. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a
reference standard, they are called:
A. Isomeric substance
B. Similar solutions
C. Similar preparations
D. B and C
```
D
200
```
200. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:
A. Absorbance of the sample
B. Wavelength to be used
C. Blank
D. Concentration of the drug substance
```
D
201
```
201. A one percent (1%) solid in liquid solution is officially (USP) understood as:
A. 1g in 100 mL
B. 100 mg in 1 mL
C. 10g in 1000 mL
D. 10 g in 1 L
```
A
202
202. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "well close container" it is
understood that;
A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors
D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
A
203
203. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "tight container" it is
understood that;
A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors
D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
C
204
204. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "hermetic container" it is
understood that;
A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors
D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
D
205
```
205. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of compedial dosage forms is
A. Deionized water
B. Distilled water
C. Purified water
D. Water for injection
```
C
206
```
206. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions is
A. Sterile purified water
B. Purified water
C. Water for injection
D. Sterile water for injection
```
C
207
```
207. Metallic impurities detected in the USP Heavy Metal test are
A. Lead and mercury
B. Copper and tin
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
C
208
```
208. Treated soda lime glass is classified as
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. NP
```
C
209
```
209. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through
A. Dealkilation
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis
D. None of the above
```
A
210
```
210. The water attack test determines the chemical resistance to water of what type of
glass?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. NP
```
B
211
```
211. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. NP
```
A
212
212. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light resistant if it
allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted?
A. 10% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
B. 15% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
C. 20% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
D. 25% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
A
213
```
213. The suitability of plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug products is determined through what type of test?
A. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
B. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
A
214
```
214. The classification plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug products is determined through what type of test?
A. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
B. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
B
215
```
215. Plastic materials which comply with the requirements of Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro are essentially?
A. Non cytotoxic
B. Non carcinogenic
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
A
216
```
216. The conductivity of water is expressed in what unit?
A. μS/cm
B. μS/cm2
C. μmho2/cm
D. None of the above
```
A
217
```
217. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is
A. Between 6.0 and 7.0
B. Between 5.0 and 7.0
C. Between 7.0 and 8.0
D. None of the above
```
B
218
```
218. In the manufacture of sterile parenteral solutions all added raw materials must be
sterilE.
A. Necessary
B. Not necessary
C. Always
D. None of the above
```
B
219
```
219. A large volume intravenous solution has a minimum volume of
A. 1000mL
B. 200mL
C. 500mL
D. None of the above
```
D
220
```
220. A small volume of intravenous solution has a maximum volume of
A. 1000mL
B. 200mL
C. 500mL
D. None of the above
```
D
221
```
221. A sterile parenteral solution is also non pyrogenic
A. All the time
B. Most of the time
C. Sometime
D. Not at all
```
D
222
```
222. If the bacterial endotoxin limit of a dosage form is 0.25EU/mL it means all components of the preparations shoul contribute
A. ≤ 0.25EU/mL
B. ≥0.25EU/mL
C. <0.25EU/mL
D. None of the above
```
C
223
```
223. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the preparation
A. All the time
B. Most of the time
C. Sometime
D. Not at all
```
D
224
```
224. Sterility Testing of Pharmacopeial articles test for the presence of
A. Gram (+) and gram (-) organism
B. Aerobic and anaerobic organism
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
B
225
```
225. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at
A. 23 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
B. 25 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
C. 20 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
D. None of the above
```
B
226
```
226. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature
conditions is carried out at
A. 30 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
B. 35 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
C. 40 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
D. None of the above
```
C
227
```
227. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. None of the above
```
B
228
```
228. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. None of the above
```
A
229
```
229. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is carried
out at
A. 5 ± 3°C
B. 8 ± 3°C
C. 4 ± 3°C
D. None of the above
```
A
230
```
230. Stability indicating test procedures include
A. Antimicrobial effectiveness test
B. Dissolution test
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
```
C
231
```
231. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of
A. 0.5 μm
B. 0.2 μm
C. 1 μm
D. None of the above
```
B
232
```
232. The reference microorganism for testing the retention efficiency of a sterilizing filter is
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Pseudomonas diminuta
C. E. coli
D. None of the above
```
B
233
```
233. Autoclaving or Steam Sterilization should be validated to ensure that the likelihood of survival of the most resistant microorganism is no greater than
A. 10 -5
B. 10 -6
C. 10 6
D. 10 5
```
B
234
```
234. What is the time (in minutes) required to reduce the microbial population by 90% or 1 log cycle (i.e., to a surviving fraction of 1/10), at a specific temperaturE.
A. Sterilization time
B. D value
C. F0
D. None of the above
```
B
235
235. What is the time (in minutes) required to provide the lethality equivalent to that
provided at 121° for a stated timE. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm.
A. Sterilization time
B. D value
C. F0
D. None of the above
C
236
236. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what
percent of the weight of the tablets being testeD.
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 1%
D. None of the above
C
237
```
237. A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form
A. Soft gelatin capsule
B. Hard gelatin capsule
C. Liquid fill capsule
D. None of the above
```
D
238
```
238. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form
A. Plain coated tablet
B. Hard gelatin capsule
C. Chewable tablet
D. All of the above
```
A
239
```
239. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active ingredient.
A. Disintegration
B. Dissolution
C. Content uniformity
D. None of the above
```
B
240
```
240. A belonging to climatic zone IV is officially described as
A. Temperate
B. Hot, humid
C. Hot, dry
D. None of the above
```
B
241
```
241. The Philippines belong to what climatic zone
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. None of the above
```
D
242
```
242. Which of the following is not an official hard gelatin capsule size for human consumption
A. 000
B. 00 mL
C. 0000
D. None of the above
```
C
243
```
243. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to
A. ASTM
B. ATCC
C. NIST
D. None of the above
```
C
244
```
244. Pharmaceutical articles like raw materials must not harbor these organism except.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella
D. None of the above
```
D
245
```
245. The units of osmolar concentration are usually expressed as
A. mOsM
B. mOsm
C. mOSm
D. none of the above
```
A
246
```
246. Clean room classification are specified in Federal standard
A. 211E
B. 210E
C. 209E
D. None of the above
```
C
247
```
247. Air particle counts in clean rooms is base on what particle size
A. 0.5 μm
B. 0.2 μm
C. 1 μm
D. None of the above
```
A
248
```
248. The level in microbiological environmental monitoring is that level of microorganism that shows a potential drift from normal operating procedurE.
A. Alert level
B. Action level
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
```
A
249
```
249. In validation procedures the closeness of test results obtained by that method to the true value is called
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Specificity
D. None of the above
```
B
250
```
250. In validation procedures, what is the degree of agreement among individual test results when the method is applied repeatedly to multiple sampling of a homogeneous samplE.
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Specificity
D. None of the above
```
A
251
```
251. Which is not a method of neutralizing the antimicrobial properties of a product
A. Neutralization by chemical inhibition
B. Neutralization by dilution
C. Neutralization by sterilization
D. None of the above
```
C
252
```
252. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilization
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus coagulans
D. None of the above
```
D
253
```
253. Which is the following is not a terminal sterilization procedure
A. Steam sterilization
B. Sterilization by filtration
C. Dry heat sterilization
D. None of the above
```
D
254
```
254. In validation procedures the ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the presence of components that may be expected to be present is called
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Specificity
D. None of the above
```
C
255
```
255. In analytical methods, the measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliability during normal usage is calleD.
A. Linearity
B. Robustness
C. Ruggedness
D. None of the above
```
B
256
```
256. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical shocks of manufacture, packaging and shipping EXCEPT
A. Hardness
B. Resistance to weight loss
C. Resistance to friability
D. Disintegration
```
D
257
257. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must
A. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid
B. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid
C. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus the time specified
D. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time specified
C
258
```
258. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the accepted range?
A. 0.4465-0.4935 cm
B. 0.4348-0.5050 cm
C. 0.4230-0.5170 cm
D. 0.3525-0.5875 cm
```
A
259
```
259. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the acceptable tablet weight range?
A. 0.1170-0.1430 g
B. 0.1203-0.1398 g
C. 0.0300-0.2300 g
D. 0.0550- 0.2050 g
```
A
260
```
260. Which of the following is NOT used in Method II of USP test for bulk density?
A. 250 mL graduated cylinder
B. No.18 screen
C. Volumeter
D. Baffle box
```
A
261
```
261. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet:
A. Bioavailability
B. Hardness and thickness
C. Weight variation
D. Disintegration
```
A
262
```
262. Pyrogen test is performed in:
A. Pigeons
B. Mice
C. Rabbits
D. Guinea pigs
```
C
263
263. Which is the following statements is NOT true about closure:
A. Should fit the thread of the containers
B. Should produce no leaks
C. Should be made of plastic materials
D. Should be reasonably tight and look elegant
C
264
```
264. Friability testing is done using a Roche friability that must be set to ensure:
A. 10 falls of tablets
B. Either A or B
C. 100 falls of tablets
D. 100 rpm
```
C
265
```
265. Evaluation of Aspirin Granules (IPQC)
Weight of the sample = 50 grams
Height of cone formed (fixed funnel) = 5 cm
Diameter of cone formed = 13 cm
The repose angle is
A. 25°
B. 38°
C. 30°
D. 50°
```
B
266
```
266. The temperature wherein the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained is:
A. 36°F and 46°F
B. 46°F and 59°F
C. -13°F and 14°F
D. -23°F and 34°F
```
A
267
```
267. Water attack test as an official test for glass is done on:
A. Type I glass
B. Type II glass
C. A and B
D. Type III glass
```
B
268
```
268. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:
A. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets
C. 15 tablets
D. 5 tablets
```
A
269
```
269. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products:
A. Disintegration
B. Purity
C. Bioavailability
D. Potency
```
D
270
```
270. In SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is called:
A. Attribute chart
B. Beer's plot
C. Bar chart
D. Variable chart
```
A
271
```
271. Common component of cap liners, stoppers, and parts of dropper assemblies:
A. Metal
B. plastic
C. Glass
D. Rubber
```
D
272
```
272. This class of drugs require batch certification from the Bureau of Food and Drugs
A. Anti-convulsants
B. Antibiotics
C. analgesic
D. Vitamins
```
B
273
```
273. While waiting for its release by the quality control, materials are held in:
A. Packing area
B. Quarantine area
C. Analytical laboratory
D. Biological laboratory
```
C
274
```
274. One of the following is a secondary packaging component:
A. Caps
B. Corrugated cartons
C. vials
D. Bottles
```
B
275
```
275. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph.
A. Content uniformity
B. Weight variation
C. Disintegration test
D. Dissolution test
```
A
276
```
276. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:
A. Oxygen
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
```
B
277
```
277. The bioassay for Parathyroid Injection is based on measuring the increase in serum calcium in
A. Cat
B. Dog
C. Sheep
D. Rat
```
B
278
```
278. Biological reactivity test(s) in vitro except
A. Agar diffusion test
B. Direct contact test
C. Implantation test
D. Elution test
```
C
279
```
279. Animal employed for the biological assay of oxytocin injection
A. Pigeon
B. Rabbit
C. Chicken
D. Rat
```
C
280
```
280. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in
A. Capsules
B. Emulsions
C. Ointments
D. Tablets
```
C
281
```
281. The test for content uniformity is required for
A. Film-coated tablets
B. Solutions for inhalation
C. suspensions
D. Liquid-filled soft capsules
```
C
282
```
282. Powdered glass test is done on the following except
A. Borosilicate glass
B. Soda lime glass
C. Treated soda lime glass
D. General purpose soda lime glass
```
C
283
```
283. In what type of dosage form is the determination of zeta potential needed?
A. Suspensions
B. Solutions
C. emulsions
D. Aerosols
```
A
284
```
284. Determine the shelf-life of a product
A. Sampling inspection program
B. Validation program
C. Stability testing program
D. All
```
C
285
```
285. The QC manager is not in charged of this section
A. Analytical laboratory
B. Biological testing laboratory
C. Specs and analytical program
D. Research and development section
```
D
286
```
286. The dye used in the leaker test
A. Methylene blue
B. Phenolphthalein
C. Thymol blue
D. None of the above
```
A
287
```
287. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the product useless.
A. Major defect
B. Critical defect
C. Minor defect
D. Ocular defect
```
A
288
```
288. A firm's removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation
A. Drug recall
B. Market withdrawal
C. Stock recovery
D. None of the above
```
B
289
```
289. Which question is used to predict the shelf life of a drug product?
A. Michaelis-Menten equation
B. Arrhenius theory
C. Hixson-Crowell equation
D. Stokes equation
```
B
290
```
290. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the :
A. Documentation section
B. Biological testing laboratory
C. Material inspection method
D. Analytical laboratory
```
C
291
```
291. Pyrogen test in vitro:
A. Colorimeter
B. Cylinder-plate method
C. Fluorophotometer
D. LAL method
```
D
292
```
292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:
A. 95 mg
B. 90 mg
C. 105 mg
D. 110 mg
```
B
293
```
293. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operations:
A. Wrong labels
B. Misaligned labels
C. Inverted labels
D. smeared labels
```
A
294
294. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP):
A. Concerned with record keeping
B. Step by step method on how to go about a job
C. Done to facilitate recall
D. All of these are correct
D
295
```
295. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this test:
A. Physical and organoleptic examination
B. Leaker test
C. Potency assay
D. Microbiological test
```
B
296
```
296. It is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the main body
A. Lamination
B. Capping
C. Mottling
D. Picking
```
B
297
```
297. The round bottom flask used for the dissolution rate in the evaluation of tablets should be submerge in constant temperature water bath maintained at what temperaturE.
A. 37°C
B. 25°C
C. 40°C
D. 30°C
```
A
298
```
298. The type of container which is impervious to air or any other gas under the ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipping, storage and distribution.
A. Tight-container
B. Well-closed container
C. Single-unit container
D. Hermetic container
```
D
299
```
299. The word GITS as a drug delivery system means
A. Gastro-intestinal tract system
B. Gastric infection treatment support
C. Gastro-intestinal therapeutic system
D. General internal therapeutic system
```
C
300
```
300. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is:
A. 725 ± 25°C
B. 800 ± 25°C
C. 825 ± 25°C
D. 750 ± 25°C
```
B
Module 6
flashcards
Decks in class (3)
# Cards
