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Ana > Pack B > Flashcards

Pack B Flashcards

1
Q

What pitch is tail strike possible

A

8’ take off

9.5 landing

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2
Q

Define narrow runway

A

Less than 4.5 m exists either side of the main gear when the nose is on the taxiway centreline
(Air 2.1.1(5))

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3
Q

Considerations for taxi in snow

A

Engine anti ice on
Flaps up
Taxi speed
Taxi spacing behind aircraft

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4
Q

Type of tire

And limitations

A

Bias tire

Limited to 20kts for taxi distance above 5 km

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5
Q

Cargo overheat light indicate

A

Cargo temp above 32’

Shutoff valve signaled closed

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6
Q

Autopilot logic from 1500 feet

A

1500
Land 2 ASFlare rollout armed
Multi A/p and rudder control engaged

500
Runway align
2 degree slip and 5’ crab max

200 
No land 3 uninhibited 
Electrical system isolated
Left Ap - left ac bus
Centre ap - batt/standby bus
Right Ap - right Ac bus

100 with land 2 only
Nose up trim

50
Flare engaged
15
Idle
5
Rollout 
Slip removed
5' + 2 seconds
Nose lowered to runway
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7
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing is available in the lavatory

A

Smoke detection only
Aural sound in lavatory and cabin
No cockpit indications of lavatory fire

Automatic fire extinguishing (located in waste cabinet)

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8
Q

What is PSU and how does it work

A

Passenger service units

Uses an oxygen generator to supply oxygen to the entire PSU when any one of these hanging masks are pulled
Last 22 minutes

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9
Q

Flight deck door

A

Locks when electric power available (removed when lost)

Locking deadbolt from cockpit prevents key entry

Key pad
Red door locked
Amber -correct emergency code entered(45)
Green- door is unlocked (5)
1 then enter will sound flight deck chime

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10
Q

Flight deck door in event of depressurisation

A

Cabin depress

Two hinged decompression panels open to equialize pressure

They contain a security grill to prevent access

Flight deck depress

The door is unlocked

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11
Q

Flight deck door deny

How long to prevent access

A

30 minutes

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12
Q

How can a fuel imbalance be identified

A

Fuel quantity gauges

Acars

Fuel config message

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13
Q

Mel categories and is it possible to extend MEL

A

A - repeat interval listed PROVISO

B within 3 days

C within 10 days

B/C can be extended for unusual circumstances (reversion, weather, delay)

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14
Q

Difference between tcas 7 and 7.1

A

‘Adjust vertical speed’ replaced with ‘level off’

TCAS 7.1 decal is placed under the flight number reminder

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15
Q

PLI

A

Pitch limit indicator

Provided at low speeds or when flaps extended

Stick shakes activation point.

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16
Q

Six principal concepts

A

Task sharing - PF/PM areas of responsibility

Crew coordination - checklist/confirmed actions

Crew Communication - stand response, call outs, briefings

Monitor and cross check - FMa annunciation a, scan, instrument monitor

Workload management - use of autopilot

Discipline - adherence to SOPs

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17
Q

BASIC policy

A

Captain and dispatcher shall secure safety of operation, maximum efficiency, maintain schedule and maximise passenger comfort.

The captain and dispatcher shall follow this policy

Disagreement between captain and dispatcher the safer option is adopted

Captain will have final responsibility

Flight dispatcher shall support the captain

Flight shall not be undertaken if crew members are unfit for duty.

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18
Q

4 principal concepts

A

Fly first

Secured and reliable operation

Effective and efficient operation

Promote standardised and uniform operation

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19
Q

What can indicate wind shear

A

Thunderstorm activity

Virgo

PIPERS

LLEAS

PWS

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20
Q

Two types of wind shear and when are they reported

A

Wind shear
Headwind 20kts
Tailwind 20-30kts

Microburst
Tailwind exceeding 30 kts

Alerts provided on initial contact and when detected

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21
Q

LIDAR and Doppler radar

A

LIDAR (only at HND and NRT)
Able to detect wind shear with precipitation

Doppler
Can perceive air current and microburst activity around the airport but requires precipitation

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22
Q

PWS
Area it covers?
Inhibited?
How long before it operates after turned on?

A

PWS function of the wx radar

Covers 25’ either side 3 nm - warning are 0.5 nm beam 3nm ground 1.5 air

12 seconds after turned on

Inhibited
warnings 100 kts to 50’
cautions 80kts to 400

Overridden by egpws wind shear /terrain

Requires visible moisture

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23
Q

Definition of wind shear

A

+- 15 kts
+- 500 fpm
5’ pitch
1 dot g/s displacement

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24
Q

What is maneuvering speed

A

Minimum speed the allow 25’ AoB with 15’ overshoot without engaging stick shaker

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25
Q

Autopilot limitations

A

Take off
200’

Wind autoland
25kts head and crosswind

Aileron trim with autoland engaged is prohibited

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26
Q

ACARS fuel imbalance warning

A

Difference is at or above 1000 lbs for 25 seconds

Above 5000 ft

Precaution system is inhited for 45 minutes after imbalance is detected and can only provide two per flight

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27
Q

Difference between

Windshear windshear

Windshear ahead

Go around Windshear ahead

A

Windshear

Egpws requires escape maneuver

Windshear ahead / go around windshear ahead

PWS warning
Takeoff - caution
Go around unless no danger is judged

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28
Q

Most stick shaker activations occur

A

Flaps up +80 to 95

Speed brake extended or in AoB

During rough air and wake turbulence

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29
Q

Windshear escape maneuver

A 
Disengage AP
Press GA
Max thrust
Disconnect AT
Wings level and 15' pitch
Speed brake down
Follow FD

Do not change config
Do not attempt to recover lost airspeed

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30
Q

EGPWS

A 
Disengage AP
Disconnect AT
Max thrust
Wings level and 15' pitch
Speed brake down
Continue pitch to PLI stick shaker or initial buffet if terrain remains a threat

Do not change config

Monitor RA

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31
Q

Speed margin from stick shaker to stall speed

A

5-8 kts

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32
Q

RAT

A

Deploys automatically in dual engine failure or manually with loss both AC buses

Cannot be stowed in flight

Minimum speed 130kts

System pressure low light remains illuminated if RAT is the only source of hydraulic power

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33
Q

Aircraft dimensions

A 
Height 15.85 m
Wingspan 50.88 winglets
                   47.57 no winglets
Length 54.94 
Main gear to nose gear 22.76
Main gear to main gear 9.3
Pilot to nose gear 2.3
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34
Q

EGPWS warnings

A

Mode 7 - windshear
Mode 1 - severe descent rate
Mode 2 - severe terrain closure rate
Look ahead terrain (20-30 second from impact)
Look ahead obstacle (20-30 seconds from impact)
PWS windshear warning

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35
Q

Items to be carried in an emergency evacuation

A 
Captain
Crash axe 
Megaphone
Flashlight
ELT(freighter)
First aid kit (freighter)
First officer
Signal kit
Flashlight 
ELT (freighter)
Emergency food (international and freighter)
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36
Q

3 GA mean

A 
Thrust GA 
2000 fpm rate of climb
Pitch GA
Maintain existing speed or MCP speed, higher
Roll GA
Maintain runway ground track

If less than flap 20, thrust mode other than GA can be selected

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37
Q

RTO considerations

A

Pax
Evacuation required?
PA address

Brake temperature
Brake cooling cart required?
Influence of taxi speed and time
Use of park brake

Mechanics
Risk of tire bursting
Information required for brake energy calculation

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38
Q

When is seat belt signs illuminated when selected to auto

A

Cabin alt above 10000
Landing gear not up and locked
Flap lever not up
Passenger oxygen on

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39
Q

3 levels of crm assertion

A

Enquire

Advocate

Assert

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40
Q

What is alpha mode

A

An airspeed below the maximum angle of attract or minimum airspeed has been commanded

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41
Q

IRS NAV ONLY mean

A

The fmc has been without radio or gps for a predetermined time

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42
Q

Max thrust prohibited and required?

A 
Prohibited 
Antiskid inoperative
Any one wheel brake inoperative
Thrust reverser inoperative 
Runway is short (2000m) and contaminated and max tables not processed then takeoff weight must be reduced by 14000lbs

Required
Windshear encounter

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43
Q

What is an upset

A

10’ nose down
25’ nose up
45 degrees angle of bank
Inappropriate airspeed

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44
Q

When is HF radio use prohibited

A

During refuelling

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45
Q

What classified as significant deviations below 1000’

A 
30' AoB
\+10 -5 airspeed
1 dot on glide slope
5' 1 dot on VOT
\+100ft -50ft on VNAV path
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46
Q

Besides equipment failure what will prevent RVSM operations

A

Turbulence greater than moderate

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47
Q

Low speed RTO

A

AT disconnect (enters hold 80kts)
Thrust IDLE
Manual braking (RTO arms 85kts)
Verify speedbrake up

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48
Q

Equipment required for rnav1 operation

A

1 FMS
1 IRS
1 DME/GPS

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49
Q

What is the psi in the Brake accumulator with the right hydraulic system failed, how is it charged

A

1000 psi

Gas change is maintained by maintenance

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50
Q

Times of useful consciousness
350
400

A

350 - 30 seconds
400- 12 seconds

Time of useful consciousness can be 1/3rd with Rapid decompression

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51
Q

What is PES

A

Pitch enhancement system use a hydraulic motor in the right hydraulic system and trapped system hydraulic fluid in the left system to power the stab trim during a failure of the left and centre hydraulic systems

Only electric trim will be available and it’s operation will be at 1/4 rate

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52
Q

When is a landing configuration warning generated

A

The aircraft is in flight with any gear not down and locked and

Flaps in landing position
Or
Thrust lever idle below 800 ft

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53
Q

What alerts cannot be cancelled using a recall button

A

Warning and communication

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54
Q

What lakers cannot be silenced to the master warning/caution resist switches

A

Landing config
Autopilot disconnect
TO config
Overspeed warning

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55
Q

When does the 750 start limit display

A

From when the fuel switch is in Cutoff until 10 seconds after N2 has reached 60%

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56
Q

Maximum speed commanded by VNAV

A

Econ speed vmo -16kts

Pilot entered greater than vmo -11 kts

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57
Q

What actions are required in the event of a tail strike

A

Un-annunciated checklist

Don’t pressurise

Plan to land at nearest suitable airport

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58
Q

ATT DISAGREE eicas

A

When captain/copilot symbol generations disagree by 3 degrees in pitch or roll or more for greater than 2 seconds

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59
Q

Max alt with CoG

A

Max alt reduces as cog moves forward

FMS max alt based on 25% cog, if forward of this, max alt reduced

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60
Q

FCC FAILURE cockpit indications

A

Left failure
No left FD
No land 3

Right
No right FD
No land 3

Centre with AP C command
Autopilot disconnect

61
Q

Symbol generator failure

A

AD and HSI blank
Loss of ILS receiver
Loss of RA
Both pilots on alt, INSTR SWITCH EICAS message will display

62
Q

FMC failure

A

No speed
Cdu blank
L FMC FAIL EICAS
note - RNAV1 not available

63
Q

IRS failure

A

No attitude or heading info
No VSI
RMI flags

64
Q

ADC failure

A

No ASI ALT VSI

RVSM not available

65
Q

Dual FMC failure

What climb and cruise speed should be used

A

250 (below 10), 290/0.78)

66
Q

Alt disagree

Airspeed disagree

A

200 ft

5 kts

67
Q

Takeoff warning generated

A

Takeoff config warning is generated when thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff range (75%)

Warning covers

Flaps and slats
Stabiliser outside green range
Speed brake lever not down
Parking brake valve closed
Main cargo door (bcf)
68
Q

Definition of first flight of the day

A

Domestic
True first flight of the day is JST that departs from a domestic airport

International
The flight after a planned ground stay of 3 or more hours

69
Q

Go around callout criteria

A

Go around is PIC discretion but is strongly advised in the following conditions
- speed not withheld in Vref- Vref +20 around threshold

70
Q

What parts of a/c is frost permitted prior to takeoff

A

Lower surface of wings

Upper part of fuselage

71
Q

When is pre takeoff runups require and what is the procedure

A

Required
Engine anti is required and temp below 3

Procedure
Run engine up to N1 60% for 30 seconds
Check engine stability

72
Q

GA logic for a multiple autopilot approach

A

GA is armed when flaps are out of up or GS capture

GA disarmed
Ap - 5ft plus 2 seconds
AT - aircraft is on the ground

If GA pushed when aircraft at 5 ft for greater Than 2 seconds without touching down
AT will engage in GA
AP will remain in Flare

If GA pushed when air has been below 5 ft for less than 2 seconds and on the ground
AT will remain idle
AP will engage GA

73
Q

9 items on the batt bus

A 
Emergency
Fire bottle
Evacuation signals
IRS emergency power
RAT manual deploy

Fuel
Spar fuel valves, APU fuel valve
Fuelling system

Clock
Park brake valve

74
Q

FD turned on in flight what will be default mode

A

Alt hold if level or VS if climbing descending

HDG hold if bank less than 5’ or attitude if greater than 5’

75
Q

Main batt located

A

E and E compartment aft of nose gear

76
Q

APU batt located

A

Aft cargo hold, just aft of door

77
Q

When does standby instrument display activate

A

AC power loss
Eicas fail
CRT fail

78
Q

What rate does fuel jettison system jettison fuel

A

2600 lbs

79
Q

How can fuel leak be varieties

A

Progress page 2
Acars
Visual

80
Q

What slat are heating with engine bleed with wing anti ice on

A

3 outboard slats

81
Q

CDL repair time and affect it has?

A

Not specified- but restoration should be made as soon as parts, facilities, personnel and time becomes available

Multiply cdls cannot be applied to same system
Performance penalties are cumulative
Each negligible item that exceeds 3, shall incur a 100 lb weight penalty per item.

82
Q

Tcas RA
Initial
Reversal TA RA time

A

Initial
+/- .25 g within 5 seconds

Reversal
*/- .35 g with 2.5 seconds

TA - 20 -48 seconds
RA - 15 - 35 seconds
Variable with altitude (minimum is low alt)

83
Q

TCAS inhibited

A

1450 increase Descent RA
1100 Descent RA
1000 all RA

84
Q

Stabilised approach

A 
Attitude and position correct
Engine thrust appropriate
\+10/-5 kts
Below 5000ft - 2500 fpm
1000-2000 ft - 1500 fpm
Below 1000 - 1000fpm

Exception due ATC - NAHA requires a long approach at 1000’

85
Q

Items still available if APU automatically shuts down prior to engine start

A 
Emergency evacuation system
Park brake
PA
Interphone 
Left VHF
Light - aisle- main panel - standby instrument 
Emergency cabin lighting
86
Q

What unavoidable reasons can you diaper a main maintenance base or international operation with an MEL

A 
Lack of
Spare
Facitlites
Personnel
Time
87
Q

What failures necessitate an emergency Descent

A

Dual pax off

Cab alt

Rapid depress

Cargo fire (bcf) or main deck cargo fire (f) when within 60 nm of arrival airport

88
Q

Minimum oxygen for ETOPS and what usage rate?

A 
2 crew - 850
3 crew - 1200
4 crew - 1500
UQI (Mongolia) - 1250
Oxygen is used at 7.5 psi per person per minute
89
Q

Key figures for 280,000 lbs

A 
Dual AC bus failure-7700 ft
C hydraulic failure - 4700 ft
Normal land ab 3 - 6400 ft
Normal to 30' - 5960
Max alt gear down - 31200
Gear down increase fuel flow - 50%
Gear down speed is reduced by 20%
90
Q

Electric load shedding

A

Single generator ops and hydraulic pump on
Both utility buses

During start
Both utility buses

Thrust levers are advance into takeoff range with engines shut down
Both utility buses

Engine shutdown in flight
Both utility buses
Respective centre fuel pump
Cabin ceiling lights

91
Q

Why C1 on prior to start

A

To provide hydraulic power to stab trim

C1 because C2 is shed during start

92
Q

What is HDG KVA

A

5 KVA

The HDG is not powered by the RAT so the RAT produces no electrical power (flight controls only)

93
Q

RVSM requirement

A 
Equipment
2 individual altitude systems
(40' each other, 75' FE, 200' airborne)
One altitude control system (AP) with alt hold
One altitude alert system
One mode C transponder

Aircraft not overshoot by 150’
ATC notified if greater than moderate turbulence

94
Q

Onboard documents

A

Logs and documents folder

Airworthiness certificate
Designation for operating limitations
Aircraft registration certificate
Aircraft station radio licence 
Aircraft earth radio station licence
Fuel carnet card

Manuals

AOM 1,2,3
QRH
MEL/CDL
Operations policy manual volume 2
FPDM
95
Q

Logs and documents seal broken?

A

Cap check each document and report it to maintenance
If docs accounted for flight can depart
If missing or damaged documents the cap shall report it to ground personnel

96
Q

How much contingency fuel is required to be carried

A

5% of burn off or 15 minutes holding at 1500’ at destination

97
Q

When is a second alternate required

A

Wx at destination are forecast to be below landing minima unless ceiling and vis at the alternate is 1500’ and 5000m

98
Q

Approach ban

A

An instrument approach may not continue if the weather is below company minimums or any RVR is less than 200’
Approach ban is assessed at the following in order of priority
FAF
Outer marker
1000’

99
Q

Hell what approaches can CMV be used

A

Only when RVR is not available

CAT 1 straight in ILS
Straight in NPA

100
Q

What wx conditions will approach not be able to continue due to approach ban on a CAT 1 ILS

A

Ceiling VIS or RVR is below company minima

Any RVR below 200’

101
Q

Is missed approach always required if loss airborne or ground equipment

A

No not if aircraft has required visual reference and is stable

102
Q

Recognise 2000’ remaining during takeoff

A

Runway edge lighting change from white to amber

Solid touch down marking will be the next visible touch down markings

Runway distance markers

103
Q

What does RA read during taxi either fuel in the tank, is it permitted to reset the fuel pump?

A

There are no battles in the centre fuel tank so sloshing during taxi may move fuel away from the inlets. Fuel pumps can be reset only once.

During climb if L/R pump EICAS message is displayed select pumps off, on once again in cruise.

104
Q

What is map shift

A

Map shift occurs when adequate position is no available and may result in the aircraft flying with safe margins.

Errors can be detected using gps or raw data on approach

Some map services do not use wgs-84 and this may cause nuisance egpws warning in china

Largest recorded was 800m enrojte to Dalian China

105
Q

Fuel config message on short final? What about during missed

A

Check for fuel leak page prog 2/2
If no crossfeed req continue to land
If time permits or during missed approach conduct checklist
Fuel imbalance limitations do not apply for TO and Landing

106
Q

Why are FDs 8’ pitch up for TO

A

Minimum possible pitch angle for a tail strike

107
Q

What are confirmed items, is confirmed required on the ground

A 
Thrust lever 
Fuel control switches 
Engine, APU fire switches
Cargo fire arm switch
Generate drive disconnect

Does not apply during dual engine failure

Inflight only, but in the interest of safety, confirmed action will be carried out on the ground under most circumstances

108
Q

Why C autopilot

A

Redundancy - failure of left or centre stab trim aileron lockout module (SAM), stab trim control will be automatically switched to the operating module

Cross check - left and right FCCs provide AFDS information to their respective ADI with C engaged a cross check is available across all three FCC

109
Q

Rain repellent used on the windscreen?

A

Has been removed due to environmental concerns.

Can be used on request on R1 and L1 windows when rain is forecast

110
Q

VOR Auto and Manual

A

Auto
Allows FMC to auto tune Nav aids
Position updating

Manual
To provide raw data cross check
To ensure correct aid is timed at all times

111
Q

What quantity of hydraulic fluid is reserved with standpipe in he centre system

A

14%

Sim is 8%

112
Q

ANA touch down zone

A

750’ to 2000’

113
Q

Turning radius of 767

A

46.3m

114
Q

Hydroplanning 3 types

A 
Dynamic
2.6 mm of water film
Hydroplanning speed 9 x square root of psi
Nose- 160psi-114kts
Main- 200psi-126kts

Viscous
With dyanamic hydroplanning or locked wheel condition

Rubber reversion
Locked wheel condition

Cannot occur in a grooved runway
Rainfall in excess of 30mm/he will cause hydroplanning condition

115
Q

When should emergency landing be declared

A

A single hydraulic source remains
A single electric source remains
Engine fire/failure
Smoke/fire/fumes on board that cannot be controlled
Altimeters are unreliable
Checklist ‘ plan to land at nearest suitable airport’
Other condition effecting the safety of flight

116
Q

How do you apply cmv conversion

A

CMV is a substitute for RVR when RVR is not available
It can only be used for straight in approaches
CMV cannot be used in the flight planning phase
Night/day time is sunrise/sunset as determined by PIC

117
Q

At what RVR does RVR bus reporting begin

A

Begins at 1800 m

118
Q

What are the two ANA Cat 1 classes

A

550m/200’
Max crosswind 10kts captain must be CAT 1/2/3 qualifies and FO must be CAT 1

1200m/200’
AOM crosswind limitation
Only a basic qualification applies

119
Q

What is the required equipment onboard required for RVSM

A

2 independent altimeter measuring systems

Altitude height monitoring and alerting system

Autopilot with altitude hold capability

Mode C or S transponder

120
Q

What is the required equipment onboard required for RNP

A

GPS

121
Q

What is the required equipment onboard required for Rnav 1/2

A

GPS
DME/DME
DME/DME/IRU

122
Q

What is the required equipment onboard required for rnav 5

A

GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
Ins or IRS

123
Q

What is the required equipment onboard required for rnav 10

A

GPS

INS OR IRS

124
Q

Monitor 121.5

A

Unavoidable situation
Using for other coms
Workload
Only one comm

125
Q

Capt communication in emergency

A

Close contact with
ATC
Search and rescue personal
Flight dispatcher

And give sufficient consideration to advice

126
Q

Eicas?

A

Engine indicating and crew alerting system

127
Q

IRS

Align

Navigation

Magnetic track

A

Align
78.2 NS

Nav
87 NS

Magnetic
73 N
60S

128
Q

Go around windshear ahead

On approach and landing

A

Perform windshear escape or normal go around

However when judged no danger, no necessary to follow.

129
Q

Gpws mode 7 active takeoff

A

Rotation to 1500 ft

130
Q

Windshear alert

Microburst alert

A

Windshear
Headwind 20 +
Tailwind 20-30

Mircobust
Tailwind 30+

131
Q

Fail operational

Fail passive

A

Operational
Level of Redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent autoland

Passive
Level of redundancy such that a single fault cannot cause significant flight path deviation

132
Q

When do deviation calls commence in approach

A 
VOR- final Descent (for left/right)
Vnav - final Descent - glidepath
Bank over 30 - bank
Sink rate speed loc g/s - below 1000ft
Alt deviation exceed 50 ft mda - altitude
133
Q

Tailskid eicas message indicate a tail strike?

A

It indicates tailskid position disagrees with the land gear lever position (may help determine one he occurred)

134
Q

When does auto relight occur

A

When n2 drops below idle only with fadec

135
Q

Anti ice on the ground?

A

10’ or below with visible moisture
(Clouds, fog With vis of 1mile, rain or snow)

10’ or below snow ice standing water slush

136
Q

No mel applied leaving Haneda( main maintenance base)

And international flights leaving Japan? True?

A 
Yes
Unless unavoidable circumstances
Lack of spares
Time
Personal
137
Q

Which mel can’t be extended

A 
Due article 60 and 61
Weather radar
TCAS
Flight deck door
Cvr
Fdr
VOR/adf
138
Q

4 policies

A

Fly first
Assure safe and reliable operations
Achieve effect and efficient operations
Promote standardised and uniform operations

139
Q

9 decals

A

Under standby alt
300 bcf
Pws

Under gear
Winglet
HDG
LAS

Alternate L/R ADC

Wifi
Ife/cab

Maintainence panel
AvOd

140
Q

FMC resync

A

15 seconds - 1minute

Don’t touch cdu

141
Q

Useful consciousness

A

350 - 45 seconds

400 - 30 seconds

1/3 rapid depress

142
Q

Cabin alt light
Mask drop
Outflow value auto close/open

A

Cabin alt light
Above 10,000
Goes out below 8,500

Mask drop
14,000

Outflow value auto close/open
11,000
9,500

143
Q

Rnav 1

5

10

A

Fig

FMS
IRS
GPS/DME

Same except
GPS/ or DME/VOR

GPS
Ins

144
Q

Cat speeds

A

141-165

185-250
130-185
185/265
205

145
Q

Weights

A 
International 
401
400
320
288
Short international 
347
345
320
288
Domestic
290.7
288.7
288.7
288 (winglets 291.3)
146
Q

Take off thrust selections

A

Domestic
2000m + d2 f5
1999m - d1 f15
Snow/slush/flooded d1 f15

International
370+ max f5
330-370 d1 f5
330 - d2 f5

Snow etc
300 + max f15
300 - d1 f15

How captain may use other ratings due mel/cdl/runway condition/tailwind any other reason

147
Q

Taxi engine fuel flow
APU
And icing

A

47 Ilbs/min total

APU 4 Ilbs/min

Engine anti ice 240 ibs/hour
Wing and engine 300ibs/hour

148
Q

Speed using for alternate planning

A

LRC

99% best range

Ana (5 decks)

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