Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A330 > PA-LOD > Flashcards

PA-LOD Flashcards

1
Q

Changes that require dispatcher notification

A

D3 F2 C4 E2

Deviations
- lateral 100nm
- altitude 4000' for 30min
- ETA 15min
Fuel (arrive below FAR mins, high consumption)
Changes
- destination
- alternate
- supplementary route
- CDR
EFB (2 in flight, go file pre dispatch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

takeoff/landing vis requirements location

A

Airway Manual Ops Specs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

takeoff alternate requirement

A

when flight is unable to return to departure airport with CAT1 mins or better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

can dry runway numbers be used on wet grooved runwway?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WDR weights: climb / RATOW

A

climb limit weight

Runway Allowable Takeoff Weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
WDR limit codes
APU
TRI
2SP
ASP
BKI
IMP
A 
APU - on for pack air (packs off if APU inop)
TRI - thrust reversers inop
2SP - 2 spoilers inop
ASP - all spoilers inop
BKI - one wheel brake or antiskid inop
IMP - using improved climb performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TAKEOFF ENGINE AI PENALTIES APPLIED

A

anti-ice performance adjustments applied to WDR numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when must MEL/CDL be on WDR

A

if designated “dispatcher approval required”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when MUST flight deck jumpseater occupy jumpseat

A

STAY AT GATE FOR WDR PERFORMANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is new WDR required

A

change of 1000lbs (pax/cargo) or 0.5% MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to request new takeoff performance data

A

ACARS
DAL REQUESTS
PERF TAKEOFF
(or gate agent, ops, dispatch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reasons takeoff data uplink would be inhibited

A
  • runways with cutbacks
  • ICY runway contaminant
  • SHIPS obstruction takeoff runway/position overweight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TOPR

A

takeoff performance request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LTP/LDIST relationship

A

LTP based on 7 sec air run, always between 1000’ and 3000’

landing beyond LTP reduces 15% safety margin of LDIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LDIST/LTP parentheses ()

A

LTP is less than calculated 7sec distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LPR dashes

A

15% safety margin cannot be met or data unavailable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

manual with approach/landing speeds

A

ODM approach/landing section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

manual with abnormal landing distances

A

ODM abnormal section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

assumptions for abnormal landing distances in ODM

A

max pedal braking with no 15% safety margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

default modes with AP off when FDs turned on in flight

A

HDG V/S or TRK FPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what must be ensured when FDs are turned off?

A

both are turned off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when is it desirable to have only one FD engaged?

A

never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what should be done if FDs are not going to be followed

A

turn them off

24
Q

autothrust mode with AP and FDs off

A

speed (or mach)

25
Q

recommended method for disconnecting autothrust

A

match levers to thrust then press instinctive button on lever

26
Q

FD indications

1FD2
1FD1
-FD2

A

both on, both FMGEC good

FMGEC2 failure

CA FD selected off

27
Q

INIT b FINAL value

A

do not enter, FMS will calculate 45 min reserve

28
Q

column 2 of FMA before takeoff

A

CLB armed

29
Q

column 3 of FMA before takeoff

A

NAV armed or blank if hdg preselected

30
Q

consequences of takeoff with FDs off

A

V2 defaults to 100 knots, autothrust will not arm

31
Q

takeoff FMA column 1 indications with

  • climb thrust set
  • flex set (flex value entered / not entered)
  • toga set
A
  • THR LEVERS NOT SET ecam
  • MAN FLX __ / THR LEVERS NOT SET
  • MAN TOGA
32
Q

column 3 FMA after power set for takeoff

A
  • line 1 blank if no localizer

- RWY if localizer

33
Q

when does NAV become active if no heading preselected on takeoff

A

30’

34
Q

initial lateral mode after takeoff when hdg is preselected?

how to provide FD guidance at 400’?

A

RWY TRK (a/c track at 30’)

pull hdg knob

35
Q

expected speed during SRS vertical mode (both engines online)

A

V2+10

36
Q

how are thrust reduction / acceleration altitudes inserted into t/o perf page?

A

default initially, then uplinked via TDU

37
Q

when does SRS disengage? what replaces it?

A

at acceleration altitude, changes to CLB / OP CLB

or if crew engages another vertical mode

38
Q

CA/FO responsibilities during ground ops

A

CA: calling for checklists / taxiing

FO: monitor taxi / checklist reading / communications / tasks requested by CA

39
Q

procedures for verification of checklist items

A
  • visually verify checklist item
  • observe item was completed
  • confirm completion with crewmember who accomplished item
40
Q

normal VHF management

A

VHF1: ATC
VHF2: ramp / ops / company / 121.5
VHF3: ACARS datalink

41
Q

stable approach criteria
1000’
500’

A 
1000':
- fully configured
- stable descent rate <=1000fpm
- aligned with runway
500':
- on target airspeed
- engines stabilized
42
Q

if stabilized approach criteria cannot be established or maintained…

A

go around

43
Q

standard callout prior to descending below 100’

A

CA: runway in sight

FO acknowledge

44
Q

taxi clearance verification

A

captain repeat after FO reads back, write down or in FMS scratchpad if complex

45
Q

altitude clearance verification

A

both pilots verify and point at PFD altitude displayed

46
Q

exterior lights for runway crossing

A 
all illuminated
avoid land/nose/strobe if they'll adversely affect other pilots
- nose on
- rwy turn off on
- wing on
- strobes on
47
Q

what to verify during preflight checklist “flight and nav instruments”

A
  • no abnormal flags on PFD/ND

- 1FD2 on FMA

48
Q

can you check flight controls during taxi with one engine running

A

no

49
Q

when may EFBs be placed in sleep mode

A

TOC, but all EFBs may not be off simultaneously

50
Q

procedures no later than 5min before TOD

A
  • “prepared the cabin for arrival”

- seat belt signs on

51
Q

1000’ AGL callout by PM during landing

A

“cleared to land, all green”
or
“no landing clearance, all green”

52
Q

FCU pbs for ILS (GS out) or LOC approach

A

LOC and FPA

53
Q

procedures when APU is shown on WDR

A

APU on, APU bleed on (at least 20 sec prior to takeoff thrust)

54
Q

elec power up

A

BAT 1/2/APU - auto (lights out)

  • ext: EXT A/B avail on - EXT A/B on
  • apu:
      • APU batt off, check voltage, auto
      • APU fire test
      • APU master on, check APU page for oil low, start
55
Q

location of all uplink unavailable procedures

A

VOL 1 supplementals

56
Q

icing conditions

A

OAT (ground) or TAT (in flight) 10C or below AND any of the following:

  • visible moisture, fog with vis <1sm/1600m
  • ice/snow/slush/standing water on ramps/taxiways/runways

A330 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions