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Year 2 Metabolism > Overview 3 > Flashcards

Overview 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Trigone of the bladder is formed from what? x3

A

Formed from the orifices of the ureters and the urethra

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2
Q

Epithelium of the bladder detrusor muscle is?

A

Transitional stratified epithelium

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3
Q

Micturition is controlled by what region in the brain?

A

Pontine micturition centre

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4
Q

Bladder fills with wee - activates what?

A

Stretch receptors of detrusor muscle

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5
Q

Activation of detrusor stretch muscles results in what?

A

Feedback to pontine micturition centre

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6
Q

Pontine micturition centre stimulates micturition via what nerve?

A

Pudendal nerve

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7
Q

Nerve roots of the pudendal nerve are?

A

S2, 3, 4

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8
Q

Action of pudendal nerve on the bladder is?

A

Relaxation of the sphincter of the bladder

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9
Q

Micturition pudendal nerve involvement is somatic or autonomic

A

Somatic - conscious relaxation of the sphincter

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10
Q

Relaxation of bladder sphincter results in activation of what?

A

Activation of parasympathetic reflex loop from pontine micturition centre

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11
Q

Parasympathetic to bladder nerve and nerve roots?

A

Parasympathetic pelvic nerves - S2, 3, 4

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12
Q

Detrouser muscle contraction involves what neurotransmitter?

A

Ach

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13
Q

Detrouser muscle contraction involves what neurotransmitter receptor?

A

ACh M3

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14
Q

Four stages of the bladder cycle are?

A

Bladder filling
First sensation to void
Normal desire to void
Bladder filling

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15
Q

Two modes of the bladder cycle are?

A

Storage phase

Emptying phase

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16
Q

Bladder spends most of the time in which stage of the bladder cycle?

A

Storage phase

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17
Q

Normal outflow of urine per day is?

A

1500ml of urine

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18
Q

Potential lower urinary tract symptoms? x4

A

Frequency/urgency/nocturia
Hesitancy/poor flow
Haematuria
Terminal dribbling

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19
Q

Main symptoms of overactive bladder syndrome? x3

A

Urgency - with or without incontinence
Frequency
Nocturia

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20
Q

Lower urinary tract symptoms are due to problems in which stage of the bladder cycle?

A

Storage phase

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21
Q

How can prostate symptoms be measured? (scoring system name)

A

Internation prostate symptom score (IPSS)

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22
Q

Score for mild IPSS?

A

0-7

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23
Q

Score for moderate IPSS?

A

8-19

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24
Q

Score for severe IPSS?

A

20-35

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25
Q

Benign prostate hyperplasia has what effect on the anatomy of the bladder?

A

Detrusor muscle hypertropies to compensate

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26
Q

Effect of BHP on the physiology of the bladder?

A

Hypertrophied detrusor muscle increases pressure - kidney damage

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27
Q

Too little fluid consumption has what effect on the bladder?

A

Too little - toxic concentration of urine irritates the bladder

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28
Q

Method to aid fluid management?

A

Voiding diary

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29
Q

Effect of caffeine consumption on bladder contraction?

A

Increases likelihood of bladder contraction

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30
Q

How does calcium act as a diuretic?

A

Releases calcium stores from the golgi body in the bladder wall

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31
Q

What is the effect of acidic drinks on the bladder?

A

Can irritate the bladder

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32
Q

Medical therapy for urinary problems x5

A 
alpha blockers
5-alpha reductase inhibitors 
PDE5 inhibitors
Antimuscarinincs
Combination
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33
Q

What would antimuscarinics be used to treat?

A

OAB

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34
Q

Finasteride is a?

A

5-alpha reductor inhibitor

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35
Q

Caffeine causes the release of calcium from which organelle in the cells of the bladder wall?

A

Golgi apparatus

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36
Q

Tamsulosin is a?

A

Alpha-blocker

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37
Q

Doxazosin is a?

A

Alpha-blocker

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38
Q

Dutasteride is a?

A

5-alpha reductor inhibitor

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39
Q

Terazosin is a?

A

Alpha-blocker

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40
Q

How to alpha-blockers treat BHP?

A

Relaxation of the smooth muscle of the bladder and the prostate to pass urine more easily

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41
Q

How to 5-alpha reductase inhibitors treat BHP?

A

Prevent further growth of the prostate gland and aim to shrink it

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42
Q

5-alpha reductor inhibitors and alpha blockers are both used in the treatment of?

A

BHP

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43
Q

Gold standard surgical treatment for LUTS?

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate

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44
Q

Three types of urinary incontinence are?

A

Stress UI
Urge UI
Mix of the two

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45
Q

What is stress UI?

A

Leakage on effort or exertion i.e. increased abdominal pressure

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46
Q

What is urge UI?

A

Leakage accompanied by urgency

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47
Q

Treatment for stress UI?

A

Surgery

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48
Q

Treatment for urge UI?

A

Medication

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49
Q

Two nerves that can be stimulated for the treatment of UI are?

A

Posterior tibial

Sacral

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50
Q

Three medications that can be used for UI/OAB?

A

Anticholinergics
B3 adrenergics
Botox

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51
Q

What is the real name of botox?

A

Botulinum toxin A

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52
Q

Vaginal cones can be used in the treatment of what type of UI?

A

Stress

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53
Q

Neurological lesions between which two regions can lead to micturition problems?

A

Between the micturition centre in the pons and T12

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54
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Excessive release of GH in the pituitary gland

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55
Q

First presentation of acromegaly is?

A

Enlargement of the hands and feet

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56
Q

Most common cause of acromegaly is?

A

Pituitary adenoma

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57
Q

GH is released from where?

A

Pituitary gland

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58
Q

Release of GH is stimulated by what hypothalamic hormone

A

GHRH

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59
Q

Release of GH is inhibited by what hormone?

A

Somatostatin

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60
Q

GH causes the release of what?

A

Insulin like growth factor

IGF-1

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61
Q

GH causes release of IGF-1 in which three regions?

A

Liver
Bone
Muscle

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62
Q

Negative feedback to GH release is mediated by what?

A

IGF-1 release from the liver

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63
Q

General function of diuretic?

A

Increase urinary sodium and water loss

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64
Q

General mechanism of action of diuretic?

A

Reduces reabsorption of sodium at different sites of the nephron

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65
Q

Five classes of diuretic are?

A 
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Loop 
Thiazide
Potassium sparing
Osmotic
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66
Q

Acetazolamide is?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

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67
Q

Acetazolamide has function where in the kidney?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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68
Q

How commonly are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used and why?

A

Weak diuretic - not commonly used anymore

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69
Q

Acetazolamide main uses? x3

A

Glaucoma
Epilepsy
Mountain sickness

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70
Q

Side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? X3

A

Metabolic acidosis
Sedation
Bone marrow suppression

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71
Q

Frusemide is?

A

Loop diuretic

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72
Q

Loop diuretics work at what part of the loop of Henle?

A

Thick ascending region

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73
Q

Loop diuretics work on what transporter?

A

Na+/Cl-/K+ transporter

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74
Q

Three indications for usage of loop diuretics?

A

Hypertension
Heart failure
Volume overload from CKD

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75
Q

Four side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalaemia
Dehydration and acute renal failure
Kidney stones
Deafness

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76
Q

Bumetanide is?

A

Loop diuretic

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77
Q

Bendroflumethiazide is?

A

Thiazide diuretic

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78
Q

Thiazide diuretic works at which transporter?

A

Na+/Cl- channel - prevents function

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79
Q

Thiazide diuretic at which region of the kidney?

A

DCT

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80
Q

Most potent diuretic is?

A

Loop diuretic

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81
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide is?

A

Thiazide diuretic

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82
Q

Main usage of thiazide diuretics?

A

Antihypertensives

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83
Q

Five s/e of thiazide diuretics

A 
Hypokalaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperglycaemia
Hypercholesterolaemia
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84
Q

Two groups of potassium sparing diuretics are?

A

Epithelial Na+ channel antagonists

Aldosterone antagonist

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85
Q

Amiloride is?

A

Potassium sparing diuretic - epithelial Na+ channel antagonist

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86
Q

Spironolactone is?

A

Potassium sparing diuretic - aldosterone antagonist

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87
Q

Potassium sparing diuretics work where in the kidney?

A

Collecting tubule

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88
Q

Three indications for amiloride usage?

A

Heart failure
Hypokalaemia
Cirrhosis

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89
Q

Two side effects of amiloride usage?

A

HypERkalaemia

Hyponatraemia

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90
Q

Four indications for aldosterone inhibitor usage?

A

Hyperaldosteronism
Heart failure
Hypokalaemia
Cirrhosis

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91
Q

Main s/e of aldosterone inhibitor usage

A

Hyperkalaemia!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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92
Q

What is an osmotic diuretic?

A

Any osmotically active molecule that is freely filtered in the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed by the tubules

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93
Q

Most important osmotic diuretic?

A

Mannitol

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94
Q

Two indications for osmotic diuretic?

A

Cerebral oedema

Oliguric acute renal failure

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95
Q

Three main contraindications for diuretic usage?

A

Hypotensive
Dehydrated
Post surgery with poor urine output

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96
Q

Three s/e of osmotic diuretic usage

A

Pulmonary oedema
DKA
Disequilibrium syndrome

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97
Q

Mannitol works as a diuretic via what mechanism?

A

Water drag (osmotic diuretic)

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98
Q

Mannitol is absorbed where in the kidney?

A

Glomerulus

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99
Q

What are the three types of hormones?

A

Steroid
Peptide
Amine

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100
Q

Three regions an endocrine hormone may act?

A

Cell surface
Cytoplasm
Nucleus

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101
Q

Three effects of an endocrine hormone?

A

Increased hormone production
Release of stored hormone
Cell multiplication

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102
Q

What factor expression is required for adrenal gland development?

A

Steroidogenic factor 1

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103
Q

Five zones of the adrenal gland are?

A 
Adrenal cortex
ZG
ZF
ZR
Adrenal medulla
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104
Q

Hormones produced by adrenal medulla?

A

Catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline

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105
Q

Hormones produced by ZG + eg

A

Mineralcorticoids e.g. aldosterone

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106
Q

Hormones produced by ZF + eg

A

Glucocorticoids e.g. cortisol

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107
Q

Hormones produced by ZR + eg

A

Androgens e.g. testosteone

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108
Q

Right hand adrenal gland shaped?

A

Pyramidal

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109
Q

Left hand adrenal gland shape?

A

Crescent

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110
Q

Adrenal gland blood supply?

A

Subscapular plexus from adrenal artery

111
Q

ZG, ZF and ZR are found in which part of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenal cortex

112
Q

Adrenal gland responds to which three types of stress?

A

Starvation
Infection
Severe volume loss

113
Q

CYP enzyme expressed at the glomerulosa is?

A

CYP11B2

114
Q

CYP enzyme expressed at the fasciculata is?

A

CYP11B1

115
Q

CYP enzyme expressed at the reticulosa is?

A

CYP17A1

116
Q

Two factors causing release of aldosterone?

A

Low BP

High potassium

117
Q

Two hormones that can activate the mineralocorticoid receptor are?

A

Aldosterone

Cortisol

118
Q

Which out of aldosterone and cortisol can actually activate the mineralocorticoid receptor and why?

A

Aldosterone

Cortisol is inactivated to prevent it from binding

119
Q

Aldosterone activates what channel?

A

Sodium and potassium ATPase - ENAC

120
Q

Primary hyperaldosterone is known as?

A

Conn’s syndrome

121
Q

Three signs of Conn’s syndrome

A

Hypertension
Suppressed plasma renin activity
Increased aldosterone secretion

122
Q

Two causes of Conn’s syndrome?

A

Aldosterone producing adenoma

Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

123
Q

What is cortisone?

A

Inactivated form of cortisol

124
Q

Can cortisone bind to the mineralocorticoid receptor?

A

No

125
Q

Three signs of Liddle Syndrome

A

Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis

126
Q

Cause of Cushing’s syndrome? x4

A

Iatrogenic
ACTH releasing adenoma of pituitary
Cortisol secreting adrenal adenoma
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

127
Q

What is the hormone corticotroph?

A

This is the same as ACTH

128
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Elevated levels of cortisol

129
Q

What is Addison’s syndrome?

A

Reduced levels of cortisol

130
Q

Two causes of Addison’s disease?

A

Autoimmune adrenal failure

TB

131
Q

Addisonian crisis is?

A

Failure to respond to stress - low BP, low glucose, low Na, high K

132
Q

Treatment for Addison’s disease? x2

A

Hydrocortisone - glucocorticoid

Fludrocortisone - mineralocorticoid

133
Q

Treatment for addisonian crisis?

A

IV fluid resuscitation

IM hydrocortisone

134
Q

Cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

135
Q

Four consequences of lack of 21-hydroxylase?

A

Salt-losing
Adrenal insufficiency
Virilisation
Adrenal hyperplasia

136
Q

Noradrenaline is important in what stress response?

A

Low BP

137
Q

Adrenaline is important in what stress response?

A

Low blood sugar

138
Q

Adrenaline and noradrenaline are metabolised by what enzyme?

A

COMT

139
Q

Chromaffin cells are found where?

A

Adrenal medulla

140
Q

Significance of chromaffin cells?

A

These are prone to tumour development

141
Q

Alpha-1 receptors are found where?

A

Smooth muscle

Endothelium

142
Q

Function of alpha-1 receptor?

A

Vascular and smooth muscle contraction

143
Q

Beta-1 receptors are found where?

A

Heart

144
Q

Activation of beta-1 receptors? x2

A

Increase heart rate and strength of contraction

145
Q

Beta-2 receptors are found where?

A

At the lungs - bronchioles

Skeletal muscle

146
Q

Activation of beta-2 receptors?

A

Relaxation of smooth muscle

147
Q

Symptoms of catecholamine excess? x7

A 
Hypertension
Dyspnoea
Headache
Tremor
Nausea and vomiting
Fatigue
Weight loss
148
Q

Treatment for catecholamine excess? x2

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Propranolol

149
Q

What drugs should be avoided in those with catecholamine excess?

A

Opiates

150
Q

T3 is called?

A

Liothyronine/triiodothironine

151
Q

T4 is called?

A

Levothyroxine

152
Q

Superior thyroid artery originates from?

A

External carotid artery

153
Q

Inferior thyroid artery originates from?

A

Thyrocervical trunk from the subclavian artery

154
Q

Superior thyroid vein drains to?

A

Internal jugular

155
Q

Middle thyroid vein drains to?

A

Internal jugular

156
Q

Inferior thyroid vein drains to?

A

Brachiocephalic vein

157
Q

Thyroid follicles contain what substance?

A

Colloid

158
Q

Cells of the thyroid gland are?

A

Thyroid follicular cell

159
Q

Where does the thyroid gland originate from?

A

Branchial pouch

160
Q

Which lobe of the thyroid gland is larger?

A

Right

161
Q

Which lobe of the thyroid gland is first palpable in goitre?

A

Right

162
Q

What does thyroglobulin contain and what is it’s function?

A

Contains iodine for T4 production

163
Q

Which thyroid hormone is first produced?

A

T4

164
Q

Enzyme responsible for T4 conversion to T3?

A

Deiodinase enzymes

165
Q

Three types of deiodinase enzymes are?

A

D1, D2, D3

166
Q

Function of D1?

A

Conversion of T4 to T3 - plasma T3 production

167
Q

Function of D2?

A

Conversion of T4 to T3 - local T3 production

168
Q

Function of D3?

A

Can inactivate both T4 and T3 - T3 degredation

169
Q

Where is D1 located? x4

A

Liver
Kidney
Muscle
Thyroid

170
Q

Where is D2 located? x2

A

Brain

Pituitary

171
Q

Where is D3 located? x3

A

Brain
Placenta
Foetus

172
Q

Which of the deiodinase enzymes are downregulated/upregulated in hypothyroidism?

A

Upregulate D2

Downregulate D1 and D3

173
Q

Which of the deiodinase enzymes are downregulated/upregulated in hyperthyroidism?

A

Down regulate D2

Upregulate D1 and D3

174
Q

Function of deiodinase enzyme?

A

Removal of an iodine for conversion of T4 to T3

175
Q

Where is the majority of T4 converted to T3?

A

Liver

176
Q

In which organ is regulation of T3 levels the most important?

A

Brain

177
Q

T4/T3 - which is produced by the thyroid gland?

A

T4

178
Q

T4/T3 - which is the active thyroid hormone?

A

T3

179
Q

How many more times potent is T3 than T4?

A

3/4 times

180
Q

Significance of raised thyroid binding globulin?

A

Signifies reduced levels of free thyroid - more is bound to the globulin
Increased activity fo the thyroid gland to produce T4

181
Q

Physiological cause of raised thyroid binding globulin?

A

Pregnancy

182
Q

Thyrotoxicosis is?

A

Too much thyroid hormone

183
Q

Hyperthyroidism is?

A

Overproduction of thyroid hormone - leads to thyrotoxicosis

184
Q

Hyperthyroidism cardiac effect?

A

AF

185
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on metabolism? x6

A 
Increased BMR
Increased appetite
Heat intolerance
Protein and lipid degredation
Weight loss and myopathy
Hyperglycaemia
186
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on nervous system? x2

A

Nervousness

Seizures

187
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on the eyes? x3

A

Lid lag
Proptosis
Widening eyes

188
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on skin? x4

A

Plumber’s nails
Warm and moist skin
Vitiligo
Pretibial myxodoedema

189
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on bone? x3

A

Accelerated osteoclast activity
Hypercalcaemia
Osteoporosis

190
Q

Hyperthyroidism - haematological effect?

A

Pernicious anaemia

B12 deficiency

191
Q

Hyperthyroidism effect on reproduction? x2

A

Oligomenorrhoea

Erectile dysfunction

192
Q

What is Graves disease?

A

Overactive thyroid gland - leads to thyrotoxicosis

193
Q

Four risk factors for Graves’ disease?

A

HLA status
Infection
Stress
Female sex

194
Q

Three treatments used in management of Graves?

A

Thionamide drugs
Radioactive Iodine
Thyroidectomy

195
Q

Name two thionamide drugs

A

Propylthiouracil

Carbimazole

196
Q

Signs of hypothyroidism?

A 
Reduced sweat and sebum
Hair loss and wispy
Brittle nails
Bradycardia
Reduced appetite
Constipation
Slow relaxing reflexes
Growth retardation
Reduced BMR
Reduced GFR
Reduced libido
Erectile dysfunction
Hypoglycaemia
197
Q

Which GLUT expression is reduced in hypothyroidism?

A

GLUT4

198
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism x4

A

Hashimoto’s disease
Endemic goitre
Lithium
Hypopituitarism

199
Q

Histological feature of Hashimoto’s thyroditis?

A

Lymphocytic infiltration

200
Q

AST/ALT ratio of what signifies liver cirrhosis?

A

AST/ALT ratio >1

201
Q

When does cirrhosis occur?

A

This is the end stage to any liver disease

202
Q

Wavelength of x-rays are?

A

0.01-10 nanometres

203
Q

Effect of x-rays on DNA?

A

Damage to DNA

204
Q

Why is ultrasound used more than x-rays in urology?

A

X-rays for hard materials

Ultrasound - soft materials - liquid urine

205
Q

What is the main role of MRI in urology?

A

Prostate imaging

206
Q

Two advantages of nuclear imaging?

A

Can give function and obstruction information rather than just static information

Can also give static information

207
Q

Two routes of endoscopy?

A

Natural hole

Laparoscopy - use a new hole

208
Q

Glomerulus afferent and efferent arteriole - which is under the greatest pressure?

A

Afferent

209
Q

What volume of plasma is filtered per day?

A

180L

210
Q

Normal volume of urine per day?

A

1-2L

211
Q

Five factors that determine the filtrate through glomerulus?

A 
Net filtration pressure
Podocyte slit pores
Size of the molecule
Charge of the molecule
Negative charge of the GBM glycoproteins
212
Q

Molecular weight of proteins that are cut off from passing through glomerulus?

A

> 52,000 daltons

213
Q

What is the molecular weight of albumin?

A

69,000 daltons

214
Q

GFR value per minute?

A

120mL

215
Q

Three stages to measuring clearance of a substance?

A

Measure concentration of creatinine in plasma
Collect urine for fixed time period - urine flow
Measure concentration of creatinine in collected urine

216
Q

Gold standard for measurement of GFR is?

A

Nuclear medicine scan

217
Q

Four variables of the MDMR equation?

A

Creatinine
Age
Sex
Race

218
Q

Creatine is produced by what?

A

Muscle

219
Q

Effect of creatinine levels in muscular individuals?

A

They will have raised creatinine levels

220
Q

Effect of trimethoprin drug on creatinine?

A

Inhibits tubular secretion of creatinine

221
Q

Anatomy of PCT differs to that of DCT how?

A

PCT has apical brush border - microvilli

222
Q

Glucose exceeding the glucose threshold results in what change in the urine?

A

Presence of glucose in the urine

223
Q

What is Gitelman’s defect?

A

Problem at the DCT

224
Q

What is Bartter type 1 defect?

A

Problem at the thick ascending loop of Henle

225
Q

Superior rectal vein drains to where?

A

Inferior mesenteric vein

226
Q

Inferior rectal vein drains to where?

A

Internal iliac vein

227
Q

Two veins that form the hepatic portal vein are?

A

SMV

Splenic vein

228
Q

Inferior mesenteric vein joins onto what vein?

A

Splenic vein

229
Q

Pancreatoduodenal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

230
Q

Vertebral level of kidneys?

A

T12-L3

231
Q

Which renal vein can you see extending in a CT?

A

Left renal vein crosses anterior to the aorta

232
Q

Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule composed of?

A

Podocytes

233
Q

Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule composed of?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

234
Q

Graves; disease is hypo or hyperthyroidism?

A

Hyperthyroidism

235
Q

How to tell apart collecting duct from loop of Henle histology?

A

Cells of the loop of Henle more spaced out and cells of collecting duct much closer together

236
Q

Cause of nutmeg liver?

A

Right sided heart failure

237
Q

Cirrhosis causes what in the liver?

A

Fibrosis of the liver

238
Q

Fibrotic tissue of the liver composed of what component?

A

Type 1 collagen

239
Q

Cirrhotic live contains what collagen type?

A

Type 1

240
Q

Renal artery branches off of the aorta at what level?

A

L1

241
Q

Aorta bifurcates into common iliac arteries at what level?`

A

L4/L5

242
Q

Gonadal artery (vaginal/testicular) leaves aorta at what level?

A

L2

243
Q

Catechalamines are produced from teh adrenal medulla or the adrenal cortex?

A

Medulla

244
Q

GFR zones are part of teh adrenal medulla or teh adrenal cortex?

A

Cortex

245
Q

Right gonadal vein drains into?

A

IVC

246
Q

Left gonadal vein drains into?

A

Left renal vein

247
Q

Three hormones secerted by the thyroid gland are?

A

T3
T4
Calcitonin

248
Q

Cells that secrete hormone calcitonin are?

A

Parafollicular cells in the thyroid

249
Q

Acinar cells are located in which organ?

A

Pancreas

250
Q

Source of middle rectal artery?

A

Internal iliac artery

251
Q

Source of inferior rectal artery?

A

Internal pudendal artery

252
Q

Epithelium of renal papilla?

A

Transitional

253
Q

Tissue that composes a cirrhotic nodule is?

A

Dense irregular fibrocollagenous tissue

254
Q

Location of follicular cells vs. parafollicular cells

A

Both in thyroid gland

Follicular cells - within thyroid follicle
Parafollicular cells - around thyroid follicles

255
Q

Parafollicular cells of thyroid secrete?

A

Calcitonin hormone

256
Q

Follicular cells of thyroid secrete?

A

Hormones T3/T3

257
Q

Papillae form in the thyroid gland in which condition?

A

Grave’s disease

258
Q

Left suprarenal veins drain to?

A

Left renal vein

259
Q

Parafollicular cells are also known as?

A

C cells

secretion of Calcitonin

260
Q

Six structures found in the cavernous sinus are?

A 
CNIII 
CNIV
CNV - V1
CNV - V2
CNVI

+ Internal carotid artery

261
Q

Acinar cells are located in which organ?

A

Pancreas

262
Q

What is the renal papilla?

A

Region where renal medullary pyramids empty into the minor calyx

263
Q

What empties into minor calyx from renal medullary pyramid?

A

Urine

264
Q

Tissue that composes a cirrhotic nodule is?

A

Dense irregular fibrocollagenous tissue

265
Q

Central veins of the liver are found where?

A

At the centre of hepatic lobules

266
Q

Origin of uterine artery?

A

Internal iliac artery

267
Q

Internal iliac artery - two terminal branches?

A

Inferior gluteal artery

Internal pudendal artery

268
Q

Origin of vaginal artery?

A

Internal iliac artery

269
Q

What are gallstones made from?

A

Cholesterol

270
Q

Function of bile is?

A

Transportation to aid fat digestion

271
Q

Obstruction where in the biliary tree would cause jaundice?

A

Common bile duct

272
Q

Passage of bile is?

A

From the liver to the duodenum (half from the liver is stored in the gallbladder)

273
Q

Two ketogenic amino acids are?

A

Leucine

Lysine

Year 2 Metabolism (34 decks)

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