outpatient week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

common causes of acute bilatearl cervical lymphadenitis

A

Viral URI

GAS

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2
Q

common cause of chornic bilateral cervical lymphadenitis

A

EBV, CMV

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3
Q

common cause of acute unilateral cervical lymphadenitis

A

S aureus

GAS

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4
Q

noninfectious causes of cervical lymphadenitis

A

CTD, leukemia, lymphoma, kawasakia

meds

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5
Q

common cause of chronic unilateral cervical lymphadenitis

A

nonTB myobacterium

bartonella henselae

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6
Q

What is the most common congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Romano-Ward syndrome

AD

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7
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for patients with congenital long QT syndrome?

A

non-cardioselective beta blockers: propanolol, nadolol

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8
Q

What is congenital long QT syndrome?

A

affects myocardial repolarization

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9
Q

What congenital neurological disorder only affecting females is associated with QT prolongation?

A

Rett syndrome

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10
Q

What 6 common pharmacological agents are known to cause acquired long QT syndrome?

A

quinidine, amiodarone
haloperiodal
eryhtomycin

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11
Q

A pediatric patient with impaired hearing and palpitations should be suspected of having what congenital condition?

A

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

sensoineural deafness

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12
Q

What arrhythmias are associated with congenital long QT syndrome?

A

ventricular tachyarrythmias

torsades de pointes

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13
Q

Juvenile Angiofibroma

A

nasal obstruction, nasal mass, frequent nosebleeds

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14
Q

Fanconi Anemia

A

abnormal thumbs, hyper/hypo pigmentation

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15
Q

pilocarpine inotrophoresis =

A

sweat test

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16
Q

galactosemia

A

FTT
bilateral catarcts
jaundice, hypoglycemia

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17
Q

Potter Sequence

A

UT anomaly –> anuria in utero –> oligohydroamings –>

pulm hypoplasia, flat facies, limb deformation

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18
Q

neonatal polycythemia

A

hct more than 65%

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19
Q

leesch nyan

A

x linked
def HPRT
self harm

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20
Q

most common predisposing factor to orbital cellulitis

A

bacterial sinusitis

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21
Q

tinea capitis treatment

A

griseofulvin

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22
Q

fulminant meningococemia

A

purpura on flank due to adrenal hemorrhage

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23
Q

hyper igm

A

decrease igg, iga, increased igm
x linked
cd40 igand

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24
Q

HUS smear

A

schistocytes

large platelts

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25
Q

minimal change disease histopath

A

normal

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26
Q

most common causes of osteomyelitis in SCD

A

salmonella and staph

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27
Q

anemia of prematurity

A

normocytic, normochronmic
low retics
nml everything else

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28
Q

umbilicated vesicles

A

herpec eczema

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29
Q

stroke after foreign body injury

A

ICA dissection

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30
Q

retinal vascularization

A

16 weeks

center outward

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31
Q

ROP=

A

vasoprolifererative disorder of the eye

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32
Q

incidence of ROP in infants weight less than 1250g

A

50-70%

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33
Q

resp failure contributes to ROP by

A

hypoxemia - upregulate VEGF
hyperoxemia - downregulate VEGF
BV constrict

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34
Q

screening for ROP

A

infants less than 1500g or GA of 31 weeks or less

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35
Q

mump complications

A

orchitis

meningitis

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36
Q

mumps neuro complications

A

encephalitis, deafness, GBS, transverse myelitis

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37
Q

mumps hallmark

A

swollen, tender parotid glands

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38
Q

mumps sterility

A

if bilateral

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39
Q

mumps type of virus

A

ss RNA, paramyxovirus

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40
Q

mumps affects what tissues

A

parotid glands
testis, ovaries
meningies

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41
Q

mumps meningitis prognosis

A

self limited

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42
Q

mumps incubation period

A

18-21d

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43
Q

antibody titer rise in mumps

A

fourfold rise

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44
Q

ASD physical exam

A

wide fixed split s2

systolic ejection murmur at ULSB

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45
Q

What additional test is performed during echocardiography to better visualize a patient’s atrial septal defect?

A

agitated saline contrast can illustrate the defect

multiple bubbles

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46
Q

What are some complications that may be seen in patients with an uncorrected atrial septal defect?

A
eisenmenger's syndrome
pulmonary htn
RV dysfxn -- RHF
a fib
stroke, paradoxical embolus
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47
Q

ASD CXR

A

right heart enlargement

increased pulmonary vascular markings

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48
Q

How does excessive urinary loss of protein lead to prothrombotic state that would predispose patients to renal vein thrombosis?

A

decreased antithrombin III

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49
Q

Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly seen in patients with what underlying disorder?

A

nephrotic syndrome

  • 3g/d protein loss
  • hypoalbumin
  • hyperchol
  • edema
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50
Q

What are four general signs and symptoms associated with renal vein thrombosis?

A

hematuria, pain

flank masses, oliguria

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51
Q

What signs of nephrotic syndrome should patients with renal vein thrombosis be observed for?

A

edema, anasarca

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52
Q

What findings may signal bilateral renal vein thrombosis in the pediatric patient?

A

gross hematuria

bilateral flank masses

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53
Q

What risk factors are associated with renal vein thrombosis of infancy?

A

RCC, antiphospholipid
umbilical venous cather placement
behecents
moms with DM

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54
Q

What is the method of choice for noninvasively diagnosing renal vein thrombosis?

A

CT with contrast

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55
Q

What ultrasound findings are associated with renal vein thrombosis?

A

swollen, echogenic kidneys

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56
Q

What pharmacologic agents can be used to reduce proteinuria associated with renal vein thrombosis?

A

ACEI, ARB

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57
Q

What prothrombotic complication may result from renal vein thrombosis? What prophylaxis should be administered?

A

pulmonary embolism

warfarin

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58
Q

When is surgical intervention indicated in the management of renal vein thrombosis?

A

when associated with RCC

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59
Q

horseshoe kidney and malignancy

A

wilm’s

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60
Q

pathophys of horseshoe kidney

A

midline fusion of lower kidney poles

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61
Q

horseshoe kidney complications

A

compressing ureters –> UTI, nephrolithiasis

62
Q

What symptoms should prompt a physician to suspect the presence of an osteoid osteoma?

A

neck, back pain
painful scoliosis
radicular or referred pain to lower limb or shoulder

63
Q

What is the role of biopsy in the workup of an osteoid osteoma?

A

rarely needed

64
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with an osteoid osteoma?

A

pain that is worse at night

relieved by aspirin

65
Q

What is the most common location for osteoid osteomas to develop?

A

shafts of long bones

66
Q

How is an osteoid osteoma diagnosed?

A

plain radiographs

67
Q

What malignant changes are associated with an osteoid osteoma?

68
Q

What is an osteoid osteoma?

A

benign osteoblastic neoplasm in young men

69
Q

What makes osteoid osteomas difficult to diagnose during the initial presentation?

A

pain precedes their apperance on imaging

70
Q

What is the appearance of an osteoid osteoma on plain radiograph?

A

small central nidus wiht surrounding bony sclerosis

71
Q

What treatment options are available for patients with an osteoid osteoma?

A

medical
radiofrequency ablation
surgical

72
Q

osteoid osteoma medical treatment

A

aspirin, nsaids

73
Q

What are the physical exam findings of ventricular septal defect? What are the characteristics of the murmur?

A

pansystolic murmur at LLSB
systolic thrill
loud s2

74
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of ventricular septal defect?

A

resp infections, FTT
dyspnea, SOA
heart failure

75
Q

In patients with a large ventricular septal defect, what is seen on the electrocardiogram?

A

LVhypertrophy w/or without RVH

76
Q

What is the management of a small ventricular septal defect?

A

monitered

medically managed

77
Q

What is seen on chest X-ray in patients with symptomatic ventricular septal defects?

A

cardiomegaly
marked pulmonary vasculature
pulmonary edema

78
Q

VSD medical management

A

diuretics

ACEIs

79
Q

In what scenario is surgical closure of a ventricular septal defect contraindicated?

A

irreversible pulmonary htn

80
Q

pathogenesis of beta-thalassemia major

A

impaired production of beta chains

excess of alpha chains

81
Q

what thalassemia is usually fatal before birth

A

hemoglobin barts - 4 gamma globin chains

82
Q

pathogenesis of alpha-thalassemias

A

defective alpha-globin production

excess beta globin chains

83
Q

difference btwen HbA and Hb2

A
HbA = alpha + beta
HbA2 = alpha + delta
84
Q

types of alpha thalassemis

A

minima
minor
HbH disease
hydrops fetalis with Hb Barts

85
Q

pathogenesis of beta thal minor

A

mild decrease in beta chain production

86
Q

age which beta-thal major presents

A

after 6 months of life

87
Q

anemia associated with beta thal

A

microcytic, hypochromic

88
Q

management for beta thal major

A

hyperransfuation, iron chelation therapy
stem cell transplant
splenectomy, vitamins

89
Q

target cells

A

b thal major

90
Q

HbH disease

A

neonatal jaundice and anemia

HbH = 4 beta chains

91
Q

What two cardiac anomalies must be present to support the initial survival of a patient with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

92
Q

What are the physical exam findings of hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

A

cyanosis

no murmur

93
Q

What are the diagnostic features of hypoplastic left heart syndrome on echo?

A

small LV, abnormal left sided valves, hypoplastic ascending aorta

94
Q

What is the typical symptomatic presentation of an infant with hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

A

cyanosis, resp distress

95
Q

What are the two main elements of the INITIAL management of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A

prostaglandin to maintain PDA

if no ASH - transcather or surgical atrial septostomy

96
Q

What are the later in life complications of treated hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

thrombotic complications
neurodevelopmental impairment
decreased exercise tolerance

97
Q

How does hypoplastic left heart syndrome progress if left untreated at birth?

A

heart failure, cardiogenic shock, death

98
Q

What is the path that oxygenated blood takes through the circulation of an infant with untreated hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

A

lungs - pulmonary veins - LA - ASH - RA - RV - pulm arteries - PDA - aorta - body

99
Q

inheritance of hypoplastic left heart syndrome

100
Q

What genetic syndromes has hypoplastic left heart syndrome been associated with?

A

trisomy 13,18
turners
jacobsen’s

101
Q

hypoplastic left heart syndrome diagnosed prenatally

A

1/2 of time

102
Q

infants with Chediak-Higashi present…

A

absence of skin pigmentation

103
Q

What is the typical prognosis of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

fatal in childhood

104
Q

What follow-up diagnostic studies are required once the diagnosis of Noonan syndrome is made?

105
Q

How is Alagille syndrome managed?

A

maybe liver transplant

106
Q

What is the therapy of choice for Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

bone marrow transfer

107
Q

pulmonic valve issues or stenosis

108
Q

How is common variable immunodeficiency diagnosed?

A

low ig levels
poor vaccine response
decreased cd4/cd8 ratio

109
Q

What can result from recurrent pulmonary infections associated with common variable immunodeficiency?

A

bronchiectasis

110
Q

Generally speaking, where do physical exam findings of common variable immunodeficiency manifest?

A

lungs
skin
autoimmune

111
Q

What dermatologic manifestations are associated with common variable immunodeficiency?

A

alopecia

polyarteritis nodosa

112
Q

alagille syndrome diagnosis

A

clinical

JAG1 or NOTCH2 mutations

113
Q

symptoms of cyclic neutropenia

A

fever, pharyngitis, givngivitis, stomatitis, bacterial infections

114
Q

CVID treatment

115
Q

When may splenectomy be associated with common variable immunodeficiency?

A

severe autoimmune thrombocytopenia or hemolytic anemia

116
Q

What children with Langerhans cell histiocytosis require chemotherapy?

A

lesions involving orbit, mastoid, temporal bones

117
Q

What is the “accelerated phase” of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

lymphoma like infiltation of multiple organs

precipitated by viral infection like EBV

118
Q

CVID=

A

AD disorder affecting B cells

low igs

119
Q

Dubin-Johnson PE findings

120
Q

treatments for Noonan syndrome

A

somtattropin

121
Q

Noonan mutation

A

PTPN11, SHP-2 protein

122
Q

cyclic neutropenia pathophys

A

disorder of bone marrow stem cells

arrest of myelocyte maturation

123
Q

Chediak-Higashi pathophys

A

LYST or CHST1 gene

dysfunction of neutrophils

124
Q

Dubin JOhnson syndrome abnormal transport

A

bilirubin-glucuronide transport across membrane separting hepatocyte from bile canaliculi

125
Q

cyclic neutropenia treatment

A

recombinant G-CSF

126
Q

Dubin-Johnson gene mutation

127
Q

Hand-Schüller-Christian triad

A

lytic bone lesions
exopthalamos
central DI

128
Q

langerhans cell histiocytosis symptoms

A
lytic bone lesions
skin lesions (cradle crap)
129
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome diagnose

A

peripheral smear finding of giant granules in neutrophils, eosinophils, and granulocytes

130
Q

cause of adult form of cylic neutropenia

A

cytotoxic cd56+ large granular lymphocytes

131
Q

Alagille syndrome presentation

A

cholestaiss – jaundice

butterfly vertebrae

132
Q

How is Langerhans cell histiocytosis diagnosed in children?

A

biopsy, cd1a staining

133
Q

cyclic neutropenia diagnosis

A

neutropenia of

134
Q

What clinical features besides skin rash and lytic bone lesions are associated with Letterer-Siwe Disease?

A

LAD, HSM, ANemia, thrombocytopenia

135
Q

What laboratory feature is characteristic of Langerhans cells?

A

birbeck granules

136
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with Alagille syndrome?

A

prolonged PT, PTT
HLD
elevated GGT, bilirubin

137
Q

CVID autoimmue diseases

A

RA, vitilgo, hemolytic anemia

138
Q

death in CVID

139
Q

What results from the liver dysfunction of Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

chronic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

140
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Alagille syndrome?

141
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Rotor syndrome?

A

reduced ability of liver to uptake bilirubin from blood

142
Q

hallmark of PRader Willi during neonatal period

A

neonatal hypotonia

143
Q

Noonan syndrome cardiac

A

dysplastic/stenotic pulmonic valve
HCM
ASD, VSD

144
Q

The mutated genes in Alagille syndrome normally regulate what developmental processes?

A

3-dimensional intrahepatic biliary architecture.

145
Q

Dubin-Johnson associated conditions

A

chronic hep b
hx of tubercular lymphadenitits
chronic cholestasis
CoronaryHD

146
Q

treatment of fanconi anemia

A

G-CSF
androgens
hematopoietic cell transplantation

147
Q

dubin johnson diagnosis

A

increase in ration or coproporphyin 1 to 2

148
Q

dubin johnson treatment

A

no treatment

149
Q

dubin johnson scintigraphy findings

A

extended period of liver visualization after dye injection

150
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

A

AR
hypopigmentation
neutrophil dysfunction

151
Q

cyclic neutropenia genetic mutation

A

elastase gene