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anesthesiology > outline from 2012 > Flashcards

outline from 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

Triad of general anesthesia

A
  1. Narcosis: sleep, unconsciousness
  2. Muscle relaxation
  3. Analgesia: reflex
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2
Q

Premedication

A

Give patient sedative +/- analgesic and the patient is still conscious

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3
Q

Induction

A

Loss of consciousness with administration of inhalant, injectable

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4
Q

Maintenance

A

maintaining unconsciousness with inhalant, injectable, or combo

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5
Q

Balanced anesthesia

A

Can be accomplished by use of combo of neuromuscular blocking drug to produce muscle relaxation, an opioid to produce analgesia, and low concentration of injectable agent or inhalant to maintain unconsciousness

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6
Q

Advantage of balanced anesthesia

A
  • allows lighter plane of anesthesia
  • results in more stable cardiovascular and pulmonary function
  • good for very ill patients
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7
Q

ASA class I

A
  • Def
    • normal healthy patient w/o systemic dz
  • ex
    • neutering
    • tail docking
    • elective procedures
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8
Q

ASA class II

A
  • Def
    • mild systemic disease w/ no functional limitations
  • Examples
    • minor fractures
    • slight dehydration
    • obesity
    • ear infection
    • heart murmurs
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9
Q

ASA class III

A
  • Def
    • moderate to severe systemic disturbance with some functional limitation
  • Example
    • chronic heart disease
    • anemia
    • open/severe fracture
    • hyperthyroidism
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10
Q

ASA class IV

A
  • Def
    • severe systemic disturbance which poses a constant threat to life and is incapacitating
  • Example
    • ruptured bladder
    • pyometra
    • internal hemorrhage
    • pneumothorax
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11
Q

ASA class V

A
  • Def
    • not expected to survive without intervention
  • example
    • severe shock
    • organ failure
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12
Q

Primary function of anesthetic machine

A
  1. O2 delivery
  2. blend and deliver anesthetic gas mix
  3. remove CO2
  4. support ventilation
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13
Q

O2 is color coded

A

Green

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14
Q

Open breathing system

A
  • no reservoir for anesthetic gas mixture and no rebreathing of expired gas
  • liquid inhalant on a cotton ball in a cage or on cloth
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15
Q

Semiopen breathing system

A
  • reservoir for anesthetic gas mixture
  • no rebreathing of expired gas
  • no CO2 absorption

*non-rebreathing

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16
Q

Semiclosed breathing system

A
  • reservoir for liquid anesthesia
  • partial rebreathing and absorption of CO2

*circle

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17
Q

Closed breathing system

A
  • Reservoir for liquid anesthesia
  • complete rebreathing
  • CO2 removed

*circle

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18
Q

Main breathing system used in vet med

(patient < 7-10 kg)

A

Non-rebreathing system - semiopen

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19
Q

Main breathing system used in vet med

patient > 10 kg

A

circle breathing system - semiclosed

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20
Q

Exhausted soda lime is

A
  • hard and chalky
  • turns purple
  • stays cool
  • slightly salty
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21
Q

Fresh soda lime is

A
  • canister will feel hot b/c it’s an exothermic rxn
  • white
  • crumbles easily
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22
Q

Unidirectional valves

A
  • one way flow of gas
  • inspiratory and expiratory side
    • prevents rebreathing of CO2
  • make sure the disks are seated horizontal and working properly
    • can cause hypercapnia if valve doesn’t work
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23
Q

Pop-off valve

(adjustable pressure limiting valve)

A
  • releases excess gases to environment
  • source of most anesthetic mishaps
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24
Q

Non rebreathing systems

A
  • less dead space
  • less/no resistance
  • DO NOT O2 FLUSH
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25
Q

Advantages of non-rebreathing systems

A
  • low resistance
  • less dead space
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26
Q

disadvantages of non-rebreathing systems

A
  • inspired gas not humidified
    • greater loss of body heat
  • more environmental pollution
  • more $$$ in long-run
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27
Q

Airway preop considerations

PE

A
  • Full PE
  • Head and neck
    • open mouth without pain
    • loose teeth
    • upper airway obstruction
    • nasal/oral secretions
    • masses
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28
Q

advantages of tracheal intubation (7)

A
  1. ensures patient airway
  2. prevents aspiration, especially in regurgitation prone patients
  3. enables ventilation if needed
  4. maintain airway in problematic poistioning
  5. control in patients with upper airway disease
  6. admin of inhalent when face mask not possible
  7. route for suctioning trachea
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29
Q

Ace in premed

A
  1. tranquilization/sedation
  2. known antiarrhythmic
  3. reduces afterload which dec workload of heart
  4. antiemetic
  5. antihistaminic
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30
Q

Ace premed contraindications

A
  1. anemia
    • will dec PCV by splenic sequestration
  2. shock
  3. bleeding problem
    • interferes with platelet aggregation
  4. splenectomy
  5. hepatic insufficiency
    • prolonged effect
  6. Hypothermic
    • vasodilation

*NOT OLD AGE

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31
Q

When giving Ace IM instead of IV

A

reduce dose by half

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32
Q

Morphine

A
  • cheapest
  • vomiting
  • long duration
  • efficacious for severe pain
  • IM or IV slow, possible histamine release
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33
Q

Hydromorphone

A
  • vomiting
  • long duration
  • IM injection
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34
Q

Methadone

A
  • less vomiting
  • blocks NMDA receptors in addition to opioid receptors
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35
Q

Meperidine

A
  • synthetic full agonist
  • no vomiting
  • does not decrease HR
  • shorter duration of action (45 min)
  • causes massive histamine release when given IV
  • negative inotropic effects => decreases contractility
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36
Q

Buprenorphine

A
  • partial agonist, high affinity at mu-opioid receptor
    • competes with full agonists: morphine, hydro, methadone
  • duration: 4-8 hrs
  • less painful procedures
  • no vomiting
  • mydriasis in cats
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37
Q

Fentanyl + remifentanil

A
  • short duration
    • around 15 min
  • mainly used as CRI during balanced anesthesia
  • hepatic metabolism
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38
Q

Butorphanol

A
  • agonist-antagonist
  • less efficacious than full agonist
  • used for non-painful diagnostic procedures
  • prominent sedation, especially with acepromazine
  • short duration: about 1 hr
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39
Q

If ace is contraindicated

A
  • neuroleptanalgesia: BZDs + opioid
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40
Q

Diazepam

A

not soluble, can only mix with ketamine

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41
Q

Midazolam

A

water soluble given any route

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42
Q

BZDs

A
  • has minimal CV depressant effect
    • good for sick patients
  • don’t use on agitated or BAR patients
    • paradoxical agitation
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43
Q

Opioid only for premed

A
  • can cause sedation
    • more predictable when patients are sick or depressed
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44
Q

Nothing for premed

A
  • can be feasible in very sick patients
  • induction can proceed without premed
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45
Q

Premed for aggressive dogs

A
  • dexmedetomidine + an opioid
    • Alpha 2 agonist
    • hydro, morphine, or butorphanol
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46
Q

Premeding cats

A
  • ace + opioid creates less sedation than in dogs
  • Ketamine creates more sedation
    • contraindicated in HCM
  • Dexmedetomidine in aggressive cats
    • CV effects tolerated by HCM cases
  • Opioids cause hyperthermia
    • monitor body temp closely
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47
Q

Premeding horses

A
  • alpha-2s are main drugs
    • effects
      • sedation, analgesia, muscle relaxation
    • examples
      • zylazine, detomidine, romifidine, dexmedetomidine
  • Opioid for analgesia after alpha-2 agonist to prevent excitement
    • butorphanol or morphine
  • Ace before premed possiblity
    • penile prolapse in stallions
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48
Q

Categories of injectable anesthetic agents

A
  1. Barbiturates (MOA at GABA receptors)
    • thiopental
  2. Non-barbiturates
    • propofol
    • dissociative agents: ketamine, tiletamine
    • Etomidate
    • Alfaxan
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49
Q

Thiopental

A
  • ultra short acting barbiturate (inc affinity for GABA)
    • leakage from vein hurts
  • CNS: minimal changes in ICP, dec CBF and metabolic rate/O2
  • Respiratory: apnea, dec cough and gag
  • CV: dec BP, slows hepatic metabolism, metabolites excreted in urine
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50
Q

Thiopental

contraindications

A
  • greyhounds/sighthounds
  • CV compromised patients
  • pre-existing arrhythmias
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51
Q

Propofol

A
  • Interacts with GABA, short acting phenolic hypnotic agent
  • CNS: dec ICP, oxygen requirement
  • Resp: depression, apnea, dec cough and gag
  • CV: myocardial depression, dec BP
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52
Q

Propofol

Metabolism

A
  • metabolized by hepatic cP450 enzymes
    • may have extra hepatic uptake and metabolism
      • good choice for hepatic patients
  • Repeated boluses don’t excessively prolong recovery
    • good choice for maintenance for prolonged procedures
  • Ok for preggos
    • rapidly cleared from puppies
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53
Q

Propofol

Contraindications

A
  • caution in cats - heinz body formation and oxidative damage
  • CV compromised patients
  • pancreatitis patients
54
Q

Ketamine

A
  • Dissociative agent
  • CNS: hallucinations, agitation, confusion in humans; inc CBF and ICP, inc O2 demand
  • Resp: apneustic breating, maintain respiratory drive
  • CV: stim of sympathetic nerv syst (inc HR, CO, BP), arrhythmias
  • Only induction agent with analgesic properties
    • action at NMDA receptors
55
Q

Ketamine

Metabolism

A
  • Dogs: hepatic
  • Cats: excreted mostly in urine unchanged
56
Q

Ketamine

Contraindications

A
  • intracranial masses, head trauma, eye trauma, glaucoma
  • cardiac disease and arrhythmias
  • cats with kidney disease
57
Q

Etomidate

A
  • CNS: dec CBF, ICP, O2 requirement, IOP
  • Resp: maintain drive, gag and cough reflex
  • CV: produces minimal changes even in hypovolemic dogs
    • good choice for patients with primary heart disease
  • Endocrine: dec in cortisol function
  • Hemolysis: propylene glycol formation
  • metabolism: hepatic
58
Q

Etomidate

contraindications

A
  • abnormal adrenal function
  • septic shock
  • long-term use
59
Q

Summary drugs

Thipental

Propofol

Ketamine

Etomidate

Alfaxalone

A
  1. thiopental
    • Good: lower ICP, IOP, gag, use in brain dz
    • Bad: perivascular sloughing if out of vein (high pH), ventricular bigeminy
  2. Propofol
    • Good: Short lasting, used in hepatic dz
    • Bad: apnea, vasodilation, hypotension
  3. Ketamine
    • Good: analgesic properties, Can be used IM
    • Bad: lower adrenal resp to stress, hemolysis
  4. Etomidate
    • Good: Maintain BP and blood flow, good in cardiac dz
    • Bad: lower adrenal response to stress, hemolysis
  5. Alfaxolone
    • Good: can be used IM
    • Bad: not avail in US
60
Q

CV dz

Good/bad

A
  • Good: Etomidate
  • Bad: Propofol
61
Q

Resp dz

Good/bad

A
  • Good: Etomidate
  • Bad: Propofol, thiopental
62
Q

CNS dz

Good/bad

A
  • Good: Thiopental, Propofol
  • Bad: Ketamine
63
Q

Hepatic dz

Good/bad

A
  • Good: Propofol
  • Bad: Thiopental
64
Q

Preggos

Good/bad

A
  • Good: propofol
  • Bad: Thiopental
65
Q

gas definition

A

gas at room temp and ambient temp

66
Q

Vapor definition

A

liquid at room temp and ambient temp

67
Q

MAC

A
  • minimum alveolar concentration is the percentage of agent present in alveoli that will prevent 50 % of population from moving in response to noxious stimuli
  • measure of potency
68
Q

The lower the MAC the greater the

A

potency

69
Q

Cats tend to have a higher MAC for

A

volatile agents

70
Q

MAC Methoxyflurane

A

0.24

71
Q

MAC of Halothane

A

0.87-1.04

72
Q

MAC Isoflurane

A

1.28-1.63

73
Q

MAC Sevoflurane

A

2.1-2.58

74
Q

MAC Desflurane

A

7.2-10.32

75
Q

Facters that Dec MAC

A
  1. severe acidosis
  2. hypothermia
  3. pregnancy
  4. advanced age
  5. premeds
  6. induction agents
  7. local anesthetics
  8. severe anemia
  9. severe hypoxemia
  10. sepsis
76
Q

Factors that inc MAC

A
  1. Hyperthermia
  2. Hypernatremia
77
Q

Def: delivered concentration of the anesthetic

A

percent setting on vaporizer

78
Q

Def: inspired or inspiratory conc

A
  • conc that the patient inhales
    • equal to vaporizer setting if using non-rebreathing system
    • less than delivered if using a circle rebreathing system because of dilution by expired gas
79
Q

Def: expired concentration

A
  • concentration at end of expiration
    • reflects alveolar concentration
80
Q

Def: Alveolar concentration

A
  • reflects amount of anesthetic in brain
81
Q

Factors affecting inspiratory concentration

A
  • fresh gas flow rate
  • volume of circle breathing system
  • absorption by machine or circuit (rubber)
    • time constant
82
Q

Factors affecting alveolar concentration

A
  • solubility in blood of inhaled anesthetic
  • cardiac output / alveolar blood flow
  • ventilation
  • partial pressure diff between alveolar gas and venous blood
83
Q

Summary of main factors influencing onset of anesthesia

A
  1. inspired concentration
  2. alveolar ventilation
  3. cardiac output
  4. blood solubility
84
Q

Cardiac effects of inhalants

A
  1. arrhythmogenicity
  2. cardiac depression (dose-dependent) = dec CO
  3. dec in systemic vascular resistance = vasodilation
85
Q

Respiratory effects of inhalents

A
  1. respiratory depression
  2. dec in tidal volume
86
Q

Drugs that can be used to dec MAC

A
  • BZDs
  • sedatives
  • opioids
  • lidocaine infusions
87
Q

Apnea

A
  • Most common during induction
    • barbiturate or propofol induction
  • check pulse, make sure it’s not cardiac arrest
  • control ventilation and O2 until spontaneous breathing
    • 2-3 breaths/minute
  • Mechanical stimulation safer than drugs
    • ie: doxepram
88
Q

Airway obstruction

A
  • Signs: dyspnea, stridor, jerky movements, reduced reservoir bag
  • Causes: kinked ET tube, overinflated cuff, mucus/blood
  • suction if blood, mucus, vomit
  • use armored tube if neck in extreme flexion
89
Q

Hypoventilation (hypercapnea)

A
  • Signs: dec RR/tidal volume, High pCO2
  • Causes: CNS depression, limited thoracic movement, exhausted soda lime
90
Q

Cardiovascular problems

A
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Hypotension
91
Q

Causes of cardiovascular probs

A
  1. drug effects
  2. hypovolemia
  3. shock
  4. animal in deep plane of anesthesia
92
Q

Signs of cardiovascular probs

A
  • tachycardia
  • weak pulse
    • good pulse: means systolic/diastolic diff is good, not indicative of adequate blood pressure
93
Q

Treatment/prevention of cardiovascular probs

A
  1. check pulse
  2. dec anesthetic plane
  3. admin fluids
    • crystalloids 10 mL/kg over 10 minutes (bolus)
  4. positive inotropic agents if no response to both of above
    • dobutamine - LA
    • dopamine - SA
    • epinephrine
94
Q

PVC id on EKG

A
  • no associated P wave
  • wide and bizarre QRS complex
95
Q

Causes of PVC

A
  • hypoxia
  • hypercapnia
  • traumatic myocarditis
  • GDV
96
Q

TX/prev PVC

A
  • lidocaine
  • thiopental
    • for bigeminy (alternating sinus and PVC)
97
Q

Causes of bradycardia

A
  • excessive vagal tone
    • eyeball traction
    • laryngeal surgery
    • abdominal exploration
  • drugs
    • opioids
    • alpha2 agonists
  • hypothermia
    • wont respond to atropine
98
Q

Tachycardia and EKG

A
  • P wave present = sinus tachycardia
  • No P wave = supraventricular
99
Q

Causes of tachycardia

A
  • LIGHT ANESTHESIA: #1 cause
  • hypovolemia
  • hypercapnia
  • shock
  • sepsis
100
Q

Human error

A
  • wrong drug/concentration/body weight
  • O2 tank off/O2 flowmeter off
  • suction too high/off
  • Closed pop-off valve
  • wrong anesthetic
101
Q

requirements of recovery area

A
  • quiet, not too bright, temp control
  • Oxygen, drugs, and resuscitation equiptment
  • heat
  • supervision
102
Q

Patient can leave OR IF

A
  • patent airway
  • adequate ventilation
  • hemodynamically stable
103
Q

Pain control:

Consequences of pain

A
  • stim of sympathetic n.s. => tachycardia + peripheral vasoconstriction
  • respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia => inc RR
  • dec GI motility
  • stim of ADH => changes in body fluid balance
  • excitement, violence, self-mutilation
104
Q

Signs of pain

A
  • change in behavoir
  • stimulation of SNS
    • dilated pupils
    • tachycardia
    • hypertension
  • inc RR
105
Q

Strategies for pain control

A
  1. opioids
  2. NSAIDS
  3. adjuct drugs sedation/tranq
  4. nerve blocks, epidural
  5. ice, acupuncture
  6. Distractions
106
Q

Use of opioids

A
  • Can be given before full consciousness regained
  • some may require sedation also
    • ace, diazepam
  • dec drug dose in depressed patient IV
  • closely monitor RR
107
Q

If animal become apneic post-op, rule out (3 things)

A
  1. cardiac arrest => check pulse
  2. cerebral injury during anesthesia => eye fixed and dilated?
  3. residual neuromuscular blocking drug
108
Q

If animal is intubated w/chest movement and no air movement in trachea

A
  • check for obstruction of ET tube = blood clot, mucus plug
  • inflate lungs by breathing bag and feal resistance
  • pull and place new tube as quick rule-out
109
Q

If patient has check movement but no air movement after extubation

A
  • OPEC: open mouth, pull tongue rostrally, extend head and neck, clear airway
  • place animal in sternal recumbency
  • r/o nasal edema in horses - phenylephrine
  • r/o laryngospasms in cats, small ruminants, pigs
  • bandages circling neck
  • tracheostomy if needed
110
Q

If patient has jerky or abnormal respiratory movements after extubation

A
  • r/o partial obstruction - OPEC
  • r/o pain
  • r/o circulatory failure
  • r/o pulm path: red froth, ascult chest
  • r/o resid neuromuscular blocking drug
  • r/o cyanosis
  • aspirate chest tube
111
Q

Signs of shock

A
  • weak palpable pulse
  • tachycardia or bradycardia (terminal)
  • inc CRT, pale MM, cyanosis
  • cold extremeties
  • hypotension
  • unresponsive to stim
112
Q

Management of shock

A
  • Oxygen
  • Fluids
  • positive ionotropes
    • dopamine
    • dobutamine
113
Q

Hypothermia more of a concern in

A

smaller animals

114
Q

First reflexes to return as animal wakes up

A

ocular reflexes

spontaneous movement

115
Q

Light plane of anesthesia

A
  • central eye ball position
    • nystagmus in horses
  • no limb movement to possible infrequent spontaneous movement
  • good muscle tone
  • reflexes in response to sx
  • moist cornea
  • pedal, palpebral, conjuctival, and corneal reflex
116
Q

medium plane of anesthesia

A
  • no spontaneous movement
  • no reflexes
  • no hemodynamic response to sx stim
  • moderate muscle tone
  • no palpebral reflex
  • ventromedial rotation of eye and smaller pupil
117
Q

Deep plane of anesthesia

A
  • further dec in tidal volume
  • more abdominal breathing
  • eyes fixed centrally w/dilated pupil
  • no palpebral, pedal, corneal reflexes
  • no spontaneous movement
  • hyptension/bradycardia
118
Q

esophageal stethoscope is a poor indicator of

A

adequacy of circulation

119
Q

Direct measurement of BP

A
  • arterial catheter
  • standard of care in horses
  • good for critically ill patients
  • invasive and time consuming
120
Q

Indirect measurements of BP

A
  • sphygomomanometry
    • width of cuff: 40% around patient leg
      • bigger cuff: underestimates BP
      • smaller cuff: overestimates BP
  • Oscillometric
    • 60 mmHg
121
Q

Pulse ox

A
  • measures arterial oxygen saturation
    • detects hypoxemia: spO2 < 90 or B Gas PaO2 of 60
  • monitors HR
  • placed on tongue or nasal septum
122
Q

Pulse ox measures light absorption at two different wave lengths

A
  • Reduced HB absorbs more red light
  • Oxygenated HB absorbs more infrared light
123
Q

Capnography

A
  • Measures end-tidal and inspired CO2 tension
  • useful to determine
    • hypo/hyper ventilation (inc/dec CO2)
    • apnea (zero CO2)
    • Resp obstruction
    • pulm embolism
    • rebreathing of CO2
124
Q

Body temp should stay above/equal to

A
  • 94 degrees
    • Below 94
      • anesthetic requirements reduced
      • prolonged recovery likely
      • depressed cardiopulmonary function
    • above normal: rule out malignant hyperthermia
125
Q

Cardiac dz and anesthesia

A
  • prone to: arrhythmias and fluid overload
  • most anesthetic agents depress CV
  • low oxygen delivery
  • Drugs
    • opioids and midazolam
    • etomidate
    • low inhalent delivery
126
Q

Pulmonary dz and anesthesia

A
  • most drugs dec ventilation
  • pre-oxygenate
  • drugs
    • low dose opioid
    • propofol
  • assist ventilation
127
Q

Liver disease and anesthesia

A
  • Concerns
    • low metabolism, dec prot prod, dec glucose stores, hypoxia
  • use reversible, short-acting drugs
  • drugs
    • opioids +/- midazolam
    • propofol
    • remifentanil + isoflurane
    • fluid: FFP, hetastarch, glucose
128
Q

Brain disease and anesthesia

A
  • concerns: high CO2, BP and low O2
  • avoid drugs that cause: vx, sedation (hypoventilation), inc ICP (ketamine, halothane)
  • Drugs
    • low dose opioid IV
    • thiopental, diazepam
    • isoflurane/sevoflurane
  • hyperventilate
  • recovery: keep head elevated, low sedation
129
Q

Renal dz and anesthesia

A
  • electrolyte abnormalities
  • avoid hypotension and hpoperfusion
  • avoid drugs that dec MAP, CO, cause vasoconstriction
  • drugs
    • opioid +/- low dose ace
    • dopamine CRI - promote blood flow
    • propofol?
    • fluid therapy
    • low inhalents
130
Q

Most inhalation and IV anesthetics will……

A
  • dec CO => less blood flow to tissue => metabolic acidosis
  • dec resp => respiratory acidosis
131
Q

principles of fluid admin prior to anesthesia

A
  • correct
    • dehydration
    • electrolyte imbalances
    • acid-base imbalances

anesthesiology (14 decks)

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