Other Systems Flashcards
Which of the following treatments is typically the least effective for managing edema associated with stage 2 lymphedema?
A. Short stretch bandages
B. Compression garments
C. Manual lymphatic drainage
D. Elevation of the involved limb
D. Elevation of the involved limb
According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a pre-ulcerative lesion without an actual open lesion would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 4
D. Grade 5
A. Grade 0
According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a superficial ulcer not involving subcutaneous tissue would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B: Grade 2
C. Grade 1
D. Grade 4
C. Grade 1
According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a deep ulcer with penetration through the subcutaneous tissue; potentially exposing bone, tendon, ligament or joint capsule would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3
C. Grade 2
According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals gangrene of digit would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 5
D. Grade 4
D. Grade 4
According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals deep ulcer with osteitis, abscess or osteomyelitis would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 3
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 5
B. Grade 3
A burn that presents with significant pain and blistering is most likely to be classified as a:
A. Superficial burn
B. Superficial partial-thickness burn
C. Deep partial-thickness burn
D. Full thickness burn
B. Superficial partial-thickness burn
Which of the following is an example of a class II drug?
A. Heroin
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
C. Morphine
D. Sedative
C. Morphine
Which of the following is a selective form of debridement?
A. Wet-to-dry dressing
B. Whirlpool
C. Pulsed lavage
D. Autolytic
D. Autolytic
What term describes the highest level of a drug that can be obtained in the blood?
A. Onset of action
B. Peak plasma concentration
C. Elimination half-life
D. Plateau
B. Peak plasma concentration
Which unit of measurement is used to help determine medication dosage?
A. Body fat percentage
B. Body mass index
C. Body weight
D. Body temperature
C. Body weight
Which of the following medications is not commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorders?
A. Antidepressants
B. Antihypertensives
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
D. Depressants
What enzyme, central to digestion, is produced by the gastric glands?
A. Trypsin
B. Chymotrypsin
C. Pepsinogen
D. Lipase
C. Pepsinogen
Which route of drug delivery would be absorbed at the fastest rate?
A. Oral pill
B. Oral liquid
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Intravenous injection
D. Intravenous injection
What structure plays an important role in regulating the body’s temperature?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Pituitary
D. Thymus
A. Hypothalamus
What is the primary indication for bisphosphonates?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bronchodilation
D. Anticoagulation
B. Osteoporosis
Bisphosphonates are commonly prescribed to reduce the amount of bone resorption.
Which of the following is not an indication for applying a wound dressing?
A. Protect the area from injury
B. Prevent contamination
C. Prevent scarring
D. Promote healing
C. Prevent scarring
Which of the following factors will decrease a person’s metabolic rate?
A. Increase in muscle mass
B. Increase in physical activity
C. Increase in temperature
D. Increase in age
D. Increase in age
Which of the following would be considered an appropriate compression pressure for use with a patient with a venous wound?
A. 10 mm Hg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 30 mm Hg
D. 40 mm Hg
D. 40 mm Hg
Excess growth hormone secretion from the pituitary gland can cause?
A. Dwarfism
B. Acromegaly
C. Marfan syndrome
D. osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Acromegaly
Which condition usually results from an infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue arising after an injury or infection?
A. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Cellulitis
D. Cholecystitis
C. Cellulitis
What bony prominence would not be susceptible to pressure injury when a patient is sitting in a properly sized standard wheelchair?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Vertebral spinous processes
C. Spine of the scapula
D. Posterior superior iliac spines
C. Spine of the scapula
During sharp debridement, caution should be taken with patients who are currently taking:
A. Antidiuretic
B. Anticoagulants
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antitussives
B. Anticoagulants
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is defined as:
A. A fungal infection
B. A rare blood cancer caused by human immunodeficiency virus
C. A group of diseases caused by human immunodeficiency virus
D. The final stage of human immunodeficiency virus
D. The final stage of human immunodeficiency virus
Which stage of malignancy is limited to the tissue of origin with no lymph node involvement or metastasis?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 0
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 3
A. Stage 1
Which of these wound dressing can be utilized to treat an infected pressure injury?
A. Transparent film
B. Hydrocolloiids
C. Hydrogels
D. Calcium alginates
D. Calcium alginates
Which objective finding is not one of the diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome?
A. Elevated blood glucose
B. Body mass index
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Decreased high density lipoproteins
B. Body mass index
Which demographic has the greatest incidence of osteoporosis?
A. Caucasian males
B. African American males
C. Caucasian females
D. African American females
C. Caucasian females
A scant output of urine is referred to as?
A. Oliguria
B. Hematuria
C. Incontinence
D. Polyuria
A. Oliguria
What major hormone is secreted by the pancreas?
A. Aldosterone
B. Testosterone
C. Insulin
D. Estrogen
C. Insulin
Which of the following is an example of a class 1 drug?
A. Antidiarrheal
B. Sedative
C. Oxycodone
D. Heroin
D. Heroin
Which type of incontinence would be demonstrated by a patient with a recent total hip arthroplasty being unable to male it to the bathroom in a timely manner?
A. Stress incontinence
B. Functional incontinence
C. Urge incontinence
D. Overflow incontinence
B. Functional incontinence - Is the loss of urine due to the inability or unwillingness of a person to use the bathroom facilities prior to involuntary bladder release.
Which type of incontinence is common in older adults and is associated with an overactive detrusor muscle?
A. Stress incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Functional incontinence
B. Urge incontinence
What type of cancer is fund in the bone marrow and is characterized by the production of abnormal white blood cells?
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Hodgkin’sDisease
A. Leukemia
Which method is an example of mechanical debridement?
A. Collagenases
B. Maggots
C. Film Dressings
D. Pulsed Lavage
D. Pulsed Lavage
According too the rule of nines, a burn affecting the posterior trunk and posterior left arm, forearm and hand, would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area?
A. 9%
B. 22.5%
C. 13.5%
D. 185
B. 22.5% - The posterior trunk constitutes 18% of the total body surface area. The posterior surface of one arm, forearm and hand constitutes 4.5%.
What structure would most likely be impacted if a large brain tumor was creating numerous hormonal abnormalities?
A. Cerebellum
B. Parietal cortex
C. Pituitary gland
D. Occipital Lobe
C. Pituitary gland
What is the mechanism of action for antipsychotic drugs?
A. Block central dopamine receptors
B. Increase serotonin production
C. Decrease serotonin production
D. Activate central dopamine receptors
A. Block central dopamine receptors
When communicating with an older adult patient with hearing loss, which of the following recommendations is most critical to follow?
A. Speak slowly in a lower pitched voice
B. Speak slowly in a higher pitched voice
C. Speak softly in a lower pitched voice
D. Speak softly in a higher pitched voice
A. Speak slowly in a lower pitched voice
What is the target site for luteinizing hormone?
A. Breast
B. Kidneys
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
C. Ovaries
Which of the following structures is responsible for digestion of food and absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Liver
B. Small intestine
Which of the following is considered the most occlusive of the moisture-retentive dressings?
A. Transparent films
B. Foams
C. Hydrogels
D. Hydrocolloids
D. Hydrocolloids - Are considered the most occlusive of the moisture-retentive dressings.
Which of the following would typically be the dressing of choice to treat a stage 1 or stage 2 pressure injury?
A. Transparent film
B. Hydrocolloids
C. Calcium alginates
D. Wet-to-dry dressings
A. Transparent film
Which personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation?
A. Paranoid personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Avoidant persoonality disorder
D. Schizoid personality disorder
C. Avoidant persoonality disorder
Which of the following burn classification is characterized by complete destruction of the epidermal and dermal layers, in addition to the involvement of the subcutaneous fat or muscle?
A. Superficial burn
B. Full thickness burn
C. Superficial partial-thickness burn
D. Deep partial-thickness burn
B. Full thickness burn
Parenteral medication administration includes all of the following routes except:
A. Oral
B. Intradermal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
A. Oral
What is the “M” in the TNM cancer staging system used to describe when a patient has malignant melanoma?
A. Regional lymph nodes and their level of metastasis
B. Distant metastasis to other visceral sites
C. Primary tumor thickness and presence of ulceration
D. Layers of skin that are invaded by the melanoma
B. Distant metastasis to other visceral sites
Which characteristic of urine helps prevent bacterial growth?
A. Color
B. Odor
C. pH
D. Water content
C. pH
The islets of Langerhans are found in which organ?
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
C. Pancreas
Which diagnosis is characterized by painful, tender points?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Guillin-Barre Syndrome
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Venous stasis ulcer
A. Fibromyalgia
Apparent enlargement (or thickening) f long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, or skull would be most characteristic of?
A. Paget’s disease
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteopenia
D. Ricketts
A. Paget’s disease
Which type of wound often occurs due to rubbing or scraping of the epidermal layer of the skin?
A. Incision
B. Contusion
C. Abrasion
D. Laceration
C. Abrasion
Which of the following is not a role of the kidneys?
A. Balancing body fluids
B. Secreting hormones
C. Regulating blood pressure
D. Removing waste products
B. Secreting hormones
Which structure in the epidermis serves as a barrier against fluid, electrolytes, and chemical loss?
A. Basal cells
B. Langerhans cells
C. Stratum corneum
D. Keratinocytes
C. Stratum corneum
The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia are areas that are likely to develop pressure injuries in which position?
A. Sidelying
B. Sitting
C. Supine
D. Prone
A. Sidelying
An injury to the skin that is characterized by pain, edema, and discoloration and typically results from trauma is termed:
A. Contusion
B. Desquamation
C. Erythema
D. Maceration
A. Contusion
Which of the following is not an example of mechanical debridement?
A. Whirlpool
B. Pulsed lavage
C. Wet-to-dry dressings
D. Hydrocolloids
D. Hydrocolloids
Which of the following terms describes skin that is yellow-orange in color?
A. Pallor
B. Jaundice
C. Cyanosis
D. Erythema
B. Jaundice
Which of the following wound dressings are most helpful in maintaining a moist wound bed in a superficial wound with minimal drainage?
A. Transparent film
B. Alginates
C. Hydrogels
D. Wet-to-dry dressings
C. Hydrogels
Which statement best describes a xenograft used to close a burn on a patient that sustained extensive tissue damage?
A. A permanent graft made from the skin of the same species
B. A temporary graft made from the skin of the same species
C. A permanent graft made from the skin of another species.
D. A temporary graft made from the skin of another species
D. A temporary graft made from the skin of another species
What condition is characterized by stomach pain that occurs repetitively several hours after a meal?
A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Appendiciiitis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Gastric ulcer
A. Duodenal ulcer
Which group of individuals is most at risk for systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. African-American men
B. African-American women
C. Caucasian men
D. Caucasian women
B. African-American women
A rubor of dependency test can help to identify which of the following risk factors for developing skin ulceration?
A. Venous insufficiency
B. Arterial insufficiency
C. Neuropathy
D. Insensate skin
B. Arterial insufficiency
Which of the following is a form of non-selective debridement technique?
A. Autolytic debridement
B. Enzymatic debridement
C. Wet-to-dry dressing
D. Sharp debdridement
C. Wet-to-dry dressing
What is the primary indication for a glucocorticoid medication being prescribed in chronic conditions?
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Osteoporosis
C. Anxiety
D. Inflammation
D. Inflammation
What is the primary site for drug storage in the body?
A. Organs
B. Adipose
C. Bone
D. Muscle
B. Adipose
Allopurinol, which reduces the production or uric acid in the body, is commonly used to treat:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Headaches
D. Gout
D. Gout
An artery and vein that are surgically connected in patients who are undergoing hemodialysis is termed:
A. An arteriovenous fistula
B. An arteriovenous graft
C. An arteriovenous fusion
D. An arteriovenous catheter
A. An arteriovenous fistula
Which scale would most likely be utilized to grade a diabetic foot ulcer based on wound depth and the presence of infection.
A. Wagner ulcer grade classification system
B. Red-yellow-black system
C. National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel Pressure ulcer grading system
D. Braden scale
A. Wagner ulcer grade classification system
The primary goal for managing s stage 1 pressure injury would be to:
A. Remove or relive pressure from the affected area
B. Protect the surrounding tissue by absorbing exudate
C. Maintain a moist wound bed
D. Increase circulation
A. Remove or relive pressure from the affected area
Which term best describe the drying out or dehydration of a wound?
A. Dehiscence
B. Desiccation
C. Desquamation
D. Maceration
B. Desiccation
Which of the following inflammatory mediators is responsible for causing pain in an acute wound?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Phagocytes
D. Renin
B. Prostaglandins
Which segment of thee population has the greatest risk of experiencing potentially adverse drug interactions?
A. Infants
B. Teenagers
C. Young adults
D. Elderly
D. Elderly
Which form of cancer develops from muscle, bone, fat, or connective tissue?
A. Myeloma
B. Lymphoma
C. Carcinoma
D. Sarcoma
D. Sarcoma
Which of the following correctly states the expected blood gas measurements in a patient with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
A. Decrease pH, decreased HCO3, and decrease PCO2
B. Elevated pH, elevated HCO3, and elevated PCO2
C. Elevated pH and elevated HCO3, normal PCO2
D. Decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2
D. Decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2
A lack of or inability to use vitamin D is often associated with?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteopenia
D. Chondromalacia
B. Osteomalacia
The technique of applying ointment to thee skin without the use of dressings is known as:
A. Sterile technique
B. Clean technique
C. Open technique
D. Closed technique
C. Open technique
Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the:
A. Upper arm
B. Abdominal wall
C. Thigh
D. Chest wall
B. Abdominal wall
Which of the following pathologies is not associated with left upper quadrant pain?
A. Kidney stone
B. Spleen injury
C. Pneumonia
D. Gastric ulcer
A. Kidney stone
Which term is the most appropriate to describe the resection of a portion of the colon?
A. Cholecystectomy
B. Cholecystitis
C. Cholostomy
D. Colectomy
D. Colectomy
The he embryonic layer that will become the skin during development is the:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Tegaderm
A. Ectoderm
Which term best describes the relative speed with which the skin resumes its normal appearance after being lightly pinched?
A. Friable
B. Turgor
C. Desquamation
D. Hyperrgranuulation
B. Turgor
Thinning of the cervix is most accurately called:
A. Dilation
B. Lochia
C. Effacement
D. Menstruation
C. Effacement
Which of the following would be the most appropriate type of wound dressing to place over an intravenous access site?
A. Hydrocolloid dressing
B. Transparent film dressing
C. Non-adhereent gauze dressiing
D. Foam dressing
B. Transparent film dressing
Which of the following is a skin graft that has a waffle appearance and stretches over a large wound area?
A. Mesh graft
B. Full0-thickness skin graft
C. Sheet graft
D. Lamellar graft
A. Mesh graft
What is the term given to the kyphotic deformity resulting from postmenopausal
osteoporosis?
A. Round back
B. Hump back
C, Dowager’s hump
D. Gibbus deformity
C, Dowager’s hump
What stage of lymphedema is characterized by the transition from pitting to non-pitting edema?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
C. 2 - Stage 2 lymphedema is known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. In this stage, the edema is non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest.
Which of the following is characterized by progressive, chronic inflammation of the liver with loss of normal tissue that is replaced by fibrosis?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Hepatitis
C. Jaundice
D. Hepatic Encephalopathy
B. Hepatitis
What is the bacterial agent commonly responsible for skin infection?
A. Gonococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
What type of drug binds to a specific receptor and initiates a maximal response within the body?
A. Agonist
B. Competitive antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Noncompetitive antagonist
A. Agonist
What is the term used to describe the thickening of the skin often seen in patients with lymphedema?
A. Papilloma
B. Hyperkeratosis
C. Hemosiderin staining
D. Keloid
B. Hyperkeratosis
What type of disorder is characterized by physical complaints of a neurological basis without any underlying cause?
A. Anxiety disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Phobia disorder
D. Schizophrenia disorder
B. Conversion disorder
A nonblanchable red area of intact skin over the sacrum is best described as?
A. Stage 1 pressure injury
B. High risk for pressure injury
C. Stage 2 pressure injury
D. Unstageable pressure injury
A. Stage 1 pressure injury
“Moon face” and “buffalo hump” fat deposits are characteristic of?
A. Chronic alcohol abuse
B. Chronic cardiovascular problems
C. Excess corticosteroids
D. Hypothyroidism
C. Excess corticosteroids
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with Helicobacter Pylori?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Dysphagia
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
B. Gastric ulcers
Dysfunction of the detrusor muscle is a common cause of:
A. Urge incontinence
B. Overactive bladder
C. Anal incontinence
D. Overdistended bladder
A. Urge incontinence
Which diagnosis would be most likely to negatively impact the healing of a pressure injury?
A. Adhesive capsulitis
B. Rotator cuff tendonitis
C. Peripheral vascular disease
D. Emphysema
C. Peripheral vascular disease
Which of the following conditions is not considered a risk factor for developing a cystocele?
A. Childbirth (vaginal)
B. Obesity
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Advanced age
C. Urinary tract infection
Which burn classification is most likely to result in hypertrophic and keloid scarring after the healing process is complete?
A. Superficial
B. Superficial partial-thickness
C. Full-thickness
D. Deep partial-thickness
D. Deep partial-thickness
Lower extremity pain that is most prominent during sleep and awakens the patient is most consistent with:
A. Arterial insufficiency
B. Venous insufficiency
C. Diabetic neuropathy
D. Venous reflux
A. Arterial insufficiency
A pressure injury that is covered with necrotic tissue would best be classified as:
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 4
D. Unstageable
D. Unstageable
Stimulation t the posterior pituitary gland results in the secretion of which two hormones?
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
C. Luteinizing hormone and growth hormone
D. Prolactin and adrenocorticotropic hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
Which of the following terms would best describe a cat scratch on the forearm of a patient?
A. Excoriation
B. Scar
C. Fissure
D. Desquamation
A. Excoriation
Is a dysfunction where there is damage to the cerebral control that allows for urinary dysfunction. Symptoms include frequent urinary tract infections, leakage of urine, and inability to empty bladder.
A. Urinary incontinence
B. Neurogenic Bladder
C. Urinary Tract Infection
D. Chronic Renal Failure
B. Neurogenic Bladder
The loss of urine due to activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing, coughing, laughing, running, and jumping.
A. Urge urinary incontinence
B. Overflow urinary incontinence
C. Stress urinary incontinence
D. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Stress urinary incontinence
The loss of urine after a sudden, intense urge to void due to the detrusor muscle of the bladder involuntarily contracting during bladder filling. It is the most common incontinence in the geriatric population and among residents in long-term care facilities.
A. Urge urinary incontinence
B. Overflow urinary incontinence
C. Stress urinary incontinence
D. Functional urinary incontinence
A. Urge urinary incontinence
Is the loss of urine when the intra-bladder pressure exceeds the urethra’s capacity to remain closed due to urinary retention. it is caused by outflow obstruction secondary to a narrowed or obstructed urethra that results from a prolapsed pelvic organ, a stricture, an enlarged prostate, chronic constipation or neurological disease.
A. Urge urinary incontinence
B. Overflow urinary incontinence
C. Stress urinary incontinence
D. Functional urinary incontinence
B. Overflow urinary incontinence
Which pharmacological agent works by binding to histamine receptors to prevent the activated release of gastric acid into thee stomach?
A. H2 receptor antagonists
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Antacids
D. Antiemetic agents
A. H2 receptor antagonists
Which of the following is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. Glaucoma
B. Kidney inflammation
C. Lung cancer
D. Dislocated shoulder
B. Kidney inflammation
Fibromyalgia is most likely to affect?
A. 60 year old woman
B. 30 year old woman
C. 30 year old male
D. 15 year old girl
B. 30 year old woman
Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters would be most influenced by decreased acidity in the stomach and slower emptying times associated with aging?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Absorption
D. Metabolism
C. Absorption
The structure that connects the kidney to the urinary bladder is the?
A. Ureter
B. Collecting duct
C. Renal tubule
D. Urethra
A. Ureter
Which diagnosis would tend to result in low cortisol levels?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Hashimoto’s disease
D. Grave’s disease
B. Addison’s disease
Which of the following has signs and symptoms that can mimic an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. Nephritis
B. Uremia
C. Renal colic
D. Phimosis
C. Renal colic
According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the total body surface area would be allocated to the posterior surface of the bilateral legs and feet?
A. 9%
B. 18%
C. 27%
D. 36%
B. 18%
Which demographic has the greatest incidence of osteoporosis?
A. Caucasian males
B. African American males
C. Caucasian females
D. African American females
C. Caucasian females
Exophthalmos is most commonly observed in a patient with?
A. Graves Disease
B. Addison’s Disease
C. Paget’s Disease
D. Sarcoidosis
A. Graves Disease
What type of cancer is found in the bone marrow and is characterized by the production of abnormal white blood cells?
A. Lymphoma
B. Leukemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Hodgkin’s Disease
B. Leukemia
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient rehabilitating from a lumbar laminectomy. During the session the patient the patient suddenly becomes lightheaded and faint. The patient hypothesizes that this is likely a diabetic reaction since the morning was so hurried and there was not time to have breakfast. What is the MOST appropriate assistant action?
A. Provide the patient with a glass of juice or candy
B. Place the patient in a supine position and monitor the patient’s vital signs
C. Attempt to administer an insulin shot
D. Call a code
A. Provide the patient with a glass of juice or candy
