Neuromuscular Flashcards
What diagnosis is a progressive neurological disorder that results in deterioration and irreversible damage within cerebral cortex and subcortical areas of the brain. Neurons that are normally involved with acetylcholine transmission deteriorate within the cerebral cortex of the brain. The prevalence of this condition increases significantly over thee age of 80. Clinical presentation include subtle changes win memory, impaired concentration, and difficulty with new learning.
A. Alzheimer’s Disease
B. Multi-infart dementia
C. Parkinson’s Disease
D. Traumatic Brain Injury
A. Alzheimer’s Disease
It is a chronic degenerative disease that produces both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Demyelination, axonal swelling, and atrophy within the cerebral cortex, premotor areas, sensory cortex, and temporal cortex cause the symptoms of this condition. Rapid degeneration and demyelination occur in the giant pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex and affect areas off thee corticospinal tracts, cell bodies of the lower motor neurons in the gray matter, anterior horn cells. Early clinical presentation include both upper and lower motor neuron involvement. A patient with this condition will exhibit fatigue, oral motor impairment, fasciculations, spasticity, motor paralysis, and eventual respiratory paralysis. Death usually occurs due to respiratory failure.
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Muscular Dystrophy
D. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
An umbrella term used to describe a group of progressive movement disorders that result from brain damage. It is the most common cause of permanent disability in children. The etiology of this disorder may be multifactorial and is sometimes unknown. The most common causative factor of this disorder is prenatal cerebral hypoxia. It is the second most common neurological impairment seen in children (following intellectual disability). Pharmacological intervention may require anti-anxiety, anti-spasticity, and anticonvulsant medications. Physical therapy for this disorder often uses neurodevelopment treatment and sensory integration techniques.
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Muscular Dystrophy
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Cerebral Palsy
D. Cerebral Palsy
Occurs when there iis an interruption of cerebral circulation that results in cerebral insufficiency, destruction of surrounding brain tissue, and subsequent neurological deficit. The ischemia occurs from either a stroke in evolution (the infarct slowly progresses over one to two days) or as a completed stroke. This diagnosis results from prolonged ischemia to an artery within the brain. This condition can cause subsequent neurological damage relative to the size and location of the infarct.
A. Cerebrovascular Accident
B. Transient Ischemic Attack
C. Traumatic brain Injury
D. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
A. Cerebrovascular Accident
The inability to initiate movement; commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
A. Akinesia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Athetosis
A. Akinesia
Generalized weakness, typically secondary to cerebellar pathology.
A. Akinesia
B. Asthenia
C. Chorea
D. Athetosis
B. Asthenia
The inability to perform coordinated movements.
A. Akinesia
B. Chorea
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis
C. Ataxia
A condition that presents with involuntary movements combined with instability of posture. Peripheral movements occur without central stability.
A. Akinesia
B. Chorea
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis
D. Athetosis
A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on an infant. At what age should an infant begin to sit with hand support for an extended period of time.
A. 6 -7 months
B. 8 - 9 months
C. 10 - 11 months
D. 12 - 15 months
A. 6 -7 months
Movement that is very slow.
A. Akinesia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Bradykinesia
D. Bradykinesia
Movements that are sudden, random, and involuntary.
A. Dystonia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Dysmetria
C. Chorea
A form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion.
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Clonus
C. Dysmetria
D. Hemiballism
A. Clasp-knife response
A characteristic if an upper motor neuron lesion; involuntary alternating spasmodic contraction of a muscle precipitated by a quick stretch reflex. rough the range of motion.
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Clonus
C. Dysmetria
D. Hemiballism
B. Clonus
The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.
A. Dystonia
B. Dysmetria
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
D. Rigidity
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
The inability to control the range f movement and the force of muscular activity.
A. Dystonia
B. Dysmetria
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
D. Rigidity
B. Dysmetria
A muscular twitch that is caused by random dischargee of a lower motor neuron and its muscle fibers; suggests lower motor neuron disease, however can be benign.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Fasciculations
D. Fasciculations
An involuntary and violent movement of a large body part.
A. Hemiballism
B. Kinesthesia
C. Rigidity
D. Tremor
A. Hemiballism
The ability to perceive the direction and extent of movement of a joint or body part.
A. Hemiballism
B. Kinesthesia
C. Rigidity
D. Tremor
B. Kinesthesia
A form of rigidity where there is uniform and constant resistance to range of motion often associated with lesions of the basal ganglia.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Lead pipe rigidity
D. Lead pipe rigidity
A state f severe hypertonicity where a sustained muscle contraction does not allow for any movement at a specified joint.
A. Rigidity
B. Tremor
C. Lead pipe rigidity
D. Clonus
A. Rigidity
Involuntary, rhythmic, oscillatory movements secondary to a basal ganglia lesion. There are various classifications secondary to specific etiology.
A. Dysmetria
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Chorea
C. Tremor
A physical therapist assistant reporting at a team meeting indicates that a patient with a spinal cord injury should be able to perform household ambulation using knee-ankle -foot orthoses (KAFs) and forearm crutches upon discharge. The patient’s quadriceps strength is currently Fair (3/5). What level of spinal cord injury is the MOST likely based on the assistant’s prediction.
A. L1
B. L3
C. L5
D. S1
B. L3
A physical therapist assistant consults with a teacher regarding a child with autism who has impairments in sensory processing. Which of the following pieces of equipment would be the MOST useful to address the child’s dyspraxia.
A. Swing
B. Weighted vest
C. Sit and spin
D. Rocking chair
B. Weighted vest
A patient who has a spinal cord injury informs a physical therapist assistant that they will walk again. Which type of injury would make functional ambulation the LEAST realistic?
A. Complete T9 paraplegia
B. Posterior cord syndrome
C. Brown-Sequard’s syndrome
D. Cauda equina injury
A. Complete T9 paraplegia
Paralysis of which nerve gives rise to scapular winging?
A. Suprascapular Nerve
B. Long thoracic Nerve
C. Subscapular Nerve
D. Thoracodorsal Nerve
B. Long thoracic Nerve
Which nerve is tested with the gag reflex?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Facial
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Abducens
C. Glossopharyngeal
Which nerve root, if injured, would produce paresthesia in the thumb and index finger?
A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8
B. C6
Which stage of the Rancho Los-Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale is characterized by the patient showing goal-directed behavior dependent on external cues and the ability to relearn simple tasks?
A. Level III - Localized response
B. Level IV - Confused-agitated
C. Level V - Confused-Inappropriate
D. Level VI - Confused-Appropriate
D. Level VI - Confused-Appropriate
In standing, which muscle group would initially respond to a small anterior perturbation.
A. Dorsiflexors
B. Plantar flexors
C. Hip flexors
D. Hip extensors
B. Plantar flexors
When testing vibration sensation, which type of tuning fork is standardly used?
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 512 Hz
D. 1024 Hz
A. 128 Hz
Which of the following condition is describe as “sensory-sparing?”
A. T10 spinal cord injury
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Which of the following areas of the brain plays a primary role in coordination and motor behavior?
A. Brainstem
B. Diencephalon
C. Cerebellum
D. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
Which of the following is not commonly associated with Down Syndrome?
A. Intellectual disability
B. Increased susceptibility too infection
C. Vision or hearing impairments
D. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Sinemet is most commonly prescribed too treat which disease?
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Cerebral palsy
C. Parkinson’s disease
In what level of arousal would an individual only respond to strong, noxious stimuli, and return to an unconscious state when the stimulus is stopped?
A. Lethargic
B. Obtunded
C. Stupor
D. Coma
C. Stupor
Which lobes of thee cerebrum are most closely associated with Wernicke’s area?
A. Frontal and temporal lobes
B. Occipital and frontal lobes
C. Parietal and occipital lobes
D. Temporal and parietal lobes
D. Temporal and parietal lobes
Which muscle is innervated by thee femoral nerve?
A. Adductor longus
B. Iliopsoas
C. Quadriceps femoris
D. Hamstrings
C. Quadriceps femoris
A physical therapist assistant completes a coordination assessment on a patient with central nervous system involvement. After reviewing the results of the assessment, the assistant concludes the clinical findings are consistent with cerebellar dysfunction. Which finding is NOT associated with cerebellar dysfunction?
A. Dysmetria
B. Hypertonia
C. Ataxia
D. Nystagmus
B. Hypertonia - Cerebellar pathology is often characterized by incoordinated movement. Specific motor impairments associated with cerebellar pathology include ataxia, hypotonicity, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus, tremor, and scanning speech.
