Other Components & Core Competencies Flashcards

1
Q

What represents the largest percentage of medical errors in ED setting?

A

Medication errors

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2
Q

Classes of recommendation

A

Class I - Benefit&raquo_space;> Risk; procedure/tx SHOULD be performed/administered
Class IIa - Benefit&raquo_space; Risk; It is REASONABLE to perform procedure/administer tx
Class IIb - Benefit >/= Risk; Procedure/Tx MAY BE CONSIDERED
Class III - Risk >/= Benefit; Procedure/Tx should NOT be performed

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3
Q

Level A vs. Level B vs. Level C recommendations

A

Level A: multiple populations evaluated and data derived from multiple RCTs or meta-analyses

Level B: limited populations evaluated and data derived from a single RCT or non-randomized studies

Level C: very limited populations evaluated and only consensus opinion of experts, case studies, or standard of care

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4
Q

Which clinical decision rule commonly used in emergency medicine practice meets Level 1 criteria for ease of use, rate of use, and effect on patient satisfaction?

A

Ottawa Ankle rules

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5
Q

Level I Trauma Center Categorization

A
  • Highest level of surgical care to trauma patients
  • Regional referral center
  • Required to have full range of specialists available 24 hours a day
  • Capacity to provide advanced, tertiary care
  • Research program
  • Provides public education
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6
Q

Level II Trauma Center Categorization

A
  • Works in collaboration with a Level I center
  • Capable of providing definitive care similar to Level I but unable to provide as intricate treatment
  • Required to have some specialty and surgical specialists available 24 hours a day
  • Not required to have an ongoing research or a surgical residency program
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7
Q

Level III Trauma Center Categorization

A
  • Does not have the full availability of specialists but does have resources for emergency resuscitation, surgery, and intensive care of most trauma patients
  • Has transfer agreements with Level I or Level II trauma centers that provide back-up resources for the care of exceptionally severe injuries
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8
Q

Level IV Trauma Center Categorization

A
  • Provides initial evaluation, stabilization, diagnostic capabilities, and transfer to a higher level of care
  • A trauma-trained nurse is immediately available, and physicians are available upon the patient’s arrival to the ED
  • Transfer agreements exist with other trauma centers of higher levels
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9
Q

What entity is responsible for designating trauma centers and regionalization of trauma care?

A

Individual states

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10
Q

What is the definition of cost-effectiveness analysis?

A

Cost and benefits are measured independently and the relative value of an intervention measured as the additional cost to achieve an incremental health benefit is determined

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11
Q

What is cost-utility analysis?

A

A type of cost-effectiveness analysis where life expectancy, adjusted for the benefits and/or harms associated with the specific strategy, is the metric whereby effectiveness is measured

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12
Q

What is cost-benefit analysis?

A

Assigns a monetary value to health outcomes - not generally done in healthcare

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13
Q

What is cost-identification analysis?

A

Examining costs of care with the assumption that there are equal health benefits for each potential option

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14
Q

What is the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio?

A

The ratio between the difference in costs and the difference in benefits of two interventions

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15
Q

What are four different types of costs?

A

Direct medical costs
Direct nonmedical costs (e.g. transportation to hospital)
Time or indirect morbidity and mortality (e.g. lost wages from missed work)
Intangible (e.g. pain and suffering)

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16
Q

What is second victim syndrome?

A

Emotional trauma a health care worker experiences after being involved in an adverse patient event

17
Q

Number needed to treat equation

A

1/[(c/(c+d)) - (a/(a+b))]

Inverse of Absolute Risk Reduction

18
Q

What is the odds ratio?

A

The chance of having the outcome of each group

A/b)/(c/d

19
Q

What is the relative risk?

A

Ratio of the experimental group to the control group

A/a+b) / (c/c+d

20
Q

What is positive predictive value

A

TP/TP + FP

21
Q

What is negative predictive value

A

TN/TN+FN

22
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

TP/TP+FN

23
Q

What is specificity?

A

TN/TN+FP

24
Q

Primary vs. secondary vs. tertiary prevention

A

Primary: no disease, prevent dz well before it develops and reduce risk factors

Secondary: Early detection of disease

Tertiary: treat established disease to prevent deterioration, or modifying risk factors of current disease

25
Q

What is type I error?

A

Also called alpha
Occurs when an apparent difference between two tx groups is found during the course of a study, when the intervention actually had no real effect

Null hypothesis incorrectly rejected

26
Q

How does type I error arise?

A

When bias is introduced into a study or confounding variables are not accounted for during the design or analysis phases

27
Q

What is type II error?

A

Also called beta error
Presumption that no difference exists between treatment groups when a difference does actually exist

Null hypothesis incorrectly accepted

28
Q

What is the student t-test

A

Used to compare continuous variables (such as HR, BP or RR) between two groups and assumes data in both groups have a normal distribution and equal variance

29
Q

What is Wilcoxon rank-sum (i.e. Mann-Whitney U) test

A

Compares continuous variables (HR, BP, RR) between two groups, but does not require data to be normally distributed (as the student t-test does)

30
Q

What statistical test can be used to determine if a data set is normally distributed?

A

Shapiro-Wilk test

31
Q

Exclusions for organ donation

A
  • Severe untreated systemic sepsis
  • AIDS
  • Active viral hepaptis B or C, CMV, West Nile, rabies, disseminated TB, zika virus (treated hep c okay)
  • Viral encephalitis
  • Active extracranial malignancy
  • Risk of rare viral or prion protein illness
  • Recipients of cadaver human pituitary growth hormone
  • Undiagnosed acute or progressive neurological disorder with or without dementia
32
Q

Can patients with HIV donate organs?

A

Yes as long as they go to an HIV-positive recipient

33
Q

What provides liability coverage for a physician after their policy expires or is canceled?

A

Tail coverage - covers for medical incidents that occur during policy period, even if claim is filed after policy has expired or has been canceled

34
Q

Medical examiner investigations

A
  • Public health dangers
  • Prisoners
  • Violence
  • Unusual, suspicious manner
  • Children
35
Q

Most prevalent type of malpractice claim made in the US against emergency department providers?

A

Missed or delayed diagnosis

36
Q

4 elements of negligence

A
  1. Duty to perform with reasonable care
  2. Failure to perform that duty as a reasonable practitioner
  3. Some damage or injury must occur
  4. A causal relationship must exist between the failure to perform and the alleged injury