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LECOM Pharm 1-Liners > Other 1-Liners > Flashcards

Other 1-Liners Flashcards

1
Q

NSAID avoided in gout because low doses increases uric acid levels

A

Aspirin

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2
Q

The selective agents lose their selectivity at

A

high doses

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3
Q

Routes of administration of heparin

A

IV and subQ

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4
Q

Common side effect of hypnotic agents

A

Sedation

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5
Q

Anti-seizure medication also used in the prevention of migraines

A

Valproic acid

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6
Q

Another pneumonic for anticholinergic toxicity

A

“dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, blind as a bat”

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7
Q

Clinical response that may fluctuate in tx of Parkinson’s dx

A

“On-off-phenomenon”

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8
Q

Antidote used for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% O2 and hyperbaric O2

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9
Q

Usual time needed for full effect of antidepressant therapy

A

2 to 3 weeks

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10
Q

Period of time of therapy after which GC therapy will need to be tapered

A

5-7 days

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11
Q

Pyrimidine analog that causes “Thiamine-less death” given with leucovorin rescue

A

5-flouracil (5-FU)

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12
Q

Analog of hypoxanthine, needs HGPRTase for activation

A

6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)

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13
Q

Block glycoprotein IIb/IIIa involved in platelet cross-linking

A

Abciximab, tirofiban and eptifibatide

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14
Q

Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, sweating, weakness, gooseflesh, nausea, and vomiting, tremor, muscle jerks, and hyperpnea are signs of this syndrome

A

Abstinence syndrome

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15
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor associated with elevation of LFT’s

A

Acarbose

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16
Q

Examples of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (AGI)

A

Acarbose, miglitol

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17
Q

Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

A

ACE inhibitors

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18
Q

These beta blockers are less lipid soluble

A

Acebutolol and atenolol

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19
Q

This diuretic decreases aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3- ion. Causes drowsiness and paresthesias, alkalinization of the urine may precipitate calcium salts, hypokalemia, acidosis

A

Acetazolamide

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20
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

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21
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes ligand gated ion channels

A

Acetylcholine, nicotine

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22
Q

Clinical use for H2 blockers

A

Acid reflux disease, duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease

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23
Q

Drugs available in combination with metformin

A

Acroplus Met progutazone and metformin, Janumet and Janumet XR Sitagliptin and Metformin, Glyburide, glipizide, and rosiglitazone

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24
Q

MOA of AGI’s

A

Act on intestine, delay absorption of glucose

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25
Q

Adenosine’s MOA

A

Activates acetylcholine sensitive K+ channels in SA and AV node

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26
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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27
Q

The most common type of drug interaction of sedative hypnotics with other depressant medications

A

Additive CNS depression

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28
Q

DOC for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

A

Adenosine

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29
Q

Anti-arrhythmic with <10 second duration of action

A

Adenosine

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30
Q

Neurotoxicity with isoniazid (INH) prevented by

A

Administration of Vit. B6 (pyridoxine)

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31
Q

MOA for Valproic acid at high doses

A

Affect calcium, potassium, and sodium channels

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32
Q

Strength of interaction between drug and its receptor

A

Affinity

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33
Q

Carbamazepine may cause

A

Agranulocytosis

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34
Q

Short acting Beta 2 agonists that is drug of choice in treatment of acute asthma but not recommended for prophylaxis

A

Albuterol

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35
Q

Agent that is teratogen and causes a fetal syndrome

A

Alcohol

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36
Q

Rate limiting step of alcohol metabolism

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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37
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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38
Q

Available bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate, etidronate, risedronate, pamidronate, tiludronate, and zoledronic acid

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39
Q

Method to reduce salicylate intoxication

A

Alkalinize urine, dialysis

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40
Q

MOA of cisplatin

A

Alkylating agent

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41
Q

Some cell cycle non-specific drugs

A

Alkylating agents (eg., mechlorethamine, cyclophosphamide), antibiotics (doxorubicin, daunorubicin), cisplatin, nitrosourea

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42
Q

Drug used concurrently with toxic anticancer agents to reduce renal precipitation of urates

A

Allopurinol

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43
Q

Benzodiazepines that are the most effective in the treatment of panic disorder

A

Alprazolam and Clonazepam

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44
Q

MOA of gold salts

A

Alter activity of macrophages and suppress phagocytic activity of PMNs

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45
Q

Enhances dopaminergic neurotransmission SE’s include CNS excitation, acute toxic psychosis and livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

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46
Q

Antidote for thrombolytics

A

Aminocaproic acid

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47
Q

Inhibits conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone therefore inhibiting corticosteroid synthesis

A

Aminoglutethimide

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48
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

A

Amiodarone

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49
Q

Antiarrhythmic effective in most types of arrhythmia

A

Amiodarone

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50
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, a hypnotic, and has marked antimuscarinic effects

A

Amitriptyline

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51
Q

Antidepressant associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Amoxapine

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52
Q

Phenylisopropylamines that are used legitimately and abused for narcolepsy, attention deficit disorder, and weight reduction

A

Amphetamines

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53
Q

Tolerance is marked and abstinence syndrome occurs

A

Amphetamines

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54
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors that increase mortality and have been found to have NO beneficial effects

A

Amrinone and milrinone

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55
Q

Neurologic SE of benzodiazepines

A

Anterograde amnesia

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56
Q

Toxicity of anticholinergics

A

Anti-DUMBBELSS

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57
Q

Four main actions of NSAIDS

A

Anti-inflammatory, analgesia, antipyretic and antiplatelet activity

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58
Q

SE for Felbamate

A

Aplastic anemia and acute hepatic failure

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59
Q

SE of penicillamine

A

Aplastic anemia and renal

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60
Q

Selective alpha agonists that decreases aqueous secretion

A

Apraclonidine, brimonidine

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61
Q

Primary endogenous substrate for Nitric Oxidase Synthase

A

Arginine

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62
Q

Nitroprusside vasodilates

A

Arteries and veins

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63
Q

Inhibit synaptic activity of primary afferents and spinal cord pain transmission neurons

A

Ascending pathways

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64
Q

Agent used to treat MI and to reduce incidence of subsequent MI

A

Aspirin

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65
Q

Cutaneous flush due to niacin can be reduced by pretreatment with

A

Aspirin

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66
Q

Irreversible, nonselective COX inhibitor

A

Aspirin (or other salicylates)

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67
Q

Difference between aspirin and other NSAIDS

A

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase

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68
Q

Drugs used in the management of angina

A

Aspirin, Nitrates, CCB, and Beta blockers

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69
Q

Beta-blockers should be used cautiously in

A

Asthma (bronchospastic effects), diabetes (block signs of hypoglycemia) and peripheral vascular disease

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70
Q

Agent undergoing Hofmann elimination (breaking down spontaneously)

A

Atracurium

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71
Q

Digoxin is used in

A

Atrial fibrillation and CHF

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72
Q

Treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

A

Atropine

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73
Q

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

A

Autacoids

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74
Q

Drug of choice for Legionnaires’ disease

A

Azithromycin (or macrolides)

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75
Q

HIV med used to reduce transmission during birth

A

AZT (zidovudine)

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76
Q

Lactam that can be used in PCN allergic patients

A

Aztreonam

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77
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics are

A

B-blockers

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78
Q

Anti-arrhythmics that decrease mortality

A

B-blockers

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79
Q

GABA agonist in the spinal cord

A

Baclofen

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80
Q

Site of action for zaleplon and zolpidem

A

Benzodiazepine receptor BZ1 (although are not considered benzodiazepines)

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81
Q

Agent decreases the excitatory actions of cholinergic neurons. May improve tremor and rigidity but have LITTLE effect on bradykinesia. Atropine-like side effects

A

Benztropine

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82
Q

Antidote for severe CV toxicity of theophylline

A

Beta blockers

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83
Q

Clinical uses of these agents include treatment of HTN, angina, arrhythmias, and chronic CHF

A

Beta blockers

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84
Q

Toxicity of these agents include bradycardia, AV blockade, exacerbation of acute CHF, signs of hypoglycemia may be masked (tachycardia, tremor, and anxiety)

A

Beta blockers

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85
Q

Used for the symptomatic treatment of thyrotoxicosis by blocking cardiac adverse effects

A

Beta-blockers such as propranolol and esmolol

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86
Q

These agents increase blood flow and may be beneficial in treatment of acute heart failure and some types of shock

A

Beta1 agonists

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87
Q

Long acting GC’s

A

Betamethasone, dexamethasone, and paramethasone

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88
Q

Decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol

A

Bile acid-binding resins

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89
Q

Cholestyramine and colestipol are

A

Bile acid-binding resins

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90
Q

MOA of nystatin

A

Bind ergosterol in fungal cell membrane

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91
Q

The fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation after administration

A

Bioavailability (F)

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92
Q

SE of both warfarin and heparin

A

Bleeding

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93
Q

Some cell cycle specific anti-cancer drugs

A

Bleomycin, vinca alkaloids, antimetabolites (eg., 5-FU, 6-MP, methotrexate, etoposide)

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94
Q

MOA of penicillin

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage

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95
Q

MOA of local anesthetics (LA’s)

A

Block voltage-dependent sodium channels

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96
Q

Side effect of demeclocycline

A

Bone marrow and teeth discoloration for children under 8 years of age

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97
Q

Peptide causing increased capillary permeability and edema

A

Bradykinin and histamine

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98
Q

Ergot alkaloid that is a partial agonist at D2 receptors in the brain, used for patients who are refractory or cannot tolerate levodopa, causes erythromelalgia

A

Bromocriptine

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99
Q

Partial opioid agonist, considered a strong analgesic, has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

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100
Q

Agent that is a partial agonist for the 5-HT1A receptor

A

Buspirone

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101
Q

Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder, NOT effective in acute anxiety

A

Buspirone

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102
Q

Withdrawal from this drug causes lethargy, irritability, and headache

A

Caffeine

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103
Q

Used especially in postmenopausal women, dosage should be 1500 mg

A

Calcium

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104
Q

Block L-type calcium channel

A

Calcium channel blockers

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105
Q

MOA of class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers

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106
Q

MOA for Ethosuximide

A

Calcium channels

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107
Q

Used for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis in women

A

Calcium reguators Bisphosphonates: alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate, Estrogen (HRT-Hormone replacement therapy)

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108
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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109
Q

Anti-seizure agent that induces formation of liver drug-metabolism enzymes, is teratogen and can cause craniofacial anomalies and spina bifida

A

Carbamazepine

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110
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used as alternative drugs for mood stabilization

A

Carbamazepine, gabapentin, lamotrigine, and valproic acid

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111
Q

PCN active against pseudomonas

A

Carbenicillin, piperacillin and ticarcillin

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112
Q

This is combined with L-dopa, inhibits DOPA decarboxylase (active only peripherally) which allows lower effective doses of L-dopa and allows for fewer SE’s (GI distress, postural hypotension, and dyskinesias)

A

Carbidopa

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113
Q

Agent similar to cisplatin, less nephrotoxic, but greater myelosuppression

A

Carboplatin

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114
Q

Lithium is associated with this congenital defect

A

Cardiac anomalies and is contraindicated in pregnancy or lactation

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115
Q

Nitrosoureas with high lipophilicity, used for brain tumors

A

Carmustine (BCNU) and lomustine (CCNU)

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116
Q

Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

Cartilage damage

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117
Q

Agent used in CHF that is a selective alpha and nonselective beta blocker

A

Carvedilol

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118
Q

Cephalosporins able to cross the BBB

A

Cefixime (2nd) and 3rd generation

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119
Q

Cephalosporin causes kernicterus in neonates

A

Ceftriaxone or cefuroxime

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120
Q

Drug that selectively inhibits COX 2

A

Celecoxib

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121
Q

Newer NSAIDs that selectively inhibit COX-2

A

Celecoxib

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122
Q

Class of antibiotics that have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

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123
Q

SE of tPA

A

Cerebral hemorrhage

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124
Q

Major SE of bisphosphonates

A

Chemical esophagitis

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125
Q

Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

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126
Q

Longer acting benzodiazepines used in the management of withdrawal states of alcohol and other drugs

A

Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam

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127
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

A

Chlorpheniramine

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128
Q

Sulfonylurea NOT recommended for elderly because of very long half life

A

Chlorpropamide

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129
Q

First generation sulfonylurea

A

Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, tolazamide, etc.

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130
Q

During Phase I these agents worsen the paralysis by succinylcholine, but during phase II they reverse the blockade produced by succinylcholine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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131
Q

Reversal of blockade by neuromuscular blockers

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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132
Q

Regimen used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

CHOP (cyclophosphamide, oncovin(vincristine), doxorubicin and prednisone), rituximab (rituxan)

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133
Q

Toxicities include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, leading to a severe interaction with aminoglycosides

A

Cisplatin

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134
Q

Except for these agents all SSRI have significant inhibition of CytP450 enzymes

A

Citalopram and its metabolite escitalopram

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135
Q

Class of anti-arrhythmics that has a pro-arrhythmic effect (CAST trial), therefore are used as last line agents

A

Class IC (flecainide, propafenone, moricizine)

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136
Q

Beta blockers are used for which type of anginal attack

A

Classic

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137
Q

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its plasma concentration

A

Clearance (CL)

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138
Q

Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

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139
Q

Antiestrogen drugs used for fertility and breast cancer respectively

A

Clomiphene and tamoxifen

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140
Q

TCA used in obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), most significant of TCA’s for risk of seizure, weight gain, and neuropsychiatric signs and symptoms

A

Clomipramine

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141
Q

Example of three antidepressants that are indicated for obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine, fluoxetine and fluvoxamine

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142
Q

Benzodiazepine that has efficacy against absence seizures and in anxiety states, such as agoraphobia

A

Clonazepam

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143
Q

Presynaptic Alpha 2 agonist used in HTN

A

Clonidine, and methyldopa

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144
Q

Effective in preventing TIA’s

A

Clopidogrel and ticlopidine

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145
Q

Regimen used for breast cancer

A

CMF (cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, and fluorouracil) and tamoxifen if ER+

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146
Q

Additive effects when Sedative-Hypnotics used in combination with these agents

A

CNS depressants

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147
Q

Most important toxic effects of most local anesthetics

A

CNS toxicity

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148
Q

Local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property, favored for head, neck, and pharyngeal surgery

A

Cocaine

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149
Q

Commonly abused LA which has cardiovascular toxicity including severe hypertension with cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac arrhythmias, and myocardial infarction

A

Cocaine

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150
Q

Overdoses of this agent with powerful vasoconstrictive action may result in fatalities from arrhythmias, seizures, respiratory depression, or severe HTN (MI and stroke)

A

Cocaine “super-speed”

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151
Q

These LA’s have surface activity

A

Cocaine and benzocaine

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152
Q

Three C’s associated with TCA toxicity

A

Coma, Convulsions, Cardiac problems (arrhythmias and wide QRS)

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153
Q

Constant low dose of estrogen and increasing dose of progestin for 21 days (last 5 days are sugar pills or iron prep)

A

Combination oral contraceptives (OC)

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154
Q

Ability to bind reversibly to the same site as the drug and without activating the effector system

A

Competitive antagonist

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155
Q

Drugs that can be used for infantile spasms

A

Corticosteroids

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156
Q

Short acting GC’s

A

Cortisone and hydrocortisone (equivalent to cortisol)

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157
Q

Difference between COX 1 and COX 2

A

COX 1 is constitutive while COX 2 may be induced during inflammation, although COX 2 is constitutive in some tissues

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158
Q

Plasma concentration of a drug at a given time

A

Cp

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159
Q

Toxicity caused by nitroprusside and treatment

A

Cyanide toxicity treated with sodium thiosulfate

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160
Q

Agent used for acute muscle spasm

A

Cyclobenzaprine

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161
Q

Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

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162
Q

H1 blocker that is also a serotonin antagonist

A

Cyproheptadine

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163
Q

Anti-androgen used for hirsutism in females

A

Cyproterone acetate

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164
Q

Drug used in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

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165
Q

Drug of choice for leprosy

A

Dapsone

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166
Q

Most inhaled anesthetics SE

A

Decrease arterial blood pressure

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167
Q

MOA of metformin

A

Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption; increase insulin sensitivity

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168
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline

A

Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA to A site

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169
Q

Antidote used for iron salt toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

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170
Q

Chelating agent used in acute iron toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

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171
Q

Antivirals that are teratogens

A

Delavirdine, efavirenz, and ribavirin

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172
Q

An early generation tetracyclin that may be used for chronic persistant SIADH

A

demeclocycline

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173
Q

Common mechanism by which overdose result in death

A

Depression of medullary and cardiovascular centers

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174
Q

SE of gold salts

A

Dermatitis of the mouth aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis

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175
Q

Pungent inhaled anesthetic which leads to high incidence of coughing and vasospasm

A

Desflurane

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176
Q

ADH agonist used for central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

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177
Q

Amphetamine agents

A

Dextroamphetamines and methamphetamine

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178
Q

These agents are used as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan, Codeine

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179
Q

Benzodiazepine with useful relaxant effects in skeletal muscle spasticity of central origin

A

Diazepam

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180
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

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181
Q

Facilitates GABA presynaptic inhibition

A

Diazepam

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182
Q

Agents having active metabolites, long half lives, and a high incidence of adverse effects

A

Diazepam, Flurazepam, chlordiazepoxide, and clorazepate

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183
Q

Reduce transient hyper GI motility

A

Dicyclomine, methscopolamine

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184
Q

Anti-viral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis

A

Didanosine

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185
Q

Antidote for digoxin toxicity

A

Digibind

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186
Q

Antidote used for digitalis toxicity

A

Digibind (also need to d/c digoxin, normalize K+, and lidocaine if pt. Is arrhythmic)

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187
Q

Drug used supraventricular arrhythmias

A

Digoxin

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188
Q

H1 antagonist used in motion sickness

A

Dimenhydrinate and other 1st generation

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189
Q

Antidote for arsenic, mercury, and gold poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

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190
Q

Antidote for severe lead poisoning (with encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol AND CaEDTA (edetate calcium disodium)

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191
Q

Antidote used for lead poisoning (without encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol, Edetate calcium disodium, or succimer

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192
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

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193
Q

These agents are used as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate, Loperamide

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194
Q

Prevents thrombosis in patients with artificial heart valve

A

Dipyridamole

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195
Q

Agent used in the treatment of alcoholism, if alcohol is consumed concurrently, acetaldehyde builds up and results in nausea, headache, flushing, and hypotension

A

Disulfiram

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196
Q

Metronidazole SE if given with alcohol

A

Disulfiram-like reaction

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197
Q

Agents that inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

Disulfiram, metronidazole, certain sulfonylureas and cephalosporins

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198
Q

Beta 1 agonists used in acute CHF

A

Dobutamine and dopamine

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199
Q

5ht-3 antagonist that has been MOST associated with QRS and QTc prolongation and should not be used in patients with heart disease

A

Dolasetron

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200
Q

These agents are congeners of Amphetamine

A

DOM, STP, MDA, and MDMA “ecstasy”

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201
Q

TCA with greatest sedation of this group, and marked antimuscarinic effects, used for sleep

A

Doxepin

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202
Q

Antiglaucoma organophosphate, indicated but not used much clinically anymore due to long duration of action

A

Echothiophate

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203
Q

Dose which produces therapeutic response in 50% of the poopulation

A

ED50

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204
Q

SE of Thiazolindinediones

A

Edema, mild anemia; interaction with drugs that undergo CytP450 3A4 metabolism; if used over one year, bladder Cancer; with CHF, may cause new or worsening CHF

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205
Q

Indirect-Acting ACh Agonist, alcohol, short DOA and used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

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206
Q

Population group especially sensitive to side effects of antidepressants

A

Elderly patients

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207
Q

Inhaled anesthetics are myocardial depressants

A

Enflurane and halothane

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208
Q

Inhibitors of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), used as adjuncts in Parkinson’s dx and cause acute hepatic failure (monitor LFT’s)

A

Entacapone and Tolcapone

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209
Q

Long acting sympathomimetic, sometimes used to improve urinary continence in children and elderly with enuresis

A

Ephedrine

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210
Q

This is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

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211
Q

Nonselective alpha agonists that decrease aqueous production and increase aqueous outflow

A

Epinephrine, dipivefrin

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212
Q

Antidote used for beta agonist toxicity (eg. Metaproterenol)

A

Esmolol

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213
Q

This parenteral beta blocker is a short acting

A

Esmolol

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214
Q

Used intravenously for acute arrhythmias during surgery

A

Esmolol

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215
Q

Slightly increased risk of breast cancer, endometrial cancer, heart disease (questionable), has beneficial effects on bone loss

A

Estrogen

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216
Q

Antidote used for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Ethanol

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217
Q

Agent that competes for alcohol dehydrogenase in the case of methanol overdose

A

Ethanol

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218
Q

Agent with zero-order kinetics

A

Ethanol, theophylline, tolbutamide, warfarin, aspirin, phenytoin

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219
Q

Estrogen mostly used in oral contraceptives (OC)

A

Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol

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220
Q

Bisphosphonates that cannot be used on continuous basis because it caused osteomalacia

A

Etidronate

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221
Q

The most important sign of withdrawal syndrome

A

Excessive CNS stimulation (seizures)

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222
Q

Class of drugs that works by inhibiting absorption of intestinal cholesterol and can be given concurrently with the Statins

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

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223
Q

Agent to treat hypochromic microcytic anemias

A

Ferrous sulfate

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224
Q

5 alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride (Proscar and Propecia respectively)

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225
Q

Generation of antihistamine that has the most CNS effects

A

First generation due to being more lipid-soluble

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226
Q

Constant percentage of drug metabolized per unit time

A

First order kinetics

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227
Q

The elimination of drug that occurs before it reaches the systemic circulation

A

First pass effect

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228
Q

SE of AGI’s

A

Flatulence (do not use beano to tx), diarrhea, abdominal cramps

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229
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Fludrocortisone and deoxycorticosterone

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230
Q

Toxic to the liver, kidney, lungs, bone marrow, peripheral nerves, and cause brain damage in animals, sudden death has occurred following inhalation

A

Fluorocarbons and Industrial solvents

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231
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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232
Q

SSRI with long T1/2 and can be administered once weekly for maintenance, not acute tx

A

Fluoxetine

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233
Q

SSRI’s less likely to cause a withdrawal syndrome

A

Fluoxetine

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234
Q

SSRI indicated for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Fluoxetine (Sarafem)

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235
Q

Anti-psychotics available in depot preparation

A

Fluphenazine and haloperidol

236
Q

Anti-androgen used for prostate cancer

A

Flutamide (Eulexin)

237
Q

Drug that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and is used in ethylene glycol exposure

A

Fomepizole

238
Q

Ability of a drug to produce maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Full agonist

239
Q

Agent used neutropenia especially after chemotherapy

A

G-CSF (filgrastim) and GM-CSF (sargramostim)

240
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines and barbiturates

A

GABA-related targets

241
Q

DOC for CMV retinitis

A

Ganciclovir

242
Q

Antivirals associated with neutropenia

A

Ganciclovir, zidovudine, saquinavir, and interferon

243
Q

GnRH antagonist with more immediate effects, used for infertility

A

Ganirelix

244
Q

COX 2 inhibitors may have reduced risk of

A

Gastric ulcers and GI Bleeding

245
Q

Pneumonic for 3 zones of adrenal cortex

A

GFR

246
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia

247
Q

Ultra long acting insulin, has over a day duration of action

A

Glargine (Lantus)

248
Q

Epinephrine and dipivefrin are used for

A

Glaucoma

249
Q

3 zones of adrenal cortex and their products

A

Glomerulosa (mineralocorticoids), fasciculata (glucocorticoid=GC), and reticularis (adrenal androgens)

250
Q

Antidote for beta-blocker overdose and hypoglycemia

A

Glucagon

251
Q

Hyperglycemic agent that increases cAMP and results in glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, reverses hypoglycemia, also used to reverse severe beta-blocker overdose and smooth muscle relaxation

A

Glucagon

252
Q

Used for Addison’s disease, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH), inflammation, allergies, and asthma (as a local inhalation)

A

Glucocorticoids

253
Q

Name 3 Phase II conjugation reactions

A

Glucuronidation, acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glycine conjugation, sulfation, methylation, water conjugation

254
Q

Important in synthesis of glucose to glycogen in the liver

A

GLUT 2

255
Q

Important in muscle and adipose tissue for glucose transport across muscles and TG storage by lipoprotein lipase activation

A

GLUT 4

256
Q

Second generation sulfonylurea

A

Glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride, etc.

257
Q

SE seen only in men with administration of ketoconazole

A

Gynecomastia

258
Q

SE of ergot alkaloids

A

Hallucinations resembling psychosis

259
Q

Agent more frequently associated with extrapyramidal side effects that can be treated with benzodiazepine, diphenhydramine or muscarinic blocker

A

Haloperidol

260
Q

Antipsychotic having the weakest autonomic effects

A

Haloperidol

261
Q

Agents used in Tourette’s dx

A

Haloperidol or pimozide

262
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that may sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines and has produced hepatitis

A

Halothane

263
Q

Inhaled anesthetics metabolized by liver enzymes which has a major role in the toxicity of these agents

A

Halothane and methoxyflurane

264
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy

A

Heparin

265
Q

SE of heparin

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

266
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

A

Hepatic

267
Q

Most frequent route of metabolism

A

Hepatic enzymes

268
Q

Reason troglitazone was withdrawn from market

A

Hepatic toxicity

269
Q

SE of acetaminophen

A

Hepatotoxicity

270
Q

Most commonly abused in health care professionals

A

Heroin, morphine, oxycodone, meperidine and fentanyl

271
Q

Ganglion blockers that were indicated (but not anymore) for severe hypertension

A

Hexamethonium, trimethaphan

272
Q

Drugs that have a high margin of safety is indicated by

A

High therapeutic index

273
Q

Common SE of tamoxifen and raloxifene

A

Hot flashes

274
Q

Direct vasodilator of arteriolar smooth muscle

A

Hydralazine

275
Q

Prevention of cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Hydration and mercaptoethanesulfonate (MESNA)

276
Q

Interferes with activity of T-lymphocytes

A

Hydroxychloroquine

277
Q

Anti-malarial drug used in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

A

Hydroxychloroquine

278
Q

This may antagonize activity of local anesthetics

A

Hypercalcemia

279
Q

This may enhance activity of local anesthetics

A

Hyperkalemia

280
Q

Condition will result from in combination of MAOI with tyramine containing foods (ex. wine, cheese, and pickled meats)

A

Hypertensive crisis

281
Q

SE of minoxidil

A

Hypertrichosis

282
Q

Major side effect of insulin

A

Hypoglycemia

283
Q

Common SE of sulfonylureas, repaglinide, and nateglinide

A

Hypoglycemia

284
Q

Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

285
Q

Major nutritional side effect of bile acid-binding resins

A

Impair absorption of fat soluble vitamin absorption (A,D,E,K)

286
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Increase the DURATION of GABA-mediated chloride ion channels

287
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines

A

increase the FREQUENCY of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening

288
Q

Major drug interaction with Quinidine

A

Increases concentration of Digoxin

289
Q

Shock due to septicemia or myocardial infarction is made worse by

A

Increasing afterload and tissue perfusion declines

290
Q

MOA of Cardiac glycosides (eg. digoxin)

A

Indirectly increase intracellular calcium and cardiac contractility by inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase

291
Q

NSAID used in gout

A

Indomethacin, ibuprofen

292
Q

MOA of corticosteroids

A

Induce lipocortins to 1. inhibit phospholipase A2, 2. repress COX-2 gene and enzyme expression, 3. repress cytokines that activate COX-2

293
Q

Atropine fever is the most dangerous effect and can be lethal in this population group

A

Infants

294
Q

Contraindications to use of atropine

A

Infants, closed angle glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy

295
Q

Proteins that prevent action of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)

A

Infliximab and etanercept

296
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockade (NMB)

A

Inhaled anesthetics, especially isoflurane, aminoglycosides, and antiarrhythmic

297
Q

Mechanism of action of spironolactone

A

Inhibit mineralocorticoid receptor and inhibit Na/K-ATPase and ENaC synthesis

298
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport

299
Q

MOA of NSAIDS

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase (cox)

300
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin)

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to domain V of 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit

301
Q

MOA of Leflunomide (newer agent)

A

Inhibiting Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase which leads to decreased pyrimidine synthesis

302
Q

MOA of lovastatin (STATIN)

A

inhibits HMG COA reductase

303
Q

Mechanism of action of loop diuretics

A

inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter

304
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

305
Q

MOA of both generations

A

Insulin release from pancreas by modifying K+ channels

306
Q

MOA of repaglinide

A

Insulin release from pancreas; faster and shorter acting than sulfonylurea

307
Q

Used for hairy cell leukemia; it stimulates NK cells

A

Interferon alpha

308
Q

Treatment of patients with prior episodes of thrombocytopenia after a cycle of cancer chemotherapy

A

Interleukin 11 (oprelvekin)

309
Q

Can be effective for short term therapy of thyroid storm, but after several weeks of therapy causes an exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide salts (potassium iodide)

310
Q

MOA of aspirin

A

Irreversibly blocks COX1 and COX2

311
Q

Beta cells are found

A

Islets of Langerhans

312
Q

Inhaled anesthetic causes peripheral vasodilation

A

Isoflurane

313
Q

This route is associated with rapid tolerance and psychologic dependence

A

IV administration

314
Q

Drugs of choice for status epilepticus

A

IV diazepam (or lorazapam) followed by phenytoin

315
Q

This produces “dissociative anesthesia”, is a cardiovascular stimulant which may increases intracranial pressure, and hallucinations occur during recovery

A

Ketamine

316
Q

5HT2 antagonist mediate synaptic excitation in the CNS and smooth muscle contraction

A

Ketanserin, cyproheptadine, and ergot alkaloids (partial agonist of alpha and serotonin receptors)

317
Q

Antifungal agent used for inhibition of all gonadal and adrenal steroids

A

Ketoconazole

318
Q

NSAID available orally, IM, IV, nasally, and ophthalmically

A

Ketoralac

319
Q

NSAID that is used for acute condition, such as pre-op anesthesia and has limited duration (<5 days) of use due to nephrotoxicity

A

Ketoralac

320
Q

SE of colchicine

A

Kidney and liver toxicity, diarrhea, myelosuppression

321
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

A

Kidneys

322
Q

Converts asparagine to aspartate and ammonia, denies cancer cells of essential AA (asparagine)

A

L-asparaginase

323
Q

Agent used in drug therapy of Parkinson’s instead of Dopamine which has low bioavailability and does not cross the BBB

A

L-dopa

324
Q

Combined alpha and beta blocking agents that may have application in treatment of CHF

A

Labetalol and carvedilol

325
Q

Most important potential SE of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

326
Q

Dose which is lethal to 50% of the population

A

LD50

327
Q

Alternative anticoagulant used if HIT develops

A

Lepirudin

328
Q

Antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

Leucovorin

329
Q

GnRH agonist used for infertility or different types of CA depending on pulsatile or steady usage respectively

A

Leuprolide

330
Q

Anti-Parkinson’s drug which increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma

A

Levodopa

331
Q

An isomer of T3 which may be used in myxedema coma

A

Liothyronine (T3)

332
Q

Very rapid acting insulin, having fastest onset and shortest duration of action

A

Lispro (Humalog)/Apidra (glulisine)

333
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetics property

A

Liver enzyme INDUCTION

334
Q

Major SE of zileuton

A

Liver toxicity

335
Q

SE of mirtazapine

A

Liver toxicity, increased serum cholesterol

336
Q

Target plasma concentration times (volume of distribution divided by bioavailability)

A

Loading dose (Cp*(Vd/F))

337
Q

Constant proportion of cell population killed rather than a constant number

A

Log-kill hypothesis

338
Q

Treatment of withdrawal syndrome involves

A

Long-acting sedative-hypnotic or a gradual reduction of dose, clonidine or propranolol

339
Q

Diuretic used in hypertensive patients with renal failure

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide, ethacrynic acid, butmetanide)

340
Q

Benzodiazepine that undergo extrahepatic conjugation (which are useful in older or hepatically impaired)

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam

341
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and QT prolongation

A

Low potency and risperidone

342
Q

Drugs that have a narrow margin of safety is indicated by

A

Low therapeutic index

343
Q

Reduced seizure threshold

A

Low-potency typical antipsychotics and clozapine

344
Q

Antidote useful for some drug induced Torsade de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

345
Q

Agent to treat torsades de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

346
Q

Concentration in the plasma times (clearance divided by bioavailability)

A

Maintenance dose (Cp*(CL/F))

347
Q

Insecticide organophosphate

A

Malathion, parathion

348
Q

Antidepressant associated with seizures and cardiotoxicity

A

Maprotiline

349
Q

Important drug interaction with chloral hydrate

A

May displace coumadin from plasma proteins

350
Q

Alkylating agent, vesicant that causes tissue damage with extravasation

A

Mechlorethamine

351
Q

MOPP regimen used in Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

A

Mechlorethamine+ oncovorin (vincristine)+ procarbazine, and prednisone

352
Q

All opioids except this agent (which has a muscarinic blocking action) cause pupillary constriction

A

Meperidine

353
Q

Use of this opioid with MAOI can lead to hyperpyrexic coma, and with SSRI’s can lead to serotonin syndrome

A

Meperidine

354
Q

Biguanide

A

Metformin

355
Q

Treatment for opioid addiction

A

Methadone, followed by slow dose reduction

356
Q

Penicillins active against penicillinase secreting bacteria

A

Methicillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin

357
Q

Thioamide agents used in hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU)

358
Q

Causes bone marrow suppression

A

Methotrexate

359
Q

Fluoride released by metabolism of this inhaled anesthetic may cause renal insufficiency

A

Methoxyflurane

360
Q

Used for Cushing’s syndrome (increased corticosteroid) and sometimes for adrenal function test

A

Metyrapone

361
Q

Benzodiazepine that is used for anesthesia

A

Midazolam

362
Q

Benzodiazepine used adjunctively in anesthesia

A

Midazolam

363
Q

Chronic orthostatic hypotension can be treated with

A

Midodrine

364
Q

Antiprogestin used as potent antagonist of GC receptor

A

Mifepristone

365
Q

Anti-progesterone used as abortifacient

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

366
Q

Inversely related to potency of anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration (MAC)

367
Q

Oral antibiotic of choice for moderate inflammatory acne

A

Minocycline

368
Q

Arterial vasodilator that works by opening K+ channels

A

Minoxidil

369
Q

Antidepressant with MOA as alpha 2 antagonist, has effects on both 5-HT and NE, blocks histamine receptors, and is sedating

A

Mirtazapine

370
Q

Non-depolarizing antagonist has short duration

A

Mivacurium

371
Q

Most useful in patients with significant anxiety, phobic features, hypochondriasis, and resistant depression

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors

372
Q

Opioids used in anesthesia

A

Morphine and fentanyl

373
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine, methadone, meperidine, and fentanyl

374
Q

Receptors for serotonin (5HT-1) are located

A

Mostly in the brain, and they mediate synaptic inhibition via increased K+ conductance

375
Q

Agents may exacerbate tardive dyskinesias (may be irreversible and there is no treatment)

A

Muscarinic blockers

376
Q

SE for ganciclovir

A

Myelosuppression

377
Q

This beta blocker is the longest acting

A

Nadolol

378
Q

Anabolic steroid that has potential for abuse

A

Nandrolone and stanozolol

379
Q

Most common SE of fibrates

A

Nausea

380
Q

Antidepressant which is inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes and may be associated with hepatic failure

A

Nefazodone

381
Q

Carbamate with intermediate action and used as off-label for postoperative paralytic ileus and urinary retention

A

Neostigmine

382
Q

Common toxicities of cisplatin

A

Nephro and ototoxicity

383
Q

Two toxicities of aminoglycosides

A

nephro and ototoxicity

384
Q

Toxicity of amphotericin

A

Nephrotoxicity

385
Q

Agent used in acutely decompensated CHF resembling natriuretic peptide

A

Nesiritide (Natrecor)

386
Q

State of analgesia and amnesia produced when fentanyl is used with droperidol and nitrous oxide

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

387
Q

Structurally related to acetylcholine, used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artifical ventilation. Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

388
Q

SE for ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

389
Q

Anti-viral agents associated with Stephen Johnson syndrome

A

Nevirapine, amprenavir

390
Q

W/D from this drug causes anxiety and mental discomfort

A

Nicotine

391
Q

CCB with predominate effect on arteriole dilation

A

Nifedipine

392
Q

Drug used in Chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

393
Q

Antidote used for cyanide poisoning

A

Nitrites, sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin (cyanokit)

394
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin

395
Q

Nitrate used for acute anginal attacks

A

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

396
Q

IV Drug used Hypertensive Crisis

A

Nitroprusside

397
Q

Drug used in ergot alkaloids overdose, ischemia and gangrene

A

Nitroprusside

398
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with a low blood/gas partition coefficient

A

Nitrous oxide

399
Q

Inhaled anesthetics, less likely to lower blood pressure than other agents, and has the smallest effect on respiration

A

Nitrous oxide

400
Q

Prolonged exposure to this inhaled anesthetic may lead to megaloblastic anemia

A

Nitrous oxide

401
Q

Inhalant anesthetics

A

NO; chloroform; and diethyl ether

402
Q

Ability to bind irreversibly to the active site or bind to a site distinctly separate from the agonist binding site

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

403
Q

Tubocurarine is the prototype; pancuronium; atracurium; vecuronium are newer short acting agent; produce competitive block at end plate nicotinic receptor; causing flaccid paralysis

A

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular Blockers

404
Q

These prevent the action of Ach at the skeletal muscle endplate to produce a “surmountable blockade;” effect is reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (ex. neostigmine or pyridostigmine)

A

Nondepolarizing type antagonists

405
Q

Prototypical drug is atropine

A

Nonselective Muscarinic Antagonists

406
Q

Neurotransmitters affected by the action of antidepressants

A

Norepinephrine and serotonin

407
Q

Endogenous insulin

A

Normal C-peptide

408
Q

Secondary amines that have less sedation and more excitation effect

A

Nortriptyline; Desipramine

409
Q

Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit COX

A

NSAIDS

410
Q

Somatostatin (SRIF) analog used for acromegaly; carcinoid; glucagonoma and other GH producing pituitary tumors

A

Octreotide

411
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotic used for bipolar disorder; known to cause weight gain; and adversely affect diabetes

A

Olanzapine

412
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotics that also improve some of the negative symptoms and help acute agitation

A

Olanzapine and aripiprazole

413
Q

Extrapyramidal dysfunction is more common with these agents; which block this subtype of dopamine receptor

A

Older antipsychotic agents; D2 receptors

414
Q

Antipsychotics that reduce positive symptoms only

A

Older antipsychotics

415
Q

SE of these drugs include dependence; withdrawal syndrome; sedation; euphoria; respiratory depression nausea and vomiting; constipation; biliary spasm; increased ureteral and bladder tone; and reduction in uterine tone

A

Opioid Analgesics

416
Q

Route of administration of warfarin

A

Oral

417
Q

Nitrate used to prevent further attacks

A

Oral and transdermal forms of nitroglycerin

418
Q

Treatment of resistant pseudomembranous colitis

A

ORAL vancomycin

419
Q

Cause dizziness; tachycardia; hypotension; and flushing

A

Organic nitrites

420
Q

Oral contraceptive available in a transdermal patch

A

Ortho-Evra

421
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis; Paget’s disease; and osteolytic bone lesions; and hypercalcemia from malignancy

422
Q

Aminoglycosides used with loop diuretics potentiate this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

423
Q

Different steps of Phase I

A

Oxidation; reduction; hydrolysis

424
Q

Cystitis; postoperative bladder spasms; or incontinence

A

Oxybutynin; dicyclomine

425
Q

Agent can blocking muscarinic receptors

A

Pancuronium

426
Q

Some of SSRIs’ therapeutic effects beside depression

A

Panic attacks; social phobias; bulimia nervosa; and PMDD premenstrual dysphoric disorder); OCD

427
Q

Ability to produce less than maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Partial agonist

428
Q

Most dangerous of the currently popular hallucinogenic drugs; OD leads to nystagmus; marked hypertension; and seizures; presence of both horizontal and vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic

A

PCP

429
Q

Antidote used in Wilson’s disease (copper poisoning)

A

Penicillamine

430
Q

Chelating agent used in Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

431
Q

Methylxanthine derivative used as a remedy for intermittent claudication

A

Pentoxifylline

432
Q

SE of INH

A

Peripheral neuritis and hepatitis

433
Q

Approved for use in severe pulmonary HTN

A

PGI2 (epoprostenol)

434
Q

DOC for febrile seizures

A

Phenobarbital

435
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug; long acting and irreversible; and used to treat pheochromocytoma. Blocks 5-HT; so occasionaly used for carcinoid tumor. Blocks H1 and used in mastocytosis

A

Phenoxybenzamine

436
Q

Non-selective Alpha1blockers use to treat pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

437
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug; short acting and reversible; used for rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal; and Raynaud’s phenomena

A

Phentolamine

438
Q

For rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal

A

Phentolamine

439
Q

Alpha agonist used to produce mydriasis and reduce conjunctival itching and congestion caused by irritation or allergy; it does not cause cycloplegia

A

Phenylephrine

440
Q

DOC for digoxin induced arrhythmias

A

Phenytoin

441
Q

Anti-seizure agent that exhibits non-linear metabolism; highly protein bound; causes fetal hydantoin syndrome; and stimulates hepatic metabolism

A

Phenytoin

442
Q

Enzyme which theophylline inhibits

A

Phosphodiesterase

443
Q

Antidote used for anticholinergic poisoning

A

Physostigmine

444
Q

Treatment of atropine overdose and glaucoma (because lipid soluable). Enters the CNS rapidly and has a stimulant effect; which may lead to convulsions

A

Physostigmine

445
Q

Muscarinic that is very lipid soluble and used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

446
Q

Muscarinic used to treat dry mouth in Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Pilocarpine or Cevimeline

447
Q

Cholinomimetics that increase outflow; open trabecular meshwork; and cause ciliary muscle contraction

A

Pilocarpine; carbachol; physostigmine

448
Q

Beta blockers partial agonist activity (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) cause some bronchodilation and may have an advantage in treating patients with asthma

A

Pindolol and acebutolol

449
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone; Rosiglitazone; Troglitazone (withdrawn/d from market)

450
Q

Aspirin reduces mortality in unstable angina by

A

Platelet aggregation inhibition

451
Q

Type of resistance found with vancomycin

A

Point mutation

452
Q

SE of methyldopa

A

Positive Comb’s test; depression

453
Q

Activation of these receptors open K+ ion channels to cause membrane hyperpolarization

A

Postsynaptic Mu receptors

454
Q

SE of nitrates

A

Postural hypotension; reflex tachycardia; hot flashes; and throbbing headache due to meningeal artery dilation

455
Q

MOA of class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers

456
Q

Amount of drug necessary to elicit a biologic effect compared with another drug

A

Potency

457
Q

The reason why aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infection

A

Potential for development of Reye’s syndrome

458
Q

This agent competes for phosphorylated cholinesterase enzyme and regenerates enzyme if organophosphate-enzymes complex has not “aged”

A

Pralidoxime

459
Q

Non ergot agents used as first-line therapy in the initial management of Parkinson’s

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

460
Q

COX 2 inhibitors should be used cautiously in pts with

A

Pre-existing cardiac or renal disease

461
Q

Drug used in cancer therapy causes Cushing-like symptoms

A

Prednisone

462
Q

Intermediate acting GC’s

A

Prednisone; methylprednisolone; prednisolone; oaramethasone; fluprednisone and triamcinolone

463
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

464
Q

Fibrates are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

465
Q

Warfarin is contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

466
Q

LA causing methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

467
Q

Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria

A

Primaquine

468
Q

CCB are DOC for

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

469
Q

Agent used to treat chronic gout by increasing uric acid excretion through inhibition of URAT1 anion transporter

A

Probenecid

470
Q

Alkylating agent that produces disulfiram-like reaction with ethanol

A

Procarbazine

471
Q

Alpha cells in the pancreas

A

Produce glucagon

472
Q

Beta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce insulin

473
Q

Delta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce Somatostatin

474
Q

Specific pharmacokinetic characteristic of amiodarone

A

Prolonged half-life; up to six weeks

475
Q

Side effect of sotalol

A

prolongs QT and PR interval

476
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery; has antiemetic activity and commonly used for outpatient surgery; may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

477
Q

Weak opioid agonist; poor analgesic; its overdose can cause severe toxicity including respiratory depression; circulatory collapse; pulmonary edema; and seizures

A

Propoxyphene

478
Q

This beta blocker is highly lipid soluble and may account for side effects such as nightmares

A

Propranolol

479
Q

Non-selective Beta-blocker also used for migraine prophylaxis

A

Propranolol

480
Q

Agent effective in physiologic and essential tremor

A

Propranolol

481
Q

This agent cause increased aqueous outflow

A

Prostaglandin PGF2a (latanoprost; travoprost; unoprostone)

482
Q

Chronic high dose abuse of nicotine leads to

A

Psychotic state; overdose causes agitation; restlessness; tachycardia; hyperthermia; hyperreflexia; and seizures

483
Q

Treatment with cancer chemotherapy at high doses every 3-4 weeks; too toxic to be used continuously

A

Pulse therapy

484
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis and sometimes used prophylactically for organophosphate poisoning in chemical warfare

A

Pyridostigmine

485
Q

Increased risk of developing cataracts

A

Quetiapine

486
Q

Permanently cures thyrotoxicosis; patients will need thyroid replacement therapy thereafter. Contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Radioactive iodine

487
Q

Recombinant uricases that enhance uric acid metabolism

A

rasburicase; pegloticase

488
Q

SE of clonidine

A

Rebound HTN; sedation; dry mouth

489
Q

Newer alpha 2 agonist (apraclonidine and brimonidine) treat glaucoma

A

Reduce aqueous synthesis

490
Q

Sedative-Hypnotics action

A

Reduce inhibition; suppress anxiety; and produce relaxation

491
Q

Often mixed with local anesthetic to

A

Reduce the loss from area of injection

492
Q

Diuretics work in CHF by

A

Reducing preload

493
Q

Beta blockers work in CHF by

A

Reducing progression of heart failure (never use in acute heart failure)

494
Q

Rapid acting; crystalline zinc insulin used to reverse acute hyperglycemia

A

Regular (Humulin R)

495
Q

Major effect of benzodiazepines on sleep at high doses

A

REM is decreased

496
Q

Meglitinide

A

Repaglinide

497
Q

Toxic effect of anticancer drug can be lessened by rescue agents

A

Rescue therapy

498
Q

The most important cause of acute deaths in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

A

Respiratory failure

499
Q

SE of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinal destruction and dermatitis

500
Q

Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases risk of

A

Rhabdomyolysis

501
Q

SE of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

Rhabdomyolysis and Hepatotoxicity

502
Q

Atypical antipsychotic causing high prolactin levels

A

Risperidone

503
Q

Long acting beta 2 agonist used in asthma

A

Salmeterol

504
Q

Longer acting Beta 2 agonists is recommended for prophylaxis of asthma

A

Salmeterol

505
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation; anticholinergic

506
Q

SE of imipenem

A

Seizures

507
Q

MOA of Colchicine (used in acute gout)

A

Selective inhibitor of microtubule assembly

508
Q

Inhibitor of MAO type B which metabolizes dopamine; used adjunct to levodopa or as sole agent in newly diagnosed pt’s

A

Selegiline

509
Q

GHRH analog used as diagnostic agent

A

Sermorelin

510
Q

MAOI should not be administered with SSRI’s or potent TCA’s due to development of this condition

A

Serotonin syndrome

511
Q

Laboratory value required to be monitored for patients on valproic acid

A

Serum ammonia and LFT’s

512
Q

Side effect of Mitomycin

A

SEVERE myelosuppression

513
Q

All antidepressants have roughly the same efficacy in treating depression; agents are chosen based on these criterion

A

Side-effect profile and prior pt response

514
Q

Beta 1 agonist toxicity

A

Sinus tachycardia and serious arrhythmias

515
Q

Beta 2 agonist toxicity

A

Skeletal muscle tremor

516
Q

Antidote used for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

A

Sodium bicarbonate

517
Q

Mechanisms of action for Phenytoin; Carbamazepine; Lamotrigine

A

Sodium blockade

518
Q

Antidote for hyperkalemia

A

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

519
Q

Somatotropin (GH) analog used in GH deficiency (dwarfism)

A

Somatrem

520
Q

Antiarrhythmic that exhibits Class II and III properties

A

Sotalol

521
Q

Agents acting in the CNS or in the skeletal muscle; used to reduce abnormally elevated tone caused by neurologic or muscle end plate disease

A

Spasmolytic drugs

522
Q

Selectivity of a drug for its receptor

A

Specificity

523
Q

Well-tolerated and are first-line antidepressants

A

SSRI’s; bupropion; and venlafaxine

524
Q

Disease caused by excess ergot alkaloids

A

St. Anthony’s Fire

525
Q

When the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug elimination

A

Steady state

526
Q

Causes acne; premature closure of epiphyses; masculinization in females; hepatic dysfunction; MI; and increases in libido and aggression

A

Steroids

527
Q

SE for Lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

528
Q

MOA of thiazolindinediones

A

Stimulate PPAR-gamma receptor to regulate CHO and lipid metabolism

529
Q

MOA of nateglinide

A

Stimulates rapid and transient release of of insulin through closure of the ATP-sensitive K+ channel

530
Q

Thrombolytic that can cause allergic reaction

A

Streptokinase

531
Q

Aminoglycoside that is least ototoxic

A

Streptomycin

532
Q

Only member of depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; causes fasciculation during induction and muscle pain after use

A

Succinylcholine

533
Q

One depolarizing blocker that causes continuous depolarization and results in muscle relaxation and paralysis; causes muscle pain postoperatively and myoglobinuria may occur

A

Succinylcholine

534
Q

Anti-rheumatic agent also used for ulcerative colitis

A

Sulfasalazine

535
Q

Class of drugs that may cause cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

Sulfonamides

536
Q

Triptan available in parenteral and nasal formulation

A

Sumatriptan

537
Q

Drug used for African sleeping sickness

A

Suramin

538
Q

Dose which is toxic in 50% of the population

A

TD50

539
Q

Beta 2 agonist used to suppress premature labor; but cardiac stimulatory effects may be hazardous to mother and fetus

A

Terbutaline

540
Q

Agents having higher sedation and antimuscarinic effects than other TCA’s

A

Tertiary amines

541
Q

Agents used in Huntington’s Disease

A

Tetrabenazine (amine depleting drug); Haloperidol (antipsychotic)

542
Q

Longer acting local anesthetics which are less dependent on vasoconstrictors

A

Tetracaine and bupivacaine

543
Q

Drug causes teeth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

544
Q

Drug increases the renal clearance hence decreases levels of lithium

A

Theophylline

545
Q

Window between therapeutic effect and toxic effect

A

Therapeutic index

546
Q

Diuretic used as first line for treatment of hypertension

A

Thiazides

547
Q

Anti-thyroid drugs

A

Thioamides (methimazole; propylthiouracil); potassium iodide; radioactive iodine (131I)

548
Q

Barbiturate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

549
Q

IV barbiturate used as a pre-op anesthetic

A

Thiopental

550
Q

Only phenothiazine not exerting antiemetic effects; can cause visual impairment due to retinal deposits; and high doses have been associated with ventricular arrhythmias

A

Thioridazine

551
Q

SE of amrinone

A

Thrombocytopenia

552
Q

Other side effects of Quinidine

A

Thrombocytopenic purpura; and CINCHONISM

553
Q

SE of Amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction; photosensitivity; skin (blue smurf syndrome); corneal deposits; liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

554
Q

Antiplatelet drug reserved for patients allergic to aspirin

A

Ticlopidine

555
Q

SE of salicylates

A

Tinnitus; GI bleeding

556
Q

Thrombolytic used for acute MI and ischemic (non hemorrhagic) CVA

A

Tissue plasmin activator

557
Q

Similar to clonidine and may cause hypotension

A

Tizanidine

558
Q

Nitrate free intervals are needed due to

A

Tolerance

559
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used chronically or at high doses

A

Tolerance

560
Q

Agents used for SIADH

A

Tolvaptan and conivaptan

561
Q

Topical DOC in impetigo

A

Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

562
Q

Antidepressant also used for sleep that causes priapism

A

Trazodone

563
Q

Sedation is a common side effect of these drugs; they lower seizure threshold; uses include BAD; acute panic attacks; phobias; enuresis; and chronic pain and their overdose can be deadly

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

564
Q

Agent with long duration of action and is sost likely to cause histamine release

A

Tubocurarine

565
Q

MOA of general anesthetics

A

Unclear; thought to increase the threshold for firing of CNS neurons

566
Q

Removal of PCP may be aided

A

Urinary acidification and activated charcoal or continual nasogastric suction

567
Q

Major indication for H1 receptor antagonist

A

Use in IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis; urticaria)

568
Q

Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Uterine contractions

569
Q

Agent that inhibits hepatic metabolism; is hepatotoxic and teratogen that can cause neural tube defects and gastrointestinal distress

A

Valproic acid

570
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for bipolar affective disorder (BAD)

A

Valproic acid; carbamazepine; phenytoin and gabapentin

571
Q

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome; and prevention

A

Vancomycin; can be prevented by infusion
at a slow rate and antihistamines

572
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes require the administration of vasoconstrictors (ex. Epinephrine) to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

573
Q

Antidepressant having stimulant effects similar to SSRI’s and can increase blood pressure

A

Venlafaxine

574
Q

Antidepressant inhibiting norepinephrine; serotonin; and dopamine reuptake

A

Venlafaxine

575
Q

Microtubule inhibitor that causes peripheral neuropathy; foot drop (eg. ataxia); and “pins and needles” sensation

A

Vincristine

576
Q

Agent used for neurological deficits in megaloblastic anemia

A

Vitamin B12

577
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

A

Vitamin D

578
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of warfarin

A

Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma

579
Q

Relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

A

Volume of distribution (VD)

580
Q

Vitamin K dependent anticoagulant

A

Warfarin (PT)

581
Q

Selective Alpha 2 blocker used for impotence (controversial effectiveness)

A

Yohimbine

582
Q

Inhibitor of leukotrienes (LTD4) receptors and used in asthma

A

Zafirlukast and montelukast

583
Q

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time

A

Zero order kinetics

584
Q

Syndrome of hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin usually caused by gastrinoma; it is associated with severe peptic ulceration and diarrhea

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

585
Q

Good hypnotic activity with less CNS SE than most benzodiazepines

A

Zolpidem; zaleplon

LECOM Pharm 1-Liners (3 decks)

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