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NBCOT > OT Process, Ethics, Professional Standards & Responsibilities, Standars of Practice (CHs 3-4) > Flashcards

OT Process, Ethics, Professional Standards & Responsibilities, Standars of Practice (CHs 3-4) Flashcards

1
Q

The comprehensive process of obtaining and interpreting the data necessary to understand the individual, system, or situation. Includes occupational profile

A

Evaluation

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2
Q

Always same assessment content, administration, and scoring. Has established norms and validity. Has exact wording for direction giving.

A

Standardization

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3
Q

Combine major features of universal precautions and body substance isolation

A

Standard Precautions

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4
Q

Alcohol-based hand rubs have poor tolerance against what?

A

Spores (ex: C Diff), so wash hands using soap and water instead

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5
Q

Refers to transmission of infectious diseases through objects

A

Fomite transmission

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6
Q

3 categories of transmission-based precautions

A

Contact, droplet, airborne

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7
Q

Precautions employed if transmission can occur through direct client contact or through items in environment.

A

Contact Precautions

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8
Q

What are the contact precautions?

A

Isolation room, gloves, wash hands after, gown if clothes will have contact with client, use single-use equipment

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9
Q

Examples of diagnoses requiring contact precautions

A

MRSA, diarrhea, open wound

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10
Q

Precautions employed if transmission can occur through large particle droplets that can be generated by client during sneezing, coughing, talking

A

Droplet Precautions

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11
Q

Examples of droplet precautions

A

Mumps, rubella, pertusis, influenza

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12
Q

What are the droplet precautions?

A

Isolation room, respiratory protection (mask), gown and gloves advised

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13
Q

Precautions employed if client is known to suspected to be infected with serious illness transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei (small particle residue) that remain in air and can be widely dispersed by air

A

Airborne Precautions

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14
Q

Examples of diagnoses requiring airborne precautions

A

TB, measles, chickenpox

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15
Q

What are the airborne precautions?

A

Respiratory isolation room, respiratory protection (mask), gown and gloved advised

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16
Q

Does the tool measure what it was intended to measure?

A

Validity

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17
Q

3 types of validity

A

Face, content, criterion (concurrent, predictive)

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18
Q

Degree to which a procedure/assessment appears effective in terms of its stated aims. How well does the assessment appear to meet the stated purpose?

A

Face validity

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19
Q

Does the content in the evaluation represent the content that can be measured?

A

Content validity

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20
Q

Compares assessment tool to one that has already has established validity

A

Criterion validity

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21
Q

2 types of criterion validity

A

Concurrent and predictive validity

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22
Q

Compares the results of 2 instruments given at about the same time

A

Concurrent validity

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23
Q

Compares the degree to which an instrument can predict performance on a future criterion

A

Predictive validity

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24
Q

Establishes the consistency and stability of an evaluation

A

Reliability

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25
Q

Establishes same results will be obtained when given twice by the same administer

A

Test-retest reliability

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26
Q

Evaluation tool that attains client’s goals for intervention and measures to what degree goals are met and intervention outcomes after a specific time period. Uses interviews and rating scales during initial sessions to facilitate client’s participation in goal setting process by identifying intervention outcomes that are personally relevant.

A

Goal Attainment Scaling (GAS)

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27
Q

The reduction of the incidence or occurrence of a disease or disorder within a population that is currently well or considered to be potentially at risk. Goal is to promote wellness and maintain health.

A

Primary prevention

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28
Q

Early detection of problems in a population at risk to reduce the duration of a disorder/disease and/or minimize its effects through early detection/diagnosis, early appropriate referral, and early/effective intervention.

A

Secondary prevention

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29
Q

The elimination or reduction of the impact of dysfunction on an individual

A

Tertiary prevention

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30
Q

Goal directed tasks and behaviors that make up occupations. Doing processes that are directed toward a desired and intended outcome and require energy and thought to engage in an complete

A

Purposeful activity

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31
Q

Unconscious response to an individual that is similar to the way one has responded to a significant person

A

Transference

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32
Q

Individual responds in a manner that is expects and desired by the person who has a transference toward him/her

A

Countertransference

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33
Q

7 stages of group development

A

Origin, orientation, intermediate, conflict, cohesion, maturation, termination

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34
Q

Phase of group development in which the leader composes the group protocol and begins planning for the group

A

Origin phase

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35
Q

Phase of group development in which members learn what the group is about and make a preliminary commitment to the group

A

Orientation phase

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36
Q

Phase of group development in which interpersonal bonds and group norms are developed, specialized member roles, clarification of group’s purpose

A

Intermediate phase

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37
Q

Phase of group development in which members challenge group’s structure, purpose, processes, characterized by dissension and disagreements among members

A

Conflict phase

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38
Q

Phase of group development in which the group has a clearer sense of purpose after conflict, reaffirmation of group norms and values, increased group stability

A

Cohesion phase

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39
Q

Phase of group development in which members use skills to be productive and achieve group’s goals

A

Maturation phase

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40
Q

Phase of group development in which the group ends due to lack of engagement, inability to resolve conflict, administrative skills, goal attainment

A

Termination phase

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41
Q

Type of leadership in which the therapist is responsible for planning and structuring of what takes place in the group, use when member’s cognitive, social, verbal skills and engagement are limited, give clear verbal instructions and demonstrations

A

Directive leadership

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42
Q

What is the goal in directive leadership?

A

Task attainment

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43
Q

Type of leadership in which therapist shares responsibility for group and group process with members, use when members’ skill levels and engagement are moderate, collaboration with members to select group activities

A

Facilitative leadership

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44
Q

What is the goal of facilitative leadership?

A

Members acquire skills through experience

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45
Q

Type of leadership in which therapist functions as resource to members, members set agenda and structure, skills and engagement are high

A

Advisory leadership

46
Q

Goal of advisory leadership?

A

Members understand and self-direct process

47
Q

Relieving of one’s emotions by expressing feelings

A

Catharsis

48
Q

Type of group that enables the therapist to evaluate group interaction

A

Evaluation group

49
Q

Type of group with goal of skill development, task is a tangible end product, therapist assists clients in acquiring the knowledge, skills, and attitudes needed to perform a specific activity

A

Thematic group

50
Q

Type of group in which there is discussion of specific activities that members are engaged in outside of group

A

Topical group

51
Q

Type of group in which therapist facilitates self-awareness, insight, reflection, self-exploration through group task

A

Task-oriented group

52
Q

Continuum of groups consisting of parallel, project, egocentric-cooperative, cooperative, and mature groups

A

Developmental group

53
Q

Type of group that enables members to perform individual tasks in the presence of others

A

Parallel group

54
Q

Role of therapist in parallel groups

A

Direct leader

55
Q

Type of group used to develop an ability to perform a shared, short-term activity with another member, interaction required

A

Project group

56
Q

Role of therapist in project group

A

Less direct

57
Q

Type of group that enables members to select and implement a long-range activity which requires group interaction to complete, first level where client chooses task

A

Egocentric-cooperative group

58
Q

Role of therapist in egocentric-cooperative group

A

Role model

59
Q

Type of group that enables members to engage in a group activity that facilitates the free expression of ideas and feelings, fulfillment of needs is more important than task completion, develop sense of trust, cohesion, belonging

A

Cooperative group

60
Q

Role of therapist in cooperative group

A

Advisor

61
Q

Type of group that enables members to assume all social, emotional, functional roles and tasks, emotions and task completion are of equal priority

A

Mature group

62
Q

Role of therapist in mature group

A

Peer/group member

63
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall demonstrate a concern for the well-being and safety of service
recipients. Examples: appropriate eval/intervention specific to needs, EBP, following scope, steps to ensure proficiency, terminate services when no longer beneficial

A

Beneficence

64
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall intentionally refrain from actions that cause harm, avoid impaired practice, report necessary things, avoid dual relationships and conflicts of interest

A

Nonmaleficence

65
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall respect the right of the individual to self-determination, privacy, confidentiality, and consent. Right to refuse services, HIPAA

A

Autonomy

66
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall promote fairness and objectivity in the provision of OT services. Examples: appropriate supervision, advocacy, respond to request for services in reasonable amount of time, do not accept gifts altering therapeutic relationship

A

Justice

67
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall provide comprehensive, accurate, objective information when representing the profession. Refrain from communicating false, fraudulent, deceptive, misleading information.

A

Veracity

68
Q

Occupational therapy personnel shall treat clients, colleagues, and other professionals with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity

A

Fidelity

69
Q

Therapist knows correct action to take, but existing barrier prevents therapist from taking correct action

A

Ethical distress

70
Q

2 or more potentially morally correct ways to solve problem

A

Ethical dilemma

71
Q

Deliberately hurting a patient physically, mentally, or emotionally

A

Abuse

72
Q

Deliberately withholding services that are necessary to maintain an individual’s physical, mental, and emotional health

A

Neglect

73
Q

Stages of practitioner misconduct

A

Reprimand, censure, ineligibility, probation, suspension, revocation

74
Q

OTAs can expand their role by establishing what?

A

Service competency

75
Q

Ability to use the specified intervention in a safe, effective, reliable manner to ensure consistency between OT/OTA

A

Service competency

76
Q

Progression of supervision

A

close, routine, general, minimal

77
Q

Functions as partially or fully self-employed individual who provides OT services

A

Entrepreneur

78
Q

One or more members of a team work independently to evaluation, plan, implement treatment for a client. Limited communication and perspectives on case

A

Intradisciplinary

79
Q

A number of professionals from different disciplines conduct assessments and interventions independent from one another with some formal communication

A

Multidisciplinary

80
Q

All disciplines relevant to case collaborate for decision making. Eval and intervention done in each discipline but there is great understanding and direction toward a common goal

A

Interdisciplinary

81
Q

Characteristics of interdisciplinary teams are maintained and expanded upon. Ongoing communication, shared decision making, evaluations and interventions planned cooperatively, one member may take on multiple responsibilities and role blurring is accepted

A

Transdisciplinary

82
Q

Descriptive categories established by CMS that determine the level of payment at a per case rate

A

Diagnostic related groups (DRGs)

83
Q

Most common form of managed care, requires enrollees to only see doctors within network and to obtain referrals before seeking specialty care

A

Health maintenance organization (HMO)

84
Q

Form of managed care that offers a greater choice of providers, as choices increase percentage of payment decreases, more expensive plan overall

A

Preferred provider organization (PPO)

85
Q

Who is eligible for Medicare?

A

65+, end stage renal disease/permanent kidney failure, long-term disability (ALS, MS) who have received government funded disability benefits for 24 months, retired railroad workers

86
Q

What does medicare part A pay for?

A

Inpatient hospital, SNF, home health, rehab facility, hospice

87
Q

What does medicare part B pay for?

A

Outpatient services

88
Q

What must be completed to verify a person’s eligibility for MC home benefits?

A

OASIS

89
Q

Does MC cover DME and AE?

A

Yes DME, no AE

90
Q

State/federal health insurance for those with low income and/or disability

A

Medicaid

91
Q

Identifies the confidentiality requirement of a student’s educational record

A

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

92
Q

Model that views individual with disability as a person who has physiological insult resulting in reduced functional capacity

A

Medical Model

93
Q

Model that views individual with disability as lacking knowledge/skills

A

Educational model

94
Q

Model that views individual with disability as lacking skills, resources, and supports for community participation

A

Community model

95
Q

Admission for medical/psychiatric diagnosis that cannot be treated on OP basis, initial onset/exacerbation, LOS; 1-7 days, focus on stabilization

A

Acute care hospital

96
Q

Admission for medical/psychiatric diagnosis,Admission for medical/psychiatric diagnosis that cannot be treated on OP basis, has progressed from acute stage, LOS: 5-30 days, focus on functional improvements in performance skills and areas of occupation

A

Sub-acute care, intermediate care facility (ICF)

97
Q

Admission for chronic or catastrophic illness or disability that require extensive medical care and/or dependency on life support/ventilators, LOS: 25+ days, intervention concerned with palliative care and prevention/treatment of complications

A

Long-term acute care hospital (LTACH)

98
Q

Admission for medically stable disability that has residual functional deficits requiring skilled service, LOS: 1 week- months

A

Rehabilitation hospital

99
Q

Requires skilled care, illness is stable with no acute symptoms, LOS: 1 month-lifetime, OT eval and intervention guided by MC standards

A

Skilled nursing facility/extended care facility

100
Q

System-oriented approach that views limitations and problems as opportunities to increase quality, prevention emphasized, blame attributed to organization improvement needs not individual people

A

Quality improvement

101
Q

What are the 5 Ps of marketing?

A

Product, price, place, promotion, position

102
Q

Complete involvement of the researcher in the experience of the subjects in order to understand and interpret a phenomenon

A

Heuristic

103
Q

The individual’s ability to place the needs of others before their own

A

Altruism

104
Q

The desire to promote fairness in interactions with others

A

Equality

105
Q

The desires of the client must guide interventions

A

Freedom

106
Q

Treating each client respectfully as an individual by enabling the client to engage in occupations that are meaningful regardless of level of disability

A

Dignity

107
Q

In all situations, OTS/OTAs/students must provide accurate information in both oral and written form

A

Truth

108
Q

Use of clinical and ethical reasoning skills, sound judgement, and reflection to make decisions

A

Prudence

109
Q

Difference between IDEA part B and C?

A

B: ages 3-21, C: ages 0-2

110
Q

Making false statements or representations of material facts to obtain some benefit or payment for which no entitlement would otherwise exist

A

Fraud

111
Q

It is a criminal offense to knowingly and willfully offer, pay, solicit, or receive any remuneration to induce or reward referrals of items or services reimbursable by a federal health care program

A

Anti-kickback statute

112
Q

An advisor, helper, facilitator, outsider, change agent, evaluator-diagnostician, clarifier, trainer, planner, advocate

A

Consultant

NBCOT (2 decks)

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