OSTEO HELP Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 D’s used to aid diagnosis?

A

Dizziness, Diplopia, Dysarthria, Dysphagia, Drop attacks

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2
Q

What are the 3 N’s used in diagnosis?

A

Nystagmus, Numbness, Nausea

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3
Q

What is the single A in diagnosis?

A

Ataxia

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4
Q

List the 6 P’s in diagnosis.

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Paralysis
  • Paraesthesia
  • Pulselessness
  • Cold
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5
Q

Cooks cluster

A

For stenosis
(4) Over 60
(4) +ve extension test
(3) Pain reduced with flexion
(3) Pain eliminated with sitting
(3) Bilateral leg pain
(2) -ve SLR under 60 degrees
10/19 suggests stenosis with 90% sensitivity

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6
Q

What does SNNOOP10 stand for?

A
  • Systemic symptoms
  • New onset
  • Neoplasm/neurological deficit
  • Onset sudden
  • Over 50
  • Pregnancy or birth in the last 6 months
  • Pathology of the immune system
  • Positive Valsalva
  • Post traumatic headache
  • Positional headache
  • Progressive headache
  • Pattern change
  • Papilledema
  • Painkiller overuse/new meds
  • Painful eye
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7
Q

What are the signs of spinal cord compromise?

A
  • Non-dermatomal symptoms
  • Ataxia/clumsiness
  • Increased reflexes
  • Positive Babinski’s sign
  • Clonus
  • Non-myotomal muscle weakness
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8
Q

What is the purpose of Well’s Criteria?

A

To assess the likelihood of DVT

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9
Q

List the criteria for Well’s Criteria that add +1.

A
  • Active cancer or treatment in the last 6 months
  • Paralysis, paresis, recent plaster immobilisation of the LEXX
  • Recently bed ridden for 3 or more days or surgery with anaesthetic within the last 12 weeks
  • Localised tenderness along the deep venous system
  • Entire leg swollen
  • Calf swelling <3cm compared to the asymptomatic side
  • Collateral superficial veins
  • Unilateral pitting oedema
  • Previous DVT
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10
Q

What is the -2 criteria in Well’s Criteria?

A

Alternative diagnosis that is at least as likely as a DVT

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11
Q

What does VINDICATE stand for?

A
  • Vascular
  • Inflammatory or infectious
  • Neoplastic
  • Degenerative or drugs
  • Idiopathic or intoxication
  • Congenital
  • Autoimmune or allergy
  • Traumatic
  • Endocrine or environment
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12
Q

What are the earliest cancer warning signs represented by CAUTION?

A
  • Changes in bowel or bladder
  • A sore that does not heal
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • Thickening or a lump
  • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • Obvious changes in warts or moles
  • Nagging cough or hoarseness
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13
Q

What questions should be considered when making a DDx list?

A
  • Muscles involved?
  • Tendons involved?
  • Ligaments involved?
  • Could it be a disc?
  • Is there any nerve compression?
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14
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for muscle strain?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Within normal limits

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15
Q

What are the comments associated with muscle strain?

A
  • Pain with palp of damaged muscles
  • Stretching or contraction of muscle causes pain (possible weakness)
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16
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for tendinopathy?

A

AROM: Within normal limits (pain at end range), PROM: Within normal limits (pain at end range)

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17
Q

What are the comments associated with tendinopathy?

A
  • Pain with palpation of damaged tendon
  • Pain at end ROM both active and passive as tendon is stressed or stretched
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18
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for ligament sprain?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Decreases PROM (painful)

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19
Q

What are the comments associated with ligament sprain?

A
  • Pain with palpation of ligament
  • Stretching of the ligament, especially with over pressure, causes pain
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20
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for arthropathy?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Decreased PROM (painful)

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21
Q

What are the comments associated with arthropathy?

A
  • Early may have no loss of ROM or pain
  • Scour tests may show crepitus
  • AROM may show repeatable ‘snapping’ or ‘popping’
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22
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for capsulitis?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Decreased PROM (painful)

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23
Q

What are the comments associated with capsulitis?

A
  • Pain with direct capsule palpation
  • Multidirectional pain with motion – pain in a single direction indicated a muscle or tendon damage
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24
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for fascial strain?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Decreased PROM (painful)

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25
Q

What are the comments associated with fascial strain?

A
  • Can have palpatory subcutaneous adhesions
  • Limited ROM or non-dermatomal pain and posture changes
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26
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for instability?

A

AROM: Increased AROM or within normal range, PROM: Increased PROM

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27
Q

What are the comments associated with instability?

A
  • End play may show an empty end feel
  • AROM and PROM may cause repeatable ‘click’, ‘clunk’, or snapping sensation
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28
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for joint dysfunction (subluxation)?

A

AROM: Within normal range or limited in specific ROM, PROM: Limited in specific ROM

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29
Q

What are the comments associated with joint dysfunction?

A
  • Pain or point tenderness
  • Asymmetry or misalignment
  • ROM abnormality – joint feels ‘stuck’
  • Tissue/muscle tone changes
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30
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for intra-articular loose body?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM (painful), PROM: Decreased PROM (painful)

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31
Q

What are the comments associated with intra-articular loose body?

A
  • ROM assessment will result in sudden onset of pain, usually in one direction (typically extension)
  • Other movements are within normal range
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32
Q

What is the AROM and PROM for nerve injury?

A

AROM: Decreased AROM or within normal range, PROM: Within normal range

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33
Q

What are the comments associated with nerve injury?

A
  • Possible numbness, tingling or muscle weakness and shooting electrical pain
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34
Q

What characterizes visceral injury?

A
  • Pain is secondary to internal organ capsule distention or vascular compromise
  • Deep, achy, cramping pain that may be sharp at times, often poorly localised and may be immobilising in more severe cases
  • Pain is often NOT changed by body position
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35
Q

What does MET stand for?

A

Muscle Energy Technique

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36
Q

What is the first mechanism of action in MET?

A

Post-Isometric Relaxation (PIR)

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37
Q

What is the second mechanism of action in MET?

A

Reciprocal Inhibition (RI)

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38
Q

What is the third mechanism of action in MET?

A

Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) Activation

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39
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of action in MET?

A

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)

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40
Q

What is the fifth mechanism of action in MET?

A

Improved Joint Mobilization and Alignment

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41
Q

What is the sixth mechanism of action in MET?

A

Autonomic Nervous System Modulation

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42
Q

What does NMT stand for?

A

Neuromuscular techniques

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43
Q

What is the first mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Modulation of Neuromuscular Reflexes

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44
Q

What is the second mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Pain Gate Theory (Melzack & Wall, 1965)

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45
Q

What is the third mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Myofascial Release and Fluid Dynamics

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46
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Improved Proprioception and Motor Control

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47
Q

What is the fifth mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Autonomic Nervous System Regulation

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48
Q

What is the sixth mechanism of action in NMT?

A

Trigger Point Deactivation

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49
Q

What does STT stand for?

A

Soft tissue techniques

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50
Q

What is the first mechanism of action in STT?

A

Mechanical Effects

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51
Q

What is the second mechanism of action in STT?

A

Neuromuscular Effects

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52
Q

What is the third mechanism of action in STT?

A

Pain Modulation

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53
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of action in STT?

A

Circulatory and Lymphatic Effects

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54
Q

What is the fifth mechanism of action in STT?

A

Autonomic Nervous System Modulation

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55
Q

What does HVT stand for?

A

High-Velocity Thrust

56
Q

What is the first mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Cavitation and Joint Gapping

57
Q

What is the second mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Reflex Neuromuscular Inhibition

58
Q

What is the third mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Pain Modulation (Gate Control Theory & Descending Inhibition)

59
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Restoration of Joint Arthrokinematics

60
Q

What is the fifth mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Improved Blood Flow and Lymphatic Drainage

61
Q

What is the sixth mechanism of action in HVT?

A

Autonomic Nervous System Modulation

62
Q

What are the mechanical effects of joint mobilizations?

A
  • Restoration of Joint Arthrokinematics
  • Reduction of Joint Stiffness
  • Synovial Fluid Movement
63
Q

What are the neuromuscular effects of joint mobilizations?

A
  • Reflexive Muscle Relaxation
  • Proprioceptive Enhancement
64
Q

What are the pain modulation effects of joint mobilizations?

A
  • Gate Control Theory
  • Descending Pain Inhibition
65
Q

What are the circulatory and lymphatic effects of joint mobilizations?

A
  • Improved Blood Flow
  • Lymphatic Drainage
66
Q

What is the first mechanism of action in foraminal gapping?

A

Mechanical Decompression of Neural Structures

67
Q

What is the second mechanism of action in foraminal gapping?

A

Reduction of Intervertebral Disc Pressure

68
Q

What is the third mechanism of action in foraminal gapping?

A

Reflex Neuromuscular Inhibition

69
Q

What is foraminal gapping?

A

A technique that increases the space between vertebrae, reducing mechanical compression on spinal nerves and nerve roots.

70
Q

How does foraminal gapping relieve irritation?

A

By reducing mechanical compression caused by herniated discs, osteophytes, or inflammation.

71
Q

What is the effect of foraminal gapping on intervertebral disc pressure?

A

It decreases disc bulging and allows for better hydration and nutrient exchange in the disc.

72
Q

What is reflex neuromuscular inhibition?

A

A technique that stimulates mechanoreceptors in muscles surrounding the spine, leading to reflex relaxation of hypertonic muscles.

73
Q

How does foraminal gapping affect pain modulation?

A

By stimulating large-diameter afferent fibers (A-beta), which inhibit pain signals from smaller nociceptive fibers (A-delta, C fibers).

74
Q

What are the benefits of improved circulation and lymphatic drainage from foraminal gapping?

A

Better blood flow to neural and surrounding soft tissues, and enhanced lymphatic drainage helps clear inflammatory mediators.

75
Q

What does foraminal gapping restore in joint arthrokinematics?

A

Normal joint function and reduces restrictions that may contribute to pain and stiffness.

76
Q

How does foraminal gapping influence the autonomic nervous system?

A

By reducing nerve root irritation, it can balance sympathetic nervous system activity.

77
Q

What is myofascial release (MFR)?

A

A manual therapy technique in osteopathy that focuses on reducing fascial restrictions, improving tissue mobility, and alleviating pain.

78
Q

What are the mechanical effects of myofascial release?

A

Includes fascial elongation, breaking of adhesions, and improved tissue glide.

79
Q

What neurological effects does myofascial release have?

A

Stimulates mechanoreceptors, leading to reduced fascial tension and reflexive muscle relaxation.

80
Q

How does myofascial release modulate pain?

A

By inhibiting nociceptive input through the gate control theory and activating central inhibitory pathways.

81
Q

What circulatory effects are associated with myofascial release?

A

Enhanced blood flow and lymphatic drainage, reducing inflammation and promoting tissue oxygenation.

82
Q

What is the goal of lymphatic techniques in osteopathy?

A

To enhance the movement of lymphatic fluid, improve immune function, and reduce tissue congestion.

83
Q

What does mechanical pumping in lymphatic techniques do?

A

Creates rhythmic pressure changes that enhance lymphatic circulation and reduce edema.

84
Q

How do lymphatic techniques affect the autonomic nervous system?

A

They can decrease sympathetic overactivity, promoting parasympathetic dominance.

85
Q

What is the significance of the respiratory-circulatory model in lymphatic techniques?

A

It enhances diaphragmatic motion and rib cage mobility, optimizing lymphatic flow.

86
Q

What is the Gate Control Theory?

A

A theory that explains how pain signals are regulated in the spinal cord before reaching the brain.

87
Q

How do large-diameter nerve fibers affect pain transmission according to the Gate Control Theory?

A

They inhibit pain signals from smaller fibers by ‘closing the gate’ in the spinal cord.

88
Q

What clinical techniques can stimulate A-beta fibers to reduce pain perception?

A

Joint mobilization, soft tissue work, and myofascial release.

89
Q

What symptoms are associated with Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Headaches, jaw claudication, fever, and pain around the temples.

90
Q

What criteria are used to assess Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Wells criteria and medical history regarding travel, cardiac issues, and recent surgery.

91
Q

What are common symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?

A

Sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and swelling in one leg.

92
Q

What are the risk factors for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?

A

Being male, over 60, having a family history, and experiencing pulsating mass in the abdomen.

93
Q

What indicators suggest cervical instability?

A

Neck pain, hypermobility, and nausea or dizziness.

94
Q

What symptoms may indicate cancer?

A

Unexplained weight loss, night sweats, and unusual lumps or swelling.

95
Q

What symptoms are associated with meningitis?

A

High temperature, bad headache, stiff neck, and drowsiness.

96
Q

What are common symptoms of fractures?

A

Recent trauma, swelling, bruising, and inability to weight bear.

97
Q

What are the symptoms of Cauda Equina syndrome?

A

Increased urinary frequency and urgency, changes in bowel movements, and leg pain.

98
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

Weight loss, fast heartbeat, increased hunger, and tremors.

99
Q

What symptoms suggest hypothyroidism?

A

Fatigue, weight gain, cold sensitivity, and dry skin.

100
Q

What symptoms are indicative of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?

A

Irregular periods, excessive hair growth, and weight gain.

101
Q

Where is gallbladder pain typically located?

A

Right upper quadrant, possibly radiating to the back or right shoulder.

102
Q

What symptoms may indicate liver dysfunction?

A

Fatigue, loss of appetite, jaundice, and easy bruising.

103
Q

What symptoms suggest kidney issues?

A

Lower back pain, changes in urine color, and burning during urination.

104
Q

What does dark, red, or foamy urine indicate?

A

Changes in urine color can suggest various health issues such as infections or kidney stones.

Urine color changes can be indicative of underlying conditions that require further investigation.

105
Q

What does burning or pain when urinating suggest?

A

Dysuria suggests infection or kidney stones.

Dysuria is a common symptom in urinary tract infections and other urological conditions.

106
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Nocturia is the condition of urinating more frequently than usual at night, commonly associated with kidney disease.

Nocturia can significantly disrupt sleep and may indicate underlying health issues.

107
Q

What could urgency to urinate with only small amounts passed indicate?

A

Could suggest infection or bladder issues.

This symptom may be caused by conditions such as urinary tract infections or bladder dysfunction.

108
Q

What does swelling in the legs, ankles, or around the eyes indicate?

A

Kidney disease can cause fluid retention.

Fluid retention is a common symptom of kidney dysfunction and may require medical evaluation.

109
Q

What might unexplained weight gain due to swelling indicate?

A

It may indicate kidney disease due to fluid retention.

Monitoring weight changes can help in assessing kidney health.

110
Q

What are common symptoms of kidney dysfunction?

A
  • Unusual tiredness or weakness
  • Persistent itching without a rash
  • Changes in urine color
  • Swelling in legs or ankles
  • Frequent urination
  • Burning during urination
  • Unexplained weight gain
  • Foul odour in urine

These symptoms can vary and may require further investigation to determine the underlying cause.

111
Q

What does burning pain in the stomach suggest?

A

It suggests acid-related issues like ulcers or reflux.

Understanding the type of pain can help in diagnosing gastrointestinal conditions.

112
Q

What does pain worsening after eating indicate?

A

Could indicate gallbladder issues or ulcers.

Pain related to food intake is a key factor in diagnosing digestive issues.

113
Q

What does the presence of blood in vomit indicate?

A

Could suggest a bleeding ulcer.

Vomiting blood is a serious symptom that requires immediate medical attention.

114
Q

What condition may cause greasy, pale, or foul-smelling stools?

A

Suggests pancreatic enzyme deficiency (steatorrhea).

This can be a sign of malabsorption and may indicate pancreatic issues.

115
Q

What does a sudden worsening of pain, then temporary relief suggest in appendicitis?

A

Could indicate a ruptured appendix.

Recognizing this symptom is critical, as a ruptured appendix can lead to serious complications.

116
Q

What does pain in the upper left abdomen radiating to the left shoulder indicate?

A

Classic sign of splenic issues.

Splenic pain often involves referred pain to the shoulder due to diaphragm irritation.

117
Q

What are common symptoms of anaemia?

A
  • Tiredness or fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Lightheadedness
  • Pale skin
  • Shortness of breath
  • Cold hands and feet

These symptoms can indicate various types of anaemia and should be evaluated by a healthcare provider.

118
Q

What does chest pain associated with shortness of breath indicate?

A

May indicate cardiovascular issues.

Chest pain and shortness of breath are critical symptoms that require immediate medical evaluation.

119
Q

What does sudden numbness or weakness on one side of the body suggest?

A

May indicate a stroke or TIA (transient ischemic attack).

Timely recognition of these symptoms is crucial for effective treatment.

120
Q

What is the recommended screening age for colon cancer?

A

50 years old, or earlier with family history.

Regular screening can help in early detection and treatment of colon cancer.

121
Q

What is a common symptom of stroke or TIA?

A

Sudden numbness, weakness, or difficulty speaking

Stroke or TIA symptoms may include sudden blurred vision or loss of vision in one eye, difficulty walking, dizziness, or loss of coordination.

122
Q

What might sudden blurred vision indicate?

A

Possible stroke or TIA

Sudden blurred vision can be associated with neurological issues.

123
Q

What is a symptom of lung problems during physical activity?

A

Shortness of breath

This can occur during rest as well.

124
Q

What does a persistent cough lasting more than 3 weeks suggest?

A

Possible lung issue

This symptom warrants further evaluation.

125
Q

What does blood-streaked mucus indicate?

A

Possible lung infection or cancer

Coughing up blood should be assessed by a healthcare professional.

126
Q

What are common symptoms of hyperglycemia?

A

Increased thirst, frequent urination, increased hunger

Other symptoms include fatigue, blurred vision, and unexplained weight changes.

127
Q

What does polyuria refer to?

A

Increased urination

It is a common symptom of hyperglycemia.

128
Q

What might unexplained weight loss despite normal eating indicate?

A

Potential hyperglycemia

Weight gain, especially around the abdomen, is also a concern.

129
Q

What are symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Shakiness, nervousness, dizziness

Other symptoms include sweating, weakness, and difficulty concentrating.

130
Q

What might a rapid heartbeat indicate in the context of blood sugar levels?

A

Possible hypoglycemia

It can also be a response to anxiety or stress.

131
Q

Fill in the blank: Increased thirst is also known as _______.

A

polydipsia

It is a common symptom of hyperglycemia.

132
Q

True or False: A persistent cough that produces mucus may indicate a lung infection.

A

True

The color of the mucus can provide additional diagnostic information.

133
Q

What condition may excessive tiredness during the day despite good sleep indicate?

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea

This condition can worsen lung function.

134
Q

What is a common symptom of both hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia?

A

Fatigue

Both conditions can lead to feelings of tiredness, though for different reasons.

135
Q

What does polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) relate to?

A

Potential hyperglycemia

It is often associated with insulin resistance.

136
Q

What is a symptom of hypoglycemia related to mood?

A

Irritability or mood swings

This can occur alongside other physical symptoms.