osce Flashcards
1
Q
What are the key components of a removable orthodontic appliance, and what is their role?
A
Answer:
Key components include:
Retentive components: Hold the appliance in place (e.g., Adams’ clasp).
Base plate: Reinforces retention and anchorage, and can include bite planes to modify occlusion.
Active components: Produce tooth movement (e.g., springs, screws).
Mnemonic: “Real Base Action”
Retention (stay in place), Base (support), Action (move teeth).
2
Q
Question: What is the difference between a Hawley retainer and a vacuum-formed retainer (VFR)?
A
Answer:
Hawley Retainer: Durable, adjustable, and can control transverse expansion.
VFR: Esthetic, comfortable, but less durable and less effective for transverse expansion.
Mnemonic: “Holds or Hides”
Hawley holds teeth with metal wires; VFR hides discreetly.
3
Q
Question: What is the main difference between fixed and removable appliances in terms of complexity and patient compliance?
A
Answer:
Fixed Appliances: Treat complex cases, do not rely on patient compliance.
Removable Appliances: Simpler, rely heavily on patient compliance for success.
Mnemonic: “Fixed is Firm, Removable Relies”
Fixed appliances stay put, removable ones need patient effort.
4
Q
A
5
Q
What types of tooth movements can fixed appliances achieve that removable appliances cannot?
A
Answer:
Fixed appliances can achieve complex movements such as bodily movement, intrusion, extrusion, and rotations, which are not possible with removable appliances.
Mnemonic: “Fixed Does it All”
Fixed appliances can handle all types of tooth movement.
6
Q
What are the advantages of clear aligners compared to traditional braces?
A
Answer:
Clear aligners are esthetic, removable, and comfortable but are primarily effective for simple tooth movements like tipping.
Mnemonic: “Clear Comfort, Limited Power”
Clear aligners are great for comfort but limited in complexity.
7
Q
What are the active and passive components of a fixed orthodontic appliance, and what are their functions?
A
Answer:
Active Components: Arch wires, springs, and elastics, which apply forces to move teeth.
Passive Components: Brackets, bands, and buccal tubes, which stabilize and transmit forces.
Mnemonic: “Active Moves, Passive Supports”
Active parts do the work; passive parts hold everything together.
8
Q
How do expansion screws function in removable appliances, and when are they typically used?
A
Question: How do expansion screws function in removable appliances, and when are they typically used?
Answer:
Expansion screws are adjusted to create space by widening the dental arch. They are used in correcting posterior crossbites or crowding, especially in mixed dentition.
Mnemonic: “Screw to Spread”
Expansion screws spread the arch for more space.
9
Q
Question: What is the purpose of functional appliances, and how do they influence growth?
A
Answer:
Functional appliances modify facial growth during peak growth periods. They posture the jaw forward or backward to correct skeletal discrepancies, such as Class II malocclusion.
Mnemonic: “Function Fosters Growth”
Functional appliances guide jaw growth during development.
10
Q
Question: What are examples of retentive components in removable appliances, and where are they positioned?
A
Examples include:
Adams’ Clasp: Positioned on molars or premolars.
Ball Clasp: Positioned between incisors.
Labial Bow: Positioned on anterior teeth.
Mnemonic: “Retain with ABCs”
Adams, Ball, and Clasp components keep the appliance secure.
11
Q
Scenario 12: Rapid Maxillary Expanders (RME)
Question: What is the difference between banded and bonded rapid maxillary expanders?
A
Answer:
Banded RME: Uses bands on molars for support.
Bonded RME: Uses acrylic blocks on premolars and molars, providing additional stability.
Mnemonic: “Band or Bond”
Bands for teeth, bonds for extra hold.
12
Q
n: What is the role of a tongue crib in orthodontics, and which habits does it address?
A
Answer:
A tongue crib prevents the tongue from interfering with teeth alignment and helps stop thumb-sucking habits that cause anterior open bite or posterior crossbite.
Mnemonic: “Crib for Control”
Tongue cribs help control habits like thumb-sucking.
13
Q
Question: What is the purpose of different types of arch wires in fixed appliances?
A
Answer:
NiTi Wires: Flexible, used in initial stages for alignment.
Stainless Steel Wires: Rigid, used for space closure.
Beta-Titanium Wires: Intermediate stiffness, used for finishing adjustments.
Mnemonic: “NiTi Starts, Steel Seals, Beta Bends”
NiTi aligns, steel closes spaces, beta finishes.
14
Q
: What is the role of composite resin attachments in clear aligner therapy?
A
Answer:
Composite resin attachments enhance aligner grip and allow for more controlled tooth movements, such as rotations and bodily shifts.
Mnemonic: “Attachments Add Control”
Attachments help aligners guide teeth accurately.
15
Q
How would you explain the purpose of a space maintainer to a parent?
A
Answer:
A space maintainer keeps space open for permanent teeth to erupt correctly if a baby tooth is lost early, preventing crowding or misalignment.
Mnemonic: “Hold the Spot”
Space maintainers save room for new teeth.
16
Q
What strategies can you use to encourage compliance in children wearing removable appliances?
A
Answer:
Explain the appliance’s purpose in simple terms.
Set daily wear goals with rewards.
Provide reminders for consistent wear.
Mnemonic: “Wear to Win”
Wearing appliances helps achieve a winning smile.
17
Q
What foods should patients with fixed appliances avoid, and why?
A
Answer:
Avoid sticky (caramel), hard (nuts), or chewy foods (gum), as they can damage brackets, wires, or cause appliance detachment.
Mnemonic: “Sticky, Hard, Beware!”
Sticky and hard foods can harm braces.
18
Q
How should patients care for their retainers to maintain hygiene and effectiveness?
A
Question: How should patients care for their retainers to maintain hygiene and effectiveness?
Answer:
Rinse retainers daily and clean with a soft brush.
Avoid hot water, which can warp them.
Store in a protective case when not in use.
Mnemonic: “Rinse, Brush, Protect”
Clean retainers keep smiles straight.
19
Q
What should patients do if a bracket becomes loose or a wire pokes their cheek?
A
Answer:
Advise them to cover the wire with orthodontic wax to prevent irritation and schedule a visit to their orthodontist for repair.
Mnemonic: “Wax to Fix”
Wax soothes until help arrives.
20
Q
What are the potential oral health consequences of untreated malocclusion?
A
Answer:
Untreated malocclusion can lead to:
Difficulty chewing or speaking.
Increased risk of dental trauma.
TMD (temporomandibular disorders).
Mnemonic: “Malocclusion Means Trouble”
Without treatment, malocclusion can cause oral health challenges.
21
Q
What is the key difference between fixed and removable orthodontic appliances in terms of patient compliance?
A
Answer:
Fixed appliances do not rely on patient compliance as they are cemented in place. In contrast, removable appliances require consistent wear by the patient for effectiveness.
Mnemonic: “Fixed Stays, Removable Obeys”
Fixed appliances work independently; removable ones need cooperation.
22
Q
: What is the function of an Adams’ clasp in a removable appliance?
A
Answer:
The Adams’ clasp helps retain the appliance by anchoring onto molars or premolars.
Mnemonic: “Adams Anchors”
Adams’ clasp keeps the appliance securely in place.
23
Q
How does the base plate of a removable appliance contribute to its function?
A
Answer:
The base plate provides stability, increases retention, and can be modified with bite planes to aid in correcting occlusion.
Mnemonic: “Base is the Base”
The base plate holds and stabilizes everything.
24
Q
Name two active components of removable appliances and their function.
A
Answer:
Springs (e.g., Z-spring): Used to tip teeth.
Expansion screws: Create space by widening the dental arch.
Mnemonic: “Springs and Screws Move Teeth”
Springs tip teeth; screws expand the arch.
25
What is the primary use of functional appliances, and during which growth stage are they most effective?
Answer:
Functional appliances guide jaw growth to correct skeletal discrepancies like Class II malocclusion and are most effective during a patient’s growth spurt.
Mnemonic: "Function During Growth"
Functional appliances are best during peak growth periods.
26
Scenario: A 10-year-old child presents with a posterior crossbite. The orthodontist recommends a removable appliance with an active component. Question: Which component would most likely be used in this appliance to correct the posterior crossbite?
The active component is a jackscrew, used in removable expanders for slow expansion in mixed dentition.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Jack the space!" – Jackscrews create space by expanding the plate.
27
Scenario: A patient is using a Hawley retainer after completing orthodontic treatment. Question: What is the function of the labial bow in this appliance?
Answer: The labial bow controls the angulation/alignment of incisors and provides retention.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "The bow keeps the teeth in the show!" – The labial bow keeps front teeth aligned.
28
Scenario: An adolescent requires rapid maxillary expansion.
Question: How does a rapid maxillary expander achieve this, and what precaution must be taken to minimize relapse?
Answer: The expander turns 1-2 times daily, creating 0.2-0.5 mm of expansion. It must remain in situ for 6 months to reduce relapse.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Turn to earn space!" – Keep it in place to lock the gain.
29
A patient with crowded lower teeth needs slight alignment adjustments. Clear aligners are suggested.Question: How do clear aligners work, and what auxiliary might enhance controlled tooth movements?
Answer: Clear aligners provide tipping movements and can use composite resin attachments for enhanced control.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Invisible nudge!" – Aligners guide, and resin helps steer.
30
A growing child with a skeletal Class II malocclusion needs a functional appliance to posture the mandible forward.
Question: Which removable appliance might be recommended?
Answer: The Twin Block appliance is commonly used for skeletal Class II correction during growth spurts.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Twin boost for the jaw!" – Helps the lower jaw catch up.
31
Scenario: A fixed appliance treatment plan includes space closure between teeth.
Question: Which spring is used to close spaces between teeth?
Answer: A closed coil spring is used to close spaces between teeth.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Spring snaps it shut!" – The spring pulls teeth closer.
32
Scenario: A patient is advised to maintain a fixed lingual retainer after orthodontic treatment.Question: What is the primary advantage of this type of retainer?
Answer: It is not visible, comfortable for the patient, and maintains tooth alignment long-term.
Mnemonic/Lay Term: "Hidden keeper!" – Keeps teeth straight without being seen.
33
What are the three components of Jackson's Triad in orthodontics, and why are they important?
Answer:
Functional Efficiency
Structural Balance
Esthetic Harmony
Mnemonic: "Fast Smile, Effective Harmony"
Functional Efficiency: Chewing, speech, and breathing.
Structural Balance: Hard and soft tissue stability.
Esthetic Harmony: A well-aligned smile.
34
Explain the difference between a Class I, Class II, and Class III malocclusion based on Angle’s classification.
Answer:
Class I: Normal alignment; mesio-buccal cusp of the upper first molar aligns with the buccal groove of the lower first molar.
Class II: Upper molar cusp is anterior to the lower molar groove (retruded mandible).
Class III: Upper molar cusp is posterior to the lower molar groove (protruded mandible).
Mnemonic: "Class I is fine, II is behind, III goes wide."
35
What are the primary causes of a deep bite, and why might it need correction?
Answer:
Causes: Skeletal discrepancies, excessive over-eruption of anterior teeth, or habits like thumbsucking.
Importance of correction: It can lead to trauma to palatal gingiva, incisal wear, and functional issues.
Mnemonic: "Deep Trouble if Not Fixed" (Damage, Traumatized gums, Functional issues).
36
Define Leeway Space and explain its significance in orthodontics.
Answer: Leeway Space is the difference in space between the primary molars and their permanent successors (premolars). It helps guide the permanent teeth into proper alignment.
Lay Explanation: "Leeway space is like saving extra room in your mouth for new teeth to fit in smoothly."
37
What is a functional shift (CR-CO discrepancy), and what is its clinical significance?
Answer:
A functional shift occurs when the mandible moves from centric relation (CR) to centric occlusion (CO) due to premature contacts.
Clinical Significance: If left untreated, it can cause asymmetrical growth and temporomandibular joint (TMJ) issues.
Mnemonic: "Shift Happens, Treat Early" (Prevent asymmetry and TMJ issues).
38
What are primate spaces, and where are they located?
Answer: Primate spaces are natural gaps in primary dentition that help accommodate permanent teeth.
Located mesial to maxillary canines and distal to mandibular canines.
Lay Explanation: "Primate spaces are the VIP seats in your mouth, saved for bigger teeth!"
39
Describe the difference between overbite and overjet.
Answer:
Overbite: Vertical overlap of the maxillary incisors over the mandibular incisors.
Overjet: Horizontal distance between the labial surfaces of mandibular and maxillary incisors.
Mnemonic: "Jet flies forward, Bite goes down."
40
List four types of eruptive abnormalities and define one.
Answer:
Impacted teeth
Ectopically erupting teeth
Transposed teeth
Congenitally missing teeth
Definition - Impacted Teeth: A tooth fails to erupt into its functional position due to obstruction by another tooth, bone, or soft tissue.
Lay Explanation: "Impacted teeth are like cars stuck in traffic—they can't get to where they need to go."
41
What are the common causes and effects of a crossbite, and why is it important to address?
Answer:
Causes: Skeletal discrepancies, abnormal tooth eruption, or habits like thumb-sucking.
Effects: Difficulty chewing, speech issues, and potential jaw asymmetry.
Mnemonic: "Cross Teeth, Crossed Problems" (Chewing, Speech, Jaw asymmetry).
42
What is the clinical importance of identifying a midline asymmetry?
Answer: It helps determine whether the asymmetry is due to dental or skeletal causes. Skeletal asymmetries may require advanced interventions.
Mnemonic: "Spot the Line, Fix the Sign" (Midline shifts point to deeper issues).
43
What are the three primary types of orthodontic interventions, and what do they entail?
Answer:
Preventive: Avoid malocclusions by early interventions.
Interceptive: Stop ongoing abnormal development.
Corrective: Treat established malocclusions.
Lay Explanation: "Prevent it, Pause it, or Patch it—three ways to tackle crooked teeth."
44
What is the significance of monitoring the eruption sequence of primary and permanent teeth?
Answer: It ensures timely detection of abnormalities like impactions, ectopic eruptions, or congenital absences, which can disrupt proper alignment.
Mnemonic: "Eruption Inspection Prevents Disruption."
45
How do habits like thumb-sucking and tongue thrusting affect occlusion?
Answer: These habits can lead to open bites, overjet, or misalignment by exerting unnatural pressure on developing teeth.
Mnemonic: "Thumbs and Tongues Tweak Teeth."
46
Why is it essential to palpate for canines by age 10?
Answer: By age 10, the canines should be palpable buccally. If not, it may indicate impaction or ectopic eruption, requiring early intervention.
Lay Explanation: "If canines are missing their ‘spot,’ check early to prevent crowding.
47
What is the clinical significance of "Leeway Space"?
Answer: Leeway Space allows the permanent molars to drift mesially as primary molars exfoliate, helping to prevent crowding.
Mnemonic: "Leeway Leads the Way."
48
What are the potential psychosocial effects of orthodontic treatment, especially in children?
Answer: Orthodontic treatment can improve self-image, prevent bullying, and enhance social confidence, particularly in children with noticeable malocclusions.
Lay Explanation: "A great smile is like a superpower—it boosts confidence and happiness."
49
What are the differences between skeletal and dental open bites?
Answer:
Skeletal Open Bite: Caused by jaw discrepancies, often requiring surgery.
Dental Open Bite: Caused by habits like tongue thrusting or thumb-sucking, typically treatable with orthodontics.
Mnemonic: "Skeleton Surgery, Dental Devices."
50
What is the difference between centric relation (CR) and centric occlusion (CO)?
Answer:
CR: The most retruded, unstrained position of the mandible relative to the maxilla.
CO: The position of maximum intercuspation of the teeth, regardless of condylar position.
Lay Explanation: "CR is where your jaw relaxes; CO is where your teeth meet comfortably."
51
What are the primary differences between anterior and posterior crossbites?
Answer:
Anterior Crossbite: Upper front teeth are positioned behind the lower front teeth.
Posterior Crossbite: Upper back teeth are inside or outside the lower back teeth.
Mnemonic: "Front flips back, Back shifts inside."
52
Why is it crucial to recognize and address ectopic eruptions early?
Answer: Ectopic eruptions can lead to crowding, impaction, or damage to adjacent teeth, complicating future alignment.
Lay Explanation: "Think of ectopic eruptions as traffic jams in your mouth—clear them early to avoid crashes."
53
What is the significance of identifying supernumerary teeth during orthodontic assessments?
Answer: Supernumerary teeth can disrupt normal eruption patterns, cause crowding, or delay the eruption of adjacent teeth, requiring early intervention.
Mnemonic: "Extra Teeth, Extra Trouble."
54
What is the difference between generalized spacing and primate spaces in primary dentition?
Generalized Spacing: Normal spacing throughout the primary dentition due to jaw growth.
Primate Spaces: Specific gaps mesial to maxillary canines and distal to mandibular canines.
Lay Explanation: "Generalized spacing is like a roomy house; primate spaces are VIP sections for future teeth."
55
What is an impacted tooth, and what are its common causes?
Answer: An impacted tooth is one that fails to erupt into its functional position due to obstructions such as other teeth, bone, or soft tissue.
Mnemonic: "Impacted Teeth Are Trapped."
56
What are the six keys of occlusion described by Andrews?
Correct molar relationship.
Correct crown angulation.
Correct crown inclination.
No rotation.
No spaces.
Flat to slight curve of Spee.
Mnemonic: "Molars Angled, Inclined, Rotations Stopped, Spaces Filled, Spee is Flat."
57
What is the purpose of maintaining leeway space in mixed dentition?
Answer: Preserving leeway space ensures proper alignment of permanent teeth by preventing crowding as they erupt.
Lay Explanation: "Leeway space is like a parking spot saved for the bigger cars (permanent teeth)."
58
What is the relationship between orthodontics and periodontal health?
What is the relationship between orthodontics and periodontal health?
Answer: Orthodontic treatment can be safely performed on teeth with reduced periodontal support, provided there is adequate plaque control. Poor hygiene can lead to periodontal issues.
Mnemonic: "Clean Teeth, Healthy Moves."
59
What is the clinical importance of detecting and correcting a deep bite?
Answer: Deep bites can lead to trauma to the palatal gingiva, excessive incisal wear, and functional limitations, which require early intervention.
Mnemonic: "Deep Bite, Damage Insight."
60
What is a functional shift, and what clinical signs should you look for?
What is a functional shift, and what clinical signs should you look for?
Answer: A functional shift occurs when the mandible deviates during closure due to premature contacts. Signs include midline discrepancies and asymmetry.
Mnemonic: "Shift Happens, Check Midline and Jaw."
61
Why is it important to understand the timing of root completion in permanent teeth?
Answer: Root completion, which occurs 2-3 years after eruption, affects orthodontic planning and tooth movement stability.
Lay Explanation: "Root completion means the foundation is set for safe tooth movement."
62
What are the common signs of a skeletal open bite?
Answer:
Vertical gap between upper and lower teeth.
Associated with jaw discrepancies.
Difficulty chewing and speech issues.
Mnemonic: "Open Bite, Chewing Fright."
63
What are the effects of untreated midline asymmetries?
Answer: Untreated midline asymmetries can lead to functional issues, aesthetic concerns, and jaw growth discrepancies.
Lay Explanation: "An uneven midline is like a crooked nose—hard to ignore and affects balance."
64
What is the difference between overjet and overbite in simple terms?
Answer:
Overjet: Teeth stick out (horizontal gap).
Overbite: Teeth overlap too much (vertical gap).
Lay Explanation: "Overjet jets forward, Overbite bites down too far."
65
What differentiates Class II malocclusion Division 1 from Division 2?
Answer:
Class II Division 1: Upper incisors are proclined (angled forward), creating a large overjet.
Class II Division 2: Upper central incisors are retroclined (angled backward), and lateral incisors may flare, resulting in a deep bite.
Mnemonic: "Division 1 jets forward; Division 2 sets back."
66
What skeletal relationship is typically associated with Class II malocclusion?
Answer: Class II malocclusion is often associated with a retruded mandible or a protruded maxilla, or a combination of both.
Lay Explanation: "Class II is like a small chin or a big upper jaw."
67
What are the clinical signs of Class II Division 1 malocclusion?
Answer:
Proclined maxillary incisors.
Large overjet.
Lip incompetence (lips do not meet at rest).
Increased risk of incisal trauma.
Mnemonic: "Class II Division 1—Front Teeth Run."
68
What are the clinical signs of Class II Division 2 malocclusion?
Answer:
Retroclined maxillary central incisors.
Proclined or flared lateral incisors.
Deep bite.
Strong lower lip posture.
Mnemonic: "Division 2—Front Teeth Fold, Deep Bite Unfolds."
69
What skeletal relationship is associated with Class III malocclusion?
Answer: Class III malocclusion is typically associated with a protruded mandible or a retruded maxilla, or a combination of both.
Lay Explanation: "Class III looks like the lower jaw is in the lead."
70
What are the clinical signs of Class III malocclusion?
Answer:
Negative overjet (reverse overjet).
Concave facial profile.
Anterior crossbite.
Possible crowding in the lower arch.
Mnemonic: "Class III—Lower Jumps Free."
71
How does Class I malocclusion differ from Class II and Class III?
Class I: Normal molar relationship but may have spacing, crowding, or rotations.
Class II: Upper teeth/jaw protrude relative to lower jaw (retruded mandible).
Class III: Lower teeth/jaw protrude relative to upper jaw (protruded mandible).
Lay Explanation: "**Class I is straight, Class II slides back, Class III slides forward."**
72
What are the primary clinical differences between Grade A and Grade B periodontitis?
Answer:
Grade A: No CAL or RBL over 5 years, stable bone levels, and destruction minimal compared to biofilm.
Grade B: <2 mm CAL or RBL over 5 years, bone loss/age ratio 0.25–1.0, destruction matches biofilm levels.
Mnemonic: "A is Always Stable, B is Balanced."
73
What are the aesthetic implications of Class II Division 1 malocclusion?
Answer:
Proclined upper incisors create a "bucked teeth" appearance.
Lips may not close fully, leading to lip incompetence.
The convex facial profile may be pronounced.Mnemonic: "Division 1: Smile undone."
74
What are the potential functional implications of Class III malocclusion?
Answer:
Difficulty in biting and chewing.
Speech issues, particularly with sibilant sounds.
Increased risk of wear on anterior teeth.
Lay Explanation: "Class III makes it hard to chew because the bottom teeth are too far forward."
75
What does a straight facial profile indicate in terms of malocclusion classification?
Answer: A straight facial profile is associated with Class I malocclusion or normal occlusion.
Mnemonic: "Straight face, Class I place."
76
What type of facial profile is commonly seen with Class II and Class III malocclusions?
Answer:
Class II: Convex facial profile.
Class III: Concave facial profile.
Mnemonic: "Convex Class II, Concave Class III."
77
Why is early diagnosis of Class II Division 1 malocclusion critical?
Answer: Early diagnosis allows for intervention to reduce the risk of trauma to protruded incisors and to improve facial aesthetics and function.
Mnemonic: "Catch Division 1 Before Teeth Run."
78
How would you identify a Class III malocclusion in a child?
Answer:
Check for anterior crossbite.
Look for a concave facial profile.
Evaluate occlusion to confirm if the lower molar cusp is ahead of the upper molar cusp.
Lay Explanation: "If the lower teeth are leading the upper teeth, it’s Class III."
79
What is the main risk for Class II Division 2 malocclusion if left untreated?
Answer:
Deep bite may lead to trauma to the palatal gingiva.
Wear and tear of the incisal edges of lower teeth.
Mnemonic: "Division 2: Deep Bite Blues."
80
What is the molar relationship for each class of malocclusion?
Class I: Mesio-buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
Class II: Mesio-buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is anterior to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
Class III: Mesio-buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is posterior to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
Mnemonic: "Class I is fine, Class II falls behind, Class III goes wide."
81
What are the three primary goals of early orthodontic intervention?
Answer:
Guide jaw growth.
Correct harmful oral habits.
Prevent severe malocclusions.
Mnemonic: "Grow, Stop, Prevent" (Grow jaws, Stop habits, Prevent issues).
82
A patient presents with a failure of tooth eruption beyond the expected eruption date. The tooth appears embedded in the bone with no signs of eruption potential.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this anomaly?
What local and systemic factors might contribute to this condition?
Which imaging technique is recommended to evaluate the position and morphology of the affected tooth?
Diagnosis: Impaction.
Contributing Factors: Local (lack of space, ankylosis), Systemic (endocrinal disorders, malnutrition).
Imaging: Panoramic and CBCT for orientation and relation to vital structures.
Lay Mnemonic: "Buried Treasure Tooth"
"Buried" = The tooth is hidden in bone.
"Treasure" = Use CBCT for a detailed map.
"Tooth" = Can lead to issues like cysts or malocclusion.
82
The radiograph below shows a supernumerary tooth in the anterior maxilla.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this anomaly?
Which imaging modalities would you use to confirm the diagnosis?
What are potential complications of this anomaly?
Diagnosis: Mesiodens (a type of supernumerary tooth).
Imaging Modalities: Periapical and panoramic radiographs, CBCT for complex cases.
Complications: Interference with eruption of adjacent teeth, crowding, or formation of dentigerous cysts.
83
A radiograph shows generalised thinning of enamel with a "picket fence" appearance of teeth due to open contacts.
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is this likely to represent?
Describe the radiographic features specific to this type.
What are the key differences between this condition and dentinogenesis imperfecta?
Amelogenesis Imperfecta
A radiograph shows generalised thinning of enamel with a "picket fence" appearance of teeth due to open contacts.
Diagnosis: Hypoplastic type of Amelogenesis Imperfecta.
Radiographic Features: Thin radiopaque enamel, square-shaped crowns, open contacts, and low cusps.
Differences from Dentinogenesis Imperfecta: DI involves dentin abnormalities with bulbous crowns and obliterated pulp chambers.
Lay Mnemonic: "Picket Fence Smile"
"Picket Fence" = Thin enamel and open spaces between teeth.
"Smile" = Affects both primary and permanent teeth.
"Check Density" = Enamel thinner but distinct from dentin (unlike DI).
84
Scenario 1:
A 50-year-old patient presents with concerns about loose teeth in the lower anterior region (31–41) and difficulty chewing due to a missing tooth (36). Clinical examination reveals generalized gingival inflammation, 5–6 mm periodontal pockets, subgingival calculus, and multiple caries on teeth 26 (mesio-occlusal) and 27 (distal). The patient reports a history of smoking and inconsistent dental care
Answer:
Systemic Phase:
Review the patient’s medical history for systemic conditions (e.g., diabetes) that may influence periodontal disease.
Discuss smoking cessation to improve oral health outcomes and overall systemic health.
Acute Phase:
Address the patient’s chief complaint by stabilizing the loose teeth with thorough supragingival scaling and application of desensitizing agents to relieve sensitivity.
Temporarily restore caries on teeth 26 and 27 if they cause discomfort.
Control Phase:
Perform non-surgical periodontal therapy, including subgingival scaling and root debridement, to manage periodontal pockets and gingival inflammation.
Remove plaque and calculus thoroughly to reduce bacterial load.
Place permanent restorations for 26 and 27, using indirect pulp capping techniques if necessary.
Correct overhangs or defective margins on existing restorations to enhance periodontal health.
Definitive Phase:
Refer to a periodontist for further management of deep periodontal pockets if non-surgical therapy does not achieve sufficient results.
Refer to a prosthodontist for consultation regarding space management and replacement options for the missing 36 (e.g., implant or bridge).
Consider an orthodontic consultation if there is significant drifting of adjacent teeth into the edentulous space.
Maintenance Phase:
Schedule 3-month periodontal maintenance visits to monitor pocket depth reduction and evaluate oral hygiene improvements.
Apply fluoride varnish at each recall to manage caries risk.
85
Tx plan: A 35-year-old patient presents with concerns about a missing tooth (46) and sensitivity to cold in the upper left quadrant. Clinical examination reveals multiple carious lesions on 25 (distal), 26 (occlusal), and 27 (mesial), with radiographs indicating deep caries on 25 approaching the pulp. The patient also has 4–5 mm pockets in the posterior quadrants.
Answer:
Systemic Phase:
Review the patient’s medical history for contraindications to dental treatment and any medications affecting oral health.
Conduct a caries risk assessment and discuss dietary modifications to reduce sugar intake.
Acute Phase:
Address the chief complaint of sensitivity by sealing the carious lesions on 25, 26, and 27 with temporary restorations or fluoride varnish.
Manage immediate gingival bleeding and inflammation with thorough supragingival scaling.
Control Phase:
Perform non-surgical periodontal therapy, including subgingival scaling and root debridement, focusing on posterior quadrants.
Restore 26 and 27 with permanent restorations, and perform an indirect pulp cap on 25 if indicated by the depth of the lesion.
Provide oral hygiene education tailored to improving interdental cleaning and plaque control.
Definitive Phase:
Refer to a prosthodontist or orthodontist for space management and restoration options for the missing 46, considering potential drifting of adjacent teeth.
Refer to a periodontist if periodontal therapy fails to stabilize the pockets or bone loss is observed.
Maintenance Phase:
Recall every 3 months for periodontal maintenance and fluoride application.
Monitor the integrity of restorations and patient compliance with oral hygiene instructions.
86
Scenario 3:
A 40-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of bleeding gums and difficulty chewing due to multiple missing teeth (36, 37, 46). Clinical examination reveals generalized moderate periodontitis with 5–7 mm pockets, bleeding on probing, multiple caries on teeth 16 (mesial), 27 (distal), and 45 (occlusal), and significant plaque accumulation.
Systemic Phase:
Evaluate the patient’s medical history for conditions such as hypertension or diabetes that may impact periodontal treatment.
Recommend a medical consultation for suspected systemic risk factors contributing to periodontal disease.
Acute Phase:
Address the patient’s chief complaint by performing thorough supragingival scaling and applying an antimicrobial rinse to reduce inflammation and bleeding.
pA and pulpal test: (16, 27, 45).
Control Phase:
Conduct quadrant-based non-surgical periodontal therapy, including subgingival scaling and root debridement, with close monitoring of pocket depth reduction.
Restore 16, 27, and 45 with permanent composite restorations, using indirect pulp capping where caries depth indicates proximity to the pulp.
Remove plaque and calculus deposits, and correct defective margins of any adjacent restorations to promote periodontal health.
Definitive Phase:
Refer to a prosthodontist for space management and replacement options for missing 36, 37, and 46 (e.g., partial denture or implant-supported prosthesis).
Refer to a periodontist for advanced care if periodontal pockets persist or if bone grafting is required.
Maintenance Phase:
Schedule 3-month periodontal maintenance appointments, focusing on monitoring pocket depths and reinforcing oral hygiene practices.
Apply fluoride varnish at each recall to protect against further caries.
87
What does "veracity" mean in the context of healthcare and dentistry?
Veracity is the quality of being true, honest, or accurate. It involves truth-telling, which is essential for patient autonomy and maintaining trust in professional relationships.
88
Why might it be challenging to maintain veracity in dental practice? Provide an example.
Challenges arise when disclosing all treatment options conflicts with personal beliefs about what is best for the patient. For example, not offering all treatment options for a cracked tooth because the practitioner believes one is superior deprives the patient of informed choice.
89
How does veracity relate to patient autonomy?
By being truthful, clinicians respect the patient's right to make informed decisions about their care, ensuring autonomy is preserved.
90
In Case 1, why is it problematic for the dentist to only offer the crown as an option for a cracked tooth caused by a large amalgam?
It deprives the patient of the autonomy to choose between leaving the tooth, replacing it with a composite, or getting a crown.
91
Why is using a placebo, like fluoride varnish, on an undiagnosed painful area considered unethical in dentistry?
It involves deception, which undermines trust and violates the ethical obligation of truth-telling.
92
What is "open disclosure," and why is it critical in healthcare?
Open disclosure is the honest discussion of incidents causing patient harm. It builds trust, meets patient rights, and is essential for quality improvement.
93
List three principles of open disclosure.
Open and timely communication.
Acknowledgment of the situation.
Apology or expression of regret, including the words "I am sorry."
94
How does the Civil Liabilities Act 2002 (NSW) protect apologies in healthcare?
An apology does not constitute an admission of fault or liability and is not relevant to the determination of fault.
95
What are two common reasons patients sue healthcare professionals?
Patients often sue to get answers or apologies and to prevent future harm to others.
96
How can misleading advertisements, such as overly favorable before-and-after photos, violate the principle of veracity?
They create false expectations and erode trust in the dental profession.
97
Why is honesty in patient interactions especially critical for dental professionals?
As registered professionals, they are held to higher standards, and dishonesty can lead to severe professional consequences.
98
Why is open disclosure considered an attribute of high-quality health service organizations?
It reflects a commitment to transparency, patient-centered care, and continuous improvement in healthcare.
99
Case:
A patient visits your clinic with a cracked molar. The crack was caused by a large amalgam filling. Treatment options include leaving the tooth as is, replacing the filling with a composite, or referring the patient for a crown. You believe the crown is the best option and decide not to discuss the other choices.
Question:
What ethical principle is compromised in this scenario, and how should the situation be handled?
The principle of veracity is compromised, as the patient is not provided with all treatment options. This limits their autonomy. The clinician should discuss all viable options, including the pros and cons of each, and allow the patient to make an informed decision.
100
A patient complains of vague pain in the lower left quadrant, but neither clinical examination nor radiographs reveal a clear issue. To satisfy the patient, you apply fluoride varnish and tell them it will alleviate the pain.
Question:
Is this approach ethical? Why or why not?
Answer:
This approach is unethical because it involves deception. Using a placebo undermines trust and violates the principle of veracity. Instead, the clinician should explain the findings honestly, acknowledge the patient's pain, and suggest monitoring or seeking a specialist if the issue persists.
101
While performing scaling, you accidentally cut the patient’s tongue. The patient does not notice immediately, but there is minor bleeding.
Question:
What steps should you take following this adverse event?
Answer:
The clinician should practice open disclosure by immediately informing the patient about the incident, explaining what happened, and providing appropriate care for the injury. Apologize sincerely without admitting liability, as protected under the Civil Liabilities Act 2002 (NSW).
102
You post an advertisement showcasing a before-and-after image of a tooth whitening procedure. The "after" image is edited to make the gingiva appear healthier than it actually is.
Question:
What ethical principle does this violate, and how can such practices be avoided?
This violates the principle of veracity, as the advertisement is misleading. To avoid such practices, only use unaltered images and ensure all claims are truthful and reflective of realistic outcomes.
103
Mr. Lee reports sharp pain in his upper right quadrant. You suspect pulpitis but cannot confirm based on the radiograph. You suggest an immediate root canal without explaining the uncertainty of your diagnosis.
Question:
What should you have done to uphold the principle of veracity?
Answer:
The clinician should have explained the uncertainty of the diagnosis, discussed the possible causes of pain, and provided the patient with options, such as further observation, symptomatic treatment, or referral for specialist assessment.
104
While extracting a molar, you accidentally loosen an adjacent healthy tooth. The patient does not immediately notice. Question:
What is the appropriate course of action?
Answer:
Inform the patient about the incident immediately, explain the potential consequences, and outline steps to address the situation. Offer appropriate treatment or referral if needed. Document the incident thoroughly and comply with open disclosure principles.
105
You inform a patient that using a specific high-end toothpaste will "guarantee no cavities," despite the lack of evidence to support this claim.Question:
How should you address this conversation to adhere to ethical principles?
The clinician should provide accurate, evidence-based advice, emphasizing that while good oral hygiene and fluoride toothpaste reduce the risk of cavities, no product can guarantee complete prevention.
106
Case:
You recommend a surgical extraction of an impacted wisdom tooth but fail to mention the potential risks of nerve damage or dry socket.
Question:
What principle is breached, and how can this be corrected?
The principle of veracity is breached by omitting critical information. To correct this, the clinician must disclose all significant risks and benefits of the procedure, allowing the patient to provide informed consent.
107
Case:
Your supervising dentist asks you to downplay the severity of periodontal disease when explaining it to a patient because "it might scare them." What should you do to maintain ethical practice?
Answer:
Politely explain to the supervisor that withholding information is unethical and undermines the patient's autonomy. Present the condition truthfully to the patient, ensuring they understand its seriousness and the importance of treatment.
108
You notice a colleague frequently omitting adverse events from patient records to avoid scrutiny.
Answer:
Report the behavior to the appropriate authority or supervisor, as it violates the principle of veracity and compromises patient safety. Address the issue professionally, ensuring it is resolved in alignment with ethical and legal standards.
109
What criteria must be met to classify a patient as Grade C?
≥2 mm CAL or RBL over 5 years, bone loss/age ratio >1.0, destruction exceeds expectations for biofilm levels, or significant systemic factors like uncontrolled diabetes or heavy smoking.
Mnemonic: "C is for Catastrophic Changes."
110
What role does diabetes play in grading periodontitis?
Answer:
Uncontrolled diabetes (HbA1c ≥7.0%) acts as a systemic modifier, increasing inflammation and the likelihood of rapid progression, often elevating the grade to C.
Mnemonic: "Diabetes Drives Damage."
111
How can the bone loss/age ratio help differentiate between Grade B and Grade C?
Answer:
Grade B: Bone loss/age ratio is 0.25–1.0.
Grade C: Bone loss/age ratio is >1.0, indicating destruction disproportionate to the patient’s age.
Mnemonic: "B is Balanced Bone Loss, C is Critical Collapse."
112
What are the key characteristics of Stage I periodontitis?
Answer:
CAL: 1–2 mm
Bone loss: Coronal third (<15%)
No tooth loss
Probing depths ≤4 mm with mostly horizontal bone loss.
Mnemonic: "I is for 'Initial and Infrequent.'"
113
What are the key differences between Stage I and Stage II periodontitis?
CAL: Stage II = 3–4 mm (vs. 1–2 mm in Stage I).
Bone loss: Extends to the coronal third (15–33%).
Probing depths ≤5 mm, with more severe horizontal bone loss.
Still no tooth loss.
Mnemonic: "II is for 'Intermediate Increase.'"
114
What management approach is typical for Stage II periodontitis?
Answer:
Straightforward management with bacterial control, scaling, and monitoring.
Mnemonic: "Stage II needs Twice the Cleaning."
115
What are the defining features of Stage III periodontitis?
Answer:
CAL: ≥5 mm
Bone loss: Extends to the middle third of the root.
Tooth loss: Up to 4 teeth lost due to periodontitis.
Probing depths ≥6 mm, vertical bone loss, or furcation involvement.
Mnemonic: "III is for 'Intense Involvement.'"
116
What complications arise in Stage III periodontitis?
Furcation involvement, vertical defects, mobility, and loss of masticatory function.
Mnemonic: "Stage III is a Troublesome Triangle."
117
How does Stage IV differ from Stage III?
Answer:
Bone loss: Extends to the apical third.
Tooth loss: 5 or more teeth.
Probing depths ≥6 mm, combined with mobility and secondary occlusal trauma.
Patient requires rehabilitation of function and aesthetics.
Mnemonic: "IV is for 'Function Failure.'"
118
What are the key management priorities for Stage IV periodontitis?
Answer:
Complex rehabilitation with stabilization of function (e.g., implants, prosthodontics).
Address mobility and secondary occlusal trauma.
Mnemonic: "Stage IV = Very Intense Reconstruction."
119
What determines the "extent" of periodontal destruction in staging?
Answer:
Localized: <30% of teeth affected.
Generalized: >30% of teeth affected.
Molar-incisor pattern: Involves first molars and incisors.
Mnemonic: "Extent Explains Coverage."
120
How does radiographic bone loss (RBL) influence staging?
Answer:
Stage I: Coronal third (<15%)
Stage II: Coronal third (15–33%)
Stages III & IV: Extends to the middle or apical third.
Mnemonic: "Stages Grow with the Depth of Damage."
121
Lay Mnemonics Recap AAP Dx
**Stage I: **"Initial and Infrequent" – Minimal damage, no tooth loss.
**Stage II: **"Intermediate Increase" – Moderate progression.
**Stage III:** "Intense Involvement" – Significant bone loss and complications.
**Stage IV: **"Function Failure" – Severe damage, mobility, and loss of function.
**Extent: **"Extent Explains Coverage" – Localized vs. Generalized.
**Bone Loss**: "Stages Grow with the Depth of Damage."
