OS III Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major landmarks of the auricle?

A

Helix, anti-helix, tragus, anti-tragus, lobule, concha.

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2
Q

Where are the ceruminous glands and what do they produce?

A

Modified apocrine glands that produce cerumen (a lipid based secretion). Different from ear wax which is a combination of cerumen and sloughed skin cells and sebaceos secretions.

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3
Q

What nerves innervate the inner and outer surfaces of the tympanic cavity?

A

The outer surface is inervated namely by V3 of the trigeminal superiorly, the vagus inferiorly. The inner surface is innervated by the glosspharyngeal (IX).

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4
Q

How does swallowing equalize pressure in the middle ear?

A

Swallowing opens the eustachian tube. It is the only opening in this closed compartment.

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5
Q

Describe the Eustachian tube and what muscles open it.

A

Cartilagenous tube that connects the tympanic cavity to the nasopharynx. Opened by levator and tensor palati, and salpingopharyngeus.

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6
Q

Describe the ossicles, their attachments and their significance in transmission of sound.

A

The ossicles convert vibrations in the tympanic membrane (air) into mechanical vibration. The malleus attaches to the incus to the stapes. The stapes transmits the vibration through the oval window into the cochlea.

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7
Q

Where are the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles, to what do they attach and what do they do?

A

Tensor tympani (V3 of trigeminal) attaches to the malleus and stapedius (facial, VII) to the stapes. Both muscles dampen vibration.

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8
Q

Describe the chorda tympani in terms of: source, how it passes through the tympanic cavity, and its function.</p>

A

It branches off of the facial nerve (VII), passes between the malleus and tympanic membrane. , exits, and joins V3 as it approaches the oral cavity. Contains sensory and autonomic axons. Sensory mediate taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue. PNS to salivary glands (submandibular and sublingual).

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9
Q

Where does otitis media occur?

A

Middle ear, can impact the chorda tympani. Fluid builds up, causing influx from the nasopharynx.

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10
Q

What is the tegmen tympani and its significance in spread of infection?

A

It is a small layer of bone between middle ear and cranial cavity, if disrupted by infection can cause meningitis or brain abscess.

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11
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

Skin from the ear canal fills with cysts and migrates to perforate the tympanic membrane.

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12
Q

Describe the spaces in the cochlea.

A

Helical bony canal dividid into three spaces: cochlear duct, scala tympani, scala vestibuli.

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13
Q

Describe the cochlear duct in terms of membranes, windows and fluid.

A

Membranous duct that encloses the organ of Corti, seperate from scala tympani and vestibuli. Stapes vibrates perilymph at oval window while the round window absorbs outward displacements of fluid vibrations at the end of the cochlea.

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14
Q

What is the difference between perilymph and endolymph?

A

Perilymph: in the scala vestibuli and tympani and is higher in Na. Endolymph: secreted by the stria vascularis and has a high K+ content and low Na+. Limited to the cochlear duct.

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15
Q

Describe the organ of Corti in terms of location, cell types, relation to the tectorial membrane.

A

Epithelial layer on the basilar membrane, covered by the tectorial membrane. Inner and outer hair cells respond to movement of the tectoral membrane. Vibration of the basilar membrane against the tectoral membrane, stimulates stereocilia. Hair cells activate sensry neurons of the cochlear nerve.

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16
Q

What is the difference between the inner and outer hair cell in terms of location, function?

A

Inner hair cells lie closer to the folcrum of the basilar and tectorial membranes are the primary sensory cells. Outer hair cells lie futher out and act more like mechanical amplifier.

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17
Q

What is the difference between the inner and outer hair cell in terms of innervation, and impact on sound reception?

A

Inner hair cells project information to the cochlear nerve. Outer hair cells enhance weak auditory signals via electromotile response, small sensory nerve contribution (5%)

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18
Q

How does the cochlea encode sound frequencies?

A

Frequencies are differentiated according to how flexible the basilar membrane is and width of base to apex. Tonopic: spacial representation of sound. Each frequency has a maximal amplitude at a certain location of the basilar membrane where it generates an impulse.

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19
Q

What are the major brain stem steps by which sound information reaches the cortex?

A

Medullary auditory nuclei project up the lateral meniscus to the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate to the primary auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

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20
Q

How does the superior olive localize sound?

A

<p>olive. It notes disparity in time and intensity between R & L sounds to localize the object. Time difference localizes low frequencies, while intensity difference localizes high frequencies.
</p>

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21
Q

Describe the anatomy and impact of superior olivary feedback onto the organ of Corti.

A

Efferent olivocochlear neurons from the superior olive regulate hair cell sensitivity and electormotile response. Applies in quiet and noisy situations, that allow low level sound detection and improved discrimination respectively.

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22
Q

What is efferent superior olivary feedback stimulated by?

A

Sensory input from cochlear nuclei, reticular formation, auditory cortex (influenced by limbic systme).

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23
Q

Describe the location and function of the primary auditory cortex.

A

Located in the superior temporal lobe, tontotopic organization of frequencies synthesized into sound forms.

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24
Q

What is the importance of the inferior colliculus?

A

Projects sound to cortex and motor through cranial nerve tracts (associated with orientation of the head and other regions for sound localization).

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25
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

Sensation of sound without external stimulus.

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26
Q

Compare subjective and somatic types of tinnitus.

A

Subjective: phantom auditory perception. Somatic: sound produced by excitatory stimulus to the cochlear nerve within the nervous system. Somatic is a type of subjective.

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27
Q

What are the dorsal and ventral streams of cortical processing of auditory information? What are their functions?

A

Dorsal stream: where. projects to parietal-temporal junction and frontal lobe, broca’s area, left dominant. Ventral stream: speech comprehension, Wernicke’s area (key language are), bilateral.

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28
Q

How is music processed in the cortex?

A

All of the cortices are involved, but asymmetrically. Singing employs more activation in the right auditory region of temporal lobe. Modulates activity in limbic system :amygdala, insula, hippocampus. Can stimulate visceromotor system.

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29
Q

What are the different regions of the membranous labyrinth? </p>

A

Semicircular ducts (within the semicircular canals), saccule & utricle (within the vestibule)

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30
Q

Where are the perilymph and endolymph?</p>

A

Perilymph is produces by the periosteum and drains into CSF via the perilymphatic duct. Endolymph is secreated by the cochlear duct and drains into the dural sinuses via the endolymphatic duct.

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31
Q

What is Meniere’s disease and what causes it?

A

Transiet vertigo, nausea, vomiting, abnormal saccadic eye movements. Excess endolymph and fluid pressure affect receptor function.

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32
Q

Describe the structure and function of the crista.

A

The crista is the receptor in each semicircular canal ampulla. It is comprised of hair cells that make up a gelatinous mass, cupula. Each hair cell has a primary kinocilium and several stereocilia.

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33
Q

How does endolymph move?

A

It doesn’t move. It maintains position. E.g. walking with a soup bowl

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34
Q

What is detected by the semicircular ducts?

A

Relative motion of endolymph during head rotation.

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35
Q

Describe the structure and function of the saccule and utricle.

A

Epithelium with receptor cells with kinocilium and stereocilia projecting into a gelatinous layer. Otoliths (calcium carbonate stones) lie on top.

36
Q

What do the saccule and utricle respond to and what is the mechanism?

A

They respond to changes in velocity due to gravity or head movement. They are at right angles to one antoher. The inertia of otolliths or the gravitational pull on the otoliths dteremin which receptor cells are affected.

37
Q

Briefly describe acoustic neuromas and their impact on vestibular function.

A

Benign tumor of the myelin-forming cells of the inferior vetibular nerve. Compresses the vestibular nerve, cochlear nerve, or both.

38
Q

What causes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Otoliths falling into semicircular canals, stimulating a response. Conflicting sensory input. Can be caused by head injury, age, or infection.

39
Q

To what structures do the vestibular nuclei project vestibular information?

A

Thalamus, cortex, spinal cord (postural contrl), brain stem nuclei (eye movement), autonomic centers (vascular control).

40
Q

Describe the VOR in terms of actions.

A

Rotation of head stimulates eye movement as to allow visual fixation on a single object. Requires connection to cerebellum. Equal and opposite movement.

41
Q

How does the cerebellum impact the VOR?

A

It coordinates the movement of the eyes to match the movement of the head detected by the semicircular canals.

42
Q

What is Nystagmus? Does it occur normally or just pathologically?

A

Involuntary saccadic movements when the eye is moving (physiologic, VOR) or at rest (pathological, damage to vestibular system).

43
Q

What does the vestibule-sympathetic reflex do?

A

VSR protects against syncope by enhancing vasoconstriction (RVLM) during postural changes or emotional streess. Also active in sea-sickness.

44
Q

Where is the vestibular cortex?

A

Vestibular cortex is spread out ot interface with all the perceptive centers. All of your sensory information is in the context of where you are. There is a high-density in the TPJ (Temporal-parietal junction).

45
Q

How does the vestibular cortex relate to other sensory modalities?

A

It relats to all them, every thing you perceive is in the context of where you believe your body to be. Sense of self.

46
Q

What is autoscopy?

A

Lack of congruence among sensory inputs, causing one to see one’s body seperately in extrapersonal space.

47
Q

What impact does the vestibular system have on cerebral circulation, and under what circumstances?

A

When standing, vestibular system dilates cerebral vessels. Important to ensure brain has sufficient blood flow. Sympathetic inhibition: vestibular nuclei project to cerebellum to RVLM. Vestibular nuclei: projects to solitary nucleus then to pterygopalatine (PNS) ganglion which dilates.

48
Q

What are the four types of papillaw on the tongue?

A

Filiform, fungiform, circumvallate, foliate

49
Q

Describe filiform papillae.

A

NO taste buds. For touch, pain and temperature.

50
Q

Describe fungifrom papillae.

A

Anterior part of tongue, contain one or more taste buds.

51
Q

Describe circumvallate papillae.

A

Inverted V near back of tongue

52
Q

Describe foliate papillae.

A

Small trenches on sides of posterior tongue.

53
Q

What is meant by the term supertaster?

A

Heightened response to taste due to increased fungiform papillae(?).

54
Q

How do the different taste receptors differ from each other?

A

Salty is a Na receptor. Sour, a H+ receptor. Sweet, butter, and umami are metabotropic receptors. Via IP3 or cAMP cause depolarization -> Ca influx -> transmitter release.

55
Q

How does the intestinal peptide GLP-1 affect taste reception?

A

It enhance sensitivity to sweet, decreases sensitivity to umami. Related to hormone responses.

56
Q

Trace the taste pathways from the tongue regions to the insula.

A

Tast receptors transmit via the Trigeminal (V), Glossopharyngeal (IX), and Vagus (X) and project to the solitary nucleus -> ipsilaterlly to the ventral posterior medial nucleus (VPL) -> primary gustatory cortex (or insula)

57
Q

What does the insula do for taste?

A

Identification and intensity, discriminative aspect of taste.

58
Q

What is the secondary gustatory cortex called?

A

Orbitofrontal cortex (OFC), receives input from insula. Relates to appreciation of flavor, food reward, and control of feeding. Integrates taste, olfaction, and visual cues. Hedonistic part of brain.

59
Q

Describe how odorants activate receptor cells.

A

Open Na/Cl channels via G protein/cAMP mechanism. Na/Cl further opens Cl channels.

60
Q

How do odorants stimulate receptor adaptation?

A

Calcium is key to modulating a prolonged stimulation. Mechanism inhibits opening of the channels

61
Q

How many odorant receptors does each receptor cell have?

A

One, humans have 300 types of receptor cells.

62
Q

What must be true of odorants in order for them to be received?

A

Mucous soluble (lipid soluble)

63
Q

Describe the piriform cortex (structure, location).

A

Piriform cortex is on the medial surface of the temporal lobe and projects to the hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex.

64
Q

How does the piriform cortex process olfactory information?

A

Singularity - each odor is perceived as one event, not components. Habituation -rapid reduction in response with continued chemical response, helps to detect new odorants. Consciousness -projects directly to OFC, having to do with autonomic and emotional response not mediated by thalamus.

65
Q

Describe how the amygdala and orbitofrontal cortex process olfactory information.

A

Amygdala allows odors to me more emotionally provoking, conditioning to aversive or pleasant events. Hippocampus give episodic long term memory from smell. You remember the scene/event not the particular smell.

66
Q

Describe how intranasal substances such as viruses and peptides are transported to the CNS.

A

Follow the olfactory nerves through the cribifrom plate, along axons to the olfactory bulb.

67
Q

What bones form the neurocranium and how are they formed?

A

Intramembranous ossification: interparietal part of occipital, parietal, frontal, squamous temporal.

68
Q

What bones form the cranial base and how are they formed?

A

Cartilagenous islands fuse to form the ethmoid, sphenoid, petrous temporal, and occipital bones.

69
Q

What bones form the viscerocranium and how are they formed?

A

Cartilagneous: ossicles, hyoid bone. Membranous: face bones.

70
Q

Skull bones and cartilage are derived from the interaction of what three components?

A

Neural crest cells, local medsoderm somites, outer epithelial layers (mostly)

71
Q

What structure determines the shame of the skull?

A

Soft tissues: brain, CT, muscle.

72
Q

What is the spheno-occipital synchondrosis and when does it close?

A

Close in mid-teens and end longitudinal growth of skull. Also spheno-ethmoidal.

73
Q

What is the cranial base angle and how does it affect the shape of the face?

A

Angle between occipital and sphenoid bone. Predicts position of the mandible. Large angle: square jaw, overbite malocclusions. Small angle: wide angled mandibls and protrusion type of malocclusion.

74
Q

What types of cells converge in the pharyngeal arches?

A

Mesenchyme and neural crest cells.

75
Q

What types of tissues do these cells in the pharyngeal arches produce?

A

Artery, cartilage, bone, nerve.

76
Q

What are the key nerve, muscle and bony/cartilage structures associated with the major pharyngeal arches?

A

Aortic arch, cranial nerves V, VII, IX, X, cartilage (thyroid, cricoid), mandible, maxilla.

77
Q

What are pharyngeal grooves and pouches?

A

Grooves are external indentations between archs. Pouchs are internal protrusions of the arch before the respective groove.

78
Q

Describe the embryological origins and any migrations of the auditory system.

A

Mandibular and hyoid arches. Groove 1 becomes external auditory meatus. Pouch 1 becomes tympanic cavity and auditory tube.

79
Q

Describe the embryological origins and any migrations of the palatine tonsil.

A

Pouch 2 becomes the palatine tonsil

80
Q

Describe the embryological origins and any migrations of the thymus.

A

Pouch 3 migrate down neck with parathyroid

81
Q

Describe the embryological origins and any migrations of the parathyroid and thyroid glands.

A

Pouch 4 parathyroid and C-cells of thyroid migrate down into neck.

82
Q

What is the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid?

A

Finger like projection of thyroid tissue that did not descend completely.

83
Q

What abnormalities can be seen with issues in the descent of the thyroid?

A

Ectopic thyroid and cysts.

84
Q

How is the face formed from the pharyngeal arches?

A

Medial migration and fusion of maxillary, mandibular, nasomedial and nasolateral processes. All from 1st pharyngeal arch.

85
Q

What are the underlying developmental steps that lead to cleft lip and palate?

A

Failure of maxillary and medial nasal prominences to fuse normally. Failure of closure of palatine process of maxilla.

86
Q

Describe three characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome.

A

Smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, eyes wide apart.