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[OS 202] Lecture Exam B > OS 202 B Samplex 2014 B > Flashcards

OS 202 B Samplex 2014 B Flashcards

1
Q

Words are seen and understood as patterns and not as strings of letters by the

A. Angular gyrus
B. Fusiform gyrus
C. Supramarginal gyrus
D. Superior temporal gyrus

A

B

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2
Q

Frontal eye field is located at the jucntion of the

a. Angular gyrus
b. Fusiform gyrus
c. Supramarginal gyrus
d. Superior temporal gyrus

A

B

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3
Q

The decision to stop surfing the internet/partying and start studying for this examination is mediated by the

a. Amygdala
b. Anterior cingulate gyrus
c. Orbitofrontal cortex
d. Nucleus accumbens

A

B

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4
Q

The guilty feeling that you shouldn’t be in the movie house and studying instead is mediated by the

a. Amygdala
b. Anterior cingualate gyrus
c. Orbitofrontal gyrus
d. Nucleus accumbens

A

C

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5
Q

The anger that boils within you when nothing of what you studied comes out in the exam is mediated by the

a. Amygdala
b. ACC
c. OFC
d. Nucleus accumbens

A

A

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6
Q

Ability to read and write is mediated by the

a. Angular gyrus
b. Supramarginal gyrus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area

A

A

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7
Q

The loss of the ability to speak without the loss of
comprehension mediates a lesion in the

a. Angular gyrus
b. Supramarginal gyrus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area

A

D

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8
Q

A person capable of speaking fluently, but without
making any sense at all:

a. Is normal, like someone you know
b. Lesion in Broca’s area
c. Lesion in Wernicke’s area
d. Lesion in Extreme capsule

A

C

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9
Q

A person who can identify objects placed in the left
hand and can’t simulate brushing her teeth with the left hand

a. Has a lesion in the right supramarginal gyrus
b. Has a lesion in the left angular gyrus
c. Has a lesion in the corpus callusom
d. Has left hemineglect

A

C

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10
Q

The ability to jump, somersault, then land on your hands with your head, torso and legs in perfect alignment is mediated by the

a. Cerebellum and dorsal column
b. Primary motor and somatosensory cortices
c. Supplementary motor area and visual cortex
d. AOTA

A

D

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11
Q

Combined palsies of the III, IV, VI are seen with lesions in the

a. Supraorbital fissure
b. Cavernous sinus
c. Pons
d. A and B

A

D

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12
Q

Among the cranial nerves below, which one has no
bilateral innervation?

a. V
b. VI
c. VII
d. XII

A

B

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13
Q

INO on looking to right involves the

a. Median longitudinal fasciculus between right CN VI and right CN III
b. Left parapontine reticular formation and Left abducens nucleus
c. Median longitudunal fasciculus between right CN VI and left CN III
d. Median longitudunal fasciculus between left CN VI and left CN III

A

C

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14
Q

An elderly woman with one and half syndrome (complete paralysis of the right eye with intact abduction of the left eye) has a lesion that involves the:

a. Bilateral CN II nuclei
b. Bilateral MLF
c. Right PPRF and Right abducens nuclei
d. B and C

A

D

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15
Q

The direction of gaze when the patient has a stroke in the pons.

a. Toward the side of the lesion
b. Away from the lesion
c. Downward and out
d. Downward only

A

B

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16
Q

Peripheral nerve weakness without the loss in taste nor hyperacusis due to a lesion at the level of the:

a. Internal acoustic meatus
b. Facial canal
c. Stylomastoid foramen
d. Cerebellopontine angle

A

C

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17
Q

A middle aged seaman with stroke presenting as tongue deviation to the left and paralysis of the right arm and leg (sparing the right face) points to a lesion involving the

a. Left lateral frontoparietal cortex
b. Left internal capsule posterior limb
c. Left ventral pons
d. Left medial medulla

A

D

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18
Q

Hoarseness due to paralysis of the left vocal cord can be due to

a. a tumor enroaching IX and X as they exit the jugular foramen
b. transection of the Left recurrent laryngeal nerve as it loops around the aorta
c. infiltrative tumor in the meninges at the base of the skull
d. AOTA

A

D

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19
Q

Turning the head to the right is brought about by

a. Contraction of the R sternomastoid
b. Contraction of the L sternomastoid
c. Activation of the L putamen
d. B and C

A

B

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20
Q

Opening of the mouth involves the

a. Temporal
b. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Lateral pterygoid

A

D

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21
Q

How does central facial palsy manifest?

A. Weakness of the entire half of the face ipsilateral to the lesion
B. Weakness of the entire half of the face contralateral to the lesion
C. Weakness of the lower half of the face ipsilateral to the lesion
D. Weakness of the lower half of the face contralateral to the lesion
E. Weakness of both sides of the lower half of the face

A

D

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22
Q

All these cranial nerves originate from the pons
EXCEPT

A. VII
B. V
C. III
D. VIII
E. VI
A

C

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23
Q

What activates the Golgi tendon organ?

a. stretch
b. pain
c. tension
d. passive movement
e. pressure

A

C

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24
Q

All these cranial nerves are purely motor EXCEPT

a. III
b. VII
c. IV
d. VI
e. XII

A

B

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25
Q

The corticospinal tract passes through which part of the internal capsule?

a. Anterior limb
b. Genu
c. Posterior limb
d. Middle 2/3

A

C

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26
Q

In the lamination of the cerebral peduncle in the midbrain, where are the descending fibers of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts located?

A. Middle
B. Lateral
C. Medial
D. Superior
E. Inferior
A

A

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27
Q

Which is not true of the corticospinal tract?

a. Crossed fibers occupy the lateral funiculus
b. Uncrossed fibers occupy the anteromedial portion of the spinal cord
c. In the lamination at the level of the upper cervical ganglion, fibers for the legs are more medial than the fibers for the arms
d. Descending fibers decussate before going down the spinal cord
e. The corticospinal tract is part of the upper motor neuron system

A

C

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28
Q

Which of the following is not consistent with upper motor neuron damage?

a. Spasticity
b. Hyperreflexia
c. Clonus
d. Babinski
e. Fibrillations

A

E

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29
Q

How do you characterize the type of weakness in a patient with a spinal cord hemisection of the right side at the level of C5-T1?

A. Weak and spastic right arm and right leg
B. Weak and spastic right leg, flaccid and weak right arm
C. Weak and spastic left leg, unaffected left arm
D. Weak and spastic left arm and left leg

A

B

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30
Q

What indirect pathway is responsible for neck muscle movements and to coordinate the head and eyes in response to stimuli

a. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Rubrospinal tract
c. Tectospinal tract
d. Reticulospinal tract

A

C

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31
Q

Which will increase cerebral blood flow?

a. Increased pH (alkalosis)
b. Decreased intra arterial oxygen tension
c. Decreased intra arterial carbon dioxide tension
d. Increased intraluminal pressure of cerebral BV

A

B

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32
Q

Glucose, the main metabolic substrate in the brain, is transported across the BBB through

a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Simple diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Solvent drag

A

A

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33
Q

Which strategy has the most rapid effect in decreasing ICP in the brain?

a. IV steroids
b. Osmotic diuretics
c. Hyperventilation
d. Dehydration

A

C

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34
Q

The anatomical basis of BBB

a. Tight junctions between capillary endothelial vessels
b. Astrocytic extensions
c. Basement membrane
d. AOTA

A

A

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35
Q

The following are extrinsic factors for regulation of CBF except

a. Efficiency of cardiac function
b. State of cerebral vasculature
c. Systemic blood pressure
d. Viscosity of blood

A

B

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36
Q

Main mechanism for cerebral autoregulation

a. Neurogenic factors
b. Chemical metabolic factors
c. Autonomic factors
d. Myogenic factors

A

D

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37
Q

Which of the following compounds cannot pass
through the BBB?

a. Caffeine
b. Nicotine
c. Ethanol
d. Mannitol

A

D

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38
Q

Which is not present in cerebral circulation?

a. Lymphatic drainage
b. Virchow-robin spaces
c. Capillary endothelial tight junctions
d. Multiple anastomoses of arteries

A

A

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39
Q

Blood brain barrier absent in all except:

a. Area postrema of the caudal 4th ventricle
b. Tuber cinereum of the hypothalamus
c. Globus pallidus
d. Pineal gland

A

C

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40
Q

Normal blood flow through the brain (ml per 100 mg
brain tissue)

a. 3.7 ml
b. 25 ml
c. 55 ml
d. 80 ml

A

C

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41
Q

Which neurotransmitter most associated with attention to novel and challenging stimuli?

a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Norepinephrine

A

D

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42
Q

If a person can answer simple questions and commands but easily gets distracted to pursue sustained activities, which is/are intact in this situation?

a. Alertness
b. Attention
c. Vigilance
d. AOTA

A

A

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43
Q

Area most associated with motivation

a. Love
b. Cingulate gyrus
c. Amygdaloid
d. Mammillary body

A

B

44
Q

A 65 yr old female was rushed to the hospital because of sudden limb weakness and headache. CT scan showed a well circumscribed hemorrhage at the area of the caudal pons. What would you expect arousability in this patient to be?

a. Increased
b. Impaired
c. Not impaired
d. NOTA

A

C

45
Q

A 45 yr old patient has successfully resuscitated 15 minutes after cardiac arrest. On examination 2 weeks later, he was observed to follow regular waking and sleeping pattern but had no indication of any meaningful response to external stimuli. What is intact?

a. Alertness
b. Arousability
c. Consciousness
d. AOTA

A

B

46
Q

“REM-on cell” which fire at faster rates during REM
sleep are located at the
a. Dorsolateral pontine reticular formation
b. Dorsal raphe nuclei of brainstem
c. Nucleus locus ceruleus
d. NOTA

A

A

47
Q

The triggering mechanism for genesis of REM sleep depends on neurons which release:

a. Serotonin
b. Acetylcholine
c. Norepinephrine
d. AOTA

A

B

48
Q

Presence of sleep spindles, vertex sharp and K complexes are EEG patterns noted during which stage of non-REM sleep?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

B

49
Q

Sensory stimulation of the following produces an arousal response or desynchronization EXCEPT:

a. Reticular formation in the midbrain tegmentum b. Lateral spinothalamic tract below the midbrain c. Nonspecific projection nuclei of the thalamus
d. Specific sensory relay nuclei of the thalamus

A

D

50
Q

A type of higher cortical impairment wherein a patient can describe objects in their visual field in detail (color, texture, shape) but is unable to recognize the specific object.

A. Visual agnosia
B. Apraxia
C. Astereognosia
D. Anosognosia

A

A

51
Q

Brain area in the inferior frontal lobe responsible for
speech production

A. Wernicke’s
B. Broca’s
C. Arcuate fasciculus
D. Fasciculus cuneatus

A

B

52
Q

Patient can’t do repetition of words. The patient likely has:

a. Transcortical sensory aphasia
b. Disconnection syndrome
c. Conduction aphasia
d. Wernicke’s aphasia

A

C

53
Q

The internal circadian pacemaker of the body:

a. Supraoptic nucleus
b. Paraventricular nucleus
c. Hypothalamic nuclei
d. Suprachiasmatic nuclei

A

D

54
Q

Wakefulness is disrupted in lesions in the

a. Brainstem reticular formation
b. Bilateral thalami
c. Bilateral cerebral hemisphere
d. AOTA

A

D

55
Q

Dressing apraxia and left hemineglect present a
lesion at the

a. Frontal lobe
b. Right thalamus
c. Right parietal
d. Non-dependent temporal

A

C

56
Q

Denotes utter denial of obvious handicap or illness
(hemiplasia and blindness)

a. Anosognosia
b. Astereognosia
c. Visual agnosia
d. Hemineglect

A

A

57
Q

Echolalia, palilalia and neologisms are caused by a lesion in the

a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital

A

A

58
Q

Asking for a historical event tests for

a. Immediate
b. Recent
c. Delayed
d. Remote

A

D

59
Q

Mini-mental status is as good as a full higher cortical examination

a. True
b. False
c. Sometimes
d. All the time

A

B

60
Q

Anoetic consciousness is a characteristic of which type of memory?

a. Procedural
b. Episodic
c. Semantic
d. Long term

A

A

61
Q

Semantic memory is associated with what type of consciousness?

a. Noetic
b. Anoetic
c. Autonetic
d. Loss of consciousness

A

A

62
Q

This type of consciousness give phenomenological quality to remembrance and distinguishes it from perceiving, thinking or daydreaming

a. Anoetic
b. Autonoetic
c. Noetic
d. Mixed

A

B

63
Q

In the developmental phase of self-awareness, which age shows emergence of self-image and establishment of social role?

a. 1-3
b. 4-10
c. 11-14
d. 15-18

A

B

64
Q

Which of the following explains the situation when intention movements that are appropriate to both conflicting responses are combined into a single pattern?

a. Virtualization
b. Alteration
c. Ambivalence
d. Compromise formation

A

C

65
Q

Most common fear among cancer patients:

a. Pain
b. Abandonment of others
c. Shortness of breath
d. Financial aspects

A

B

66
Q

Stage of dying when God is the special target, and patient asks “Why me?”

a. Denial
b. Bargaining
c. Depression
d. Anger

A

D

67
Q

Stage of dying where there is devoid feelings, “my time is very close now and its alright”

a. Denial
b. Anger
c. Bargaining
d. Acceptance

A

D

68
Q

Bowlby’s stage of bereavement where the reality if
loss begins to sink in:

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

C

69
Q

Normal grieving period:

a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 10 months

A

C

70
Q

Neurotransmitter in striatonigral tract

a. GABA
b. Glutamate
c. Ach
d. Taurine

A

A

71
Q

Loop connecting globus pallidus to thalamus

a. Pallidonigral
b. Thalamostriate
c. Ansa reticularis
d. AOTA

A

C

72
Q

All the following are true, except:

a. Fibers from the caudate nucleus project to the substantia nigra
b. Striatal afferent fibers project to the globus pallidus and substabtia nigra
c. Globus pallidus is rich in GABA
d. A lesion in the striatum produces an increase in dopamine in the substantia nigra pars compacta

A

B

73
Q

Neurotransmitter of corticostriate tract:

a. GABA
b. Dopamine
c. Substance P
d. Glutamate

A

D

74
Q

All outputs from the globus pallidus are:

a. GABAergic
b. Glutaminergic
c. Dopaminergic
d. NOTA

A

A

75
Q

Corticostriate inputs are from the following:

a. Sensorimotor strip
b. Premotor strip
c. Frontal eye fields
d. AOTA

A

D

76
Q

The structure that lies between the lentiform nucleus and the insular cortex

a. Globus pallidus
b. Internal capsule
c. Caudate nucleus
d. Claustrum

A

D

77
Q

Pathological involvement of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia circuitry results to

a. Increased GABA stimulation of substantia nigra
b. Increased thalamic stimulation by the globus pallidus externa
c. Loss of stimulation of the substantia nigra pars reticularis by the D1 receptors
d. Decreased motor output

A

A

78
Q

The direct striatomedial pallidonigral pathways
activated by

a. GABA
b. Dopamine
c. Glutamate
d. GABA and dopamine
e. Dopamine and glutamate

A

E

79
Q

If the inputs from the substantia nigra pars compacta is reduced, there will be:

a. Increased direct pathway activation
b. Decreased indirect pathway activation
c. Increased indirect pathway activation
d. Decreased direct pathway inhibition

A

C

80
Q

Functions of the cerebellum

a. Posture and balance
b. Muscle tone
c. Coordination of involuntary motor activity
d. AOTA
e. A and B

A

E

81
Q

True about cerebellar peduncles

a. Peripheral information about the body enters the cerebellum via the inferior cerebellar peduncle
b. Higher cortical information travels via middle and inferior cerebellar peduncle
c. Processed output travels through middle cerebellar peduncle
d. AOTA

A

D

82
Q

True about the cerebellar cortex

a. The inhibitory purkinje cells at the purkinje layer are the sole ouput cell of the cerebellar cortex.
b. Molecular layer has basket and stellate neurons which modify purkinje projections
c. The excitatory granular neurons receives mossy fibers from the spinal cord, medulla and pons.
d. AOTA

A

D

83
Q

Superior cerebellar peduncle:

a. Also called branchium conjuctivum
b. Mainly carries efferent fibers
c. Ventral spinocerebellar afferent fibers pass through here
d. AOTA
e. A and B

A

D

84
Q

Predominantly truncal ataxia due to involvement of the

a. Lateral cerebellar hemisphere
b. Rostral vermis
c. Caudal vermis
d. Pons

A

C

85
Q

Major manifestations of cerebellar lesion except:

a. Limb ataxia
b. Resting tremor
c. Hypotonia
d. Truncal ataxia

A

B

86
Q

Main afferent fibers of the posterior lobe is carried by:

a. Spinocerebellar tract
b. Corticocerebellar tract
c. Vestibulospinal tract
d. NOTA

A

B

87
Q

The following statement(s) are true:

a. Cerebral hemisphere lesions shows contralateral signs
b. Cerebellar hemisphere lesions shows ipsilateral signs
c. Cerebellar lesions produce ipsilateral UMN signs
d. AOTA
e. A and B

A

E

88
Q

Cerebellar test for leg dystaxia:

a. Checking for pendular reflexes
b. Rapid alternating movements of the hand
c. Heel to shin test
d. Romberg’s

A

C

89
Q

Which of the following component of the cell is most vulnerable to the toxic effects of free radicals

a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Cholesterol
d. Polysacchrides

A

B

90
Q

Correct terms related to cerebellar lesions

a. Dysdiadokokinesia – incoordination to rapid alternating movements
b. Nystagmus – involuntary ; jerky eye movements
c. Hemiballismus is an involuntary sudden flinging movements of a limb
d. AOTA
e. A and B

A

E

91
Q

Caloric restriction in animals has been seen to retard a gene related pathophysiologic changes by:

a. Increased glutathione levels
b. Decreased production of ROS
c. Decreased energy utilization
d. Decreased NA-K-ATPase activity

A

B

92
Q

Which of the following activities would normally show some decline in normal aging individuals

a. Writing name
b. Judgment
c. Recall
d. Stating synonym and antonym

A

C

93
Q

In doing a neurological exam in an elderly, which of the following deep tendon reflexes usually be decreased or even absent

a. Biceps
b. Brachiradialis
c. Patellar
d. AOTA

A

C

94
Q

Which of the ff statements are true for somatic sensory system in the aging

a. Vibratory threshold declines with aging
b. Peripheral nerves in the distal limb are lewast affected in age related sensory changes
c. Large axons are most vulnerable to age related sensory changes
d. AOTA

A

C

95
Q

Neurotransmitter which shows consistent decline in the aging brain

a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Glutamate
d. Neuropeptides

A

D

96
Q

Which of the following phenomena is associated with aging?

a. It takes time to fall asleep
b. Sleep often interrupted
c. Often waking up early in the morning
d. AOTA

A

D

97
Q

Which of the following is true in the parasympathetic system?

a. Axons of the preganglionic neurons are in the ventral roots of the upper thoracic and lower lumbar.
b. Axons of postganglionic neurons are longer than those of the preganglionic
c. Neurotransmitter released in the postganglionoc neurons stimulate the postsynaptic nicotinic receptors
d. AOTA

A

C

98
Q

Stimulation of the postganglionic sympathetic
neurons causes except:

a. Increased in heart rate and stroke volume
b. Vasodilation of vessels in the gastrocnemius muscles
c. Erection of penis
d. Ejaculation

A

C

99
Q

Parasympathetic and sympathetic system exerts
approximately equal but opposite direct action on

a. Sweat glands
b. Arterioles at the extremities
c. Frequency of ventricular contraction
d. Radial muscles of the iris

A

C

100
Q

A herbal extract was found to block the action of
acetylcholine on postganglionic autonomic neurons. Which of the following effects are seen in the resting subject?

a. Increased in heart rate
b. Decreased intestinal paralysis
c. Increased in BP
d. Increased sweating

A

A

101
Q

Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors:

a. Decreased heart rate
b. Decreased force of heart contraction
c. Decreased secretion of insulin in islets
d. AOTA

A

D

102
Q

Bilateral transection of vagus nerve in the lower half of the neck causes all of the ff except:

a. Increased heart rate
b. Decreased or absent gag reflex
c. Loss of cephalic phase of gastric secretion
d. Loss of intestinal peristalsis

A

D

103
Q

Contraction of the smooth muscle in the urinary
bladder involves which receptors?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic.
C. Alpha
D. Beta

A

C

104
Q

Which receptor receives epinephrine in arterioles to
produce constriction?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic.
C. Alpha
D. Beta

A

C

105
Q

Heart rate involves which receptors?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic.
C. Alpha
D. Beta

A

D

106
Q

Gastrointestinal mobility involves which receptors?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic.
C. Alpha
D. Beta

A

B

107
Q

Mydriasis involves which receptors?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic.
C. Alpha
D. Beta

A

C

[OS 202] Lecture Exam B (6 decks)

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