OS Flashcards

1
Q

Windows 10 comes preinstalled on vendor hardware & is the OEM (original equipment manufacturer) OS

A

Also available as a retail product, but lacks the ability to join a domain (Pro & Enterprise feature)

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2
Q

Windows Pro

A

Allows the user to join corporate domains. MOST COMMON OEM OS & the premier retail edition.

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3
Q

Pro for Workstations

A

Supports up to 4 CPUs and 6 TB of memory, as well as remote directory memory access (RDMA) and non-volatile dual inline memory modules (NVDIMM). Great for high-end workstations (>2 CPUs, >2 TB memory)

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4
Q

Windows Enterprise

A

Same functionality as Windows Pro for Workstations, but volume licensed for larger places.

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5
Q

Domain access vs Workgroup

A

Domain-joined network of computers provides centralized authentication, administration, & auditing. Often found in large corporate networks.
Supported by Pro, Pro for Workstations, & Enterprise.
Workgroup - default mode for OS and is a decentralized collection of computers. Windows Home only offers workgroups, not domains.

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6
Q

Is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) supported by Windows Home?

A

Nope - just Pro, Pro for Workstations, & Enterprise.

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7
Q

Random-Access Memory (RAM) support

A

Windows Home: 128 GB RAM; 2 CPUs
Windows Pro: 2 TB RAM
2 CPUs
Pro for Workstations: 6 TB RAM
4 CPUs
Enterprise: 6 TB RAM
2 CPUs

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8
Q

Which Windows editions offer BitLocker?

A

Pro, Pro for Workstations, Windows Enterprise.
Not Windows Home

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9
Q

What editions are the Group Policy feature available on?

A

Everything but Windows Home (Pro, Pro for Workstations, Enterprise)

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10
Q

How do you apply the Group Policy locally?

A

gpedit.msc (terminal or PowerShell)

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11
Q

Can group policies be applied through the domain?

A

Yep, and also locally (gpedit.msc)

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12
Q

Jump levels or update through each release?

A

Upgrade progressively through Windows releases until you reach the latest.

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13
Q

What is an in-place upgrade?

A

Straight upgrade from current edition to latest edition, as long as system requirements are met.

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14
Q

Can you change drives with the cd command?

A

Nope, use <drive>;</drive>

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15
Q

ipconfig

A

Basic connectivity info (IP address, subnet mask, default gateway) on Windows

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16
Q

ping

A

Verify network connectivity. Sends an ICMP (internet control message protocol) packet to given address (such as default gateway)

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17
Q

hostname command

A

gives computer identity

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18
Q

netstat

A

all listening & established connections on the host network

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19
Q

nslookup

A

verify DNS addresses

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20
Q

chkdsk

A

view hard disk info, including creating and viewing reports, correcting file system problems & disk errors

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21
Q

net user

A

subcommand used to list all local accounts on the host system

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22
Q

net use

A

maps drive letters to network shares

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23
Q

tracert

A

shows the path a packet takes to arrive at a destination

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24
Q

format

A

used to remove data from disks & prepare disks for new use

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25
Q

xcopy

A

copies files & folders

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26
Q

copy

A

copy specified files

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27
Q

robocopy

A

copy files while keeping permissions intact

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28
Q

gpupdate

A

update group policies

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29
Q

gpresult

A

used to view report/values of the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) for a remote user & users’ computer

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30
Q

shutdown

A

can schedule a shutdown or restart, remotely or locally

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31
Q

sfc

A

System File Checker - utility command that verifies & checks the version of the file system on the computer

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32
Q

/?

A

provide help for a command

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33
Q

diskpart

A

tool for managing disks, partitions & volumes

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34
Q

pathping

A

combines tracert & ping commands

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35
Q

winver

A

Windows version info in a GUI dialogue box. Current version, build number, licensing info

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36
Q

Task Manager

A

utility that displays & manages running apps & services, logged-in users, & system performance

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37
Q

Task Manager Tabs

A

Services
Startup
Performance
Processes
Users

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38
Q

What does the Services tab on Task Manager show you?

A

running services, identification info such as description, group & status

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39
Q

What does the startup tab show you (on Task Manager)?

A

what services are set to begin upon startup and their associated identifying info

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40
Q

Performance tab of Task Manager

A

CPU, Memory, Disk I/O, network resource utilization. Can help you find the bottleneck on a slow-running computer

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41
Q

Processes on Task Manager tab

A

currently running processes & resource consumption

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42
Q

Users on Task Manager tab

A

Currently logged-in users, their status, and applications they are running

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43
Q

What is the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in?

A

A GUI for administrative & config tools

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44
Q

MMC (Microsoft Management Console) tools:
event viewer (eventvwr.msc)
disk management (diskmgmt.msc)
task scheduler (taskschd.msc)
Device manager (devmgmt.msc)
Certificate Manager (certmgr.msc)
Local users & groups (create & delete users, maintain their accounts, establish passwords) (lusrmgr.msc)
Performance monitor - real time stats on memory, disk, CPU, & network (perfmon.msc)
Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc)

A

EXE tools for MMC (microsoft management console)
System Information (msinfo32.exe) - system info for advanced hardware & drive info
Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)
System Configuration (msconfig.exe) - change how Windows boots & what programs start with Windows
Disk Cleanup (cleanmgr.exe)
Disk Defragment (dfrgui.exe) - puts large pieces of files back together for better performance
Registry Editor (regedit.exe) - some OS & app settings may need to be changed in advanced troubleshooting.

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45
Q

Control Panel utility

A

View, change, & troubleshoot system settings.
Internet Options
Devices & Printers
Programs & Features
Network & Sharing Center (configure network adapters, create new network & dial-up connections, configure network file & printer sharing)
System
Windows Defender Firewall
Mail (also additional data files, RSS feeds, internet calendars, address books, SharePoint lists, etc.)
Sound
User Accounts
Device Manager (shows all hardware connected to the computer & provides driver management options)
Indexing Options (indexes Office documents, PDFs, text files, etc.)
Admin Tools
Fire Explorer Options

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46
Q

What’s the highest power setting available? (after power saver and ‘balanced’)

A

High Performance

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47
Q

What does hibernation do?

A

Saves the current state before shutting down - restores to the same place when started but doesn’t consume power in the meantime

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48
Q

What does Fast Startup do?

A

Places the system in hibernation during shutdown so that it boots more quickly

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49
Q

What is USB (universal serial bus) selective suspend?

A

Allows admin to suspend power to a device connected to a specific USB port

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50
Q

What is Ease of Access for?

A

Accessibility needs

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51
Q

What are Windows Settings for?

A

Configuring & personalizing the OS for end users.
Time & Language
Update & Security
Personalization (backgrounds, colors, fonts, etc.)
Apps
Privacy
System (configure OS settings, monitors, display settings, resolution, scale settings, etc.)
Devices (view, configure & control connected devices)
Network & Internet
Gaming (XBox integration)
Accounts (manage & configure user accounts)

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52
Q

What are the 3 primary networking models in Windows OS?

A

Homegroup
Workgroup (allows the OS to be both server & client; primarily used in SOHO setups.
Domain (in this model, the client must be joined to the domain)

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53
Q

What are shared resources?

A

Files & folders are shared over the network, creating a shared space for people on the network. For convenience, network shares can be mapped to a drive letter.
For users & apps, the network share appears to be a local disk.
Resources like hardware-based resources can also be shared with the network group.

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54
Q

Administrative shares allow what?

A

Remote administrators can configure the computer. The shares are not visible or accessible to non-admin users.

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55
Q

What are the steps to printer sharing?

A

Allows printing from other computers to the local printer. To print from a remote computers, you need to map it and then install the correct printer drivers.

56
Q

What are mapped drives?

A

Allow network shares to be connected to a specific drive letter for ease of access.

57
Q

What does the DHCP server provide?

A

IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server. These may also be set manually.

58
Q

IP (Internet Protocol) addressing scheme is what?

A

IP address of a computer needs to be a unique address on the same subnet as the gateway (and other hosts)

59
Q

What does a subnet do?

A

Determines what hosts are on the same network. Must match all computers & network devices on the local network.

60
Q

What is a gateway?

A

Default gateway is a router that can forward local network traffic to other networks. At least one of its interfaces must be on the same network as the computer.

61
Q

What is a WWAN? (Wireless Wide Area Network)

A

Similar to mobile phone connectivity - a cellular network that can be used to connect to the internet. Some laptops have built-in cellular hardware.

62
Q

Can you preform updates over a metered ocnnection?

A

No, updates to OS, apps, or system security will not download over a metered (limited) connection

63
Q

Does File Explorer depend on pre-configured network paths?

A

Yes, the UNC (Universal Naming Convention) path is the standard way to navigate to the server & fileshare on Windows.

64
Q

What is another name for a dedicated graphics card and what is the alternative?

A

Discrete & dedicated graphics card mean the same thing.
Integrated graphics solution is the other option - which comes built directly into the CPU. (Older computers may integrate it into the motherboard).

65
Q

What is VRAM and when is it important?

A

VRAM stands for Video Random-Access Memory. It’s needed for graphic-intesnive applications.

66
Q

What do CPU requirements of an application indicate?

A

Processing power needed.

67
Q

When would you use a hard copy (CD, USB, etc.) to install software?

A

If it’s large or the computer isn’t connected to a network.

68
Q

What is an ISO installation?

A

The application ISO is downloaded from the vendor and installed directly onto the host machine & acts as a virtual optical drive.

69
Q

What is a pre-configured Linux kernel with attached interfaces & apps called?

A

A Distribution

70
Q

What is Red Hat used for?

A

High performance server tasks

71
Q

What is Ubuntu known for?

A

Extensive graphical user interface (GUI)

72
Q

What’s the second most common OS?

A

Mac (really though?)

73
Q

What is Chrome OS

A

a cloud-based Operating System based on the Chrome web browser and released by Google. All data is stored in Google Drive.

74
Q

Android is developed by Google. It’s based on the Linux kernel: true or false?

A

True. Free & open source. Most commonly used mobile OS.

75
Q

What is a partition?

A

A segment of a hard disk that functions as a separate entity.

76
Q

A partition needs to be formatted with a specific file system before use

A

An operating system usually supports different file types

77
Q

What’s the modern Windows file system?

A

NTFS (New Technology File System) - allows users to set and manage permissions for files & folders for specific users & groups - useful for secure network file sharing. Also provides indexing, compression, and encryption at the file system level.
Replaced FAT32

78
Q

What does FAT32 stand for?

A

File Allocation Table 32

79
Q

What is ext3 (Third Extended Filesystem)

A

Default for Linux

80
Q

What is ext4 (fourth extended filesystem)

A

Update to ext3 that supports larger partitions, larger number of files & improved performance.

81
Q

What file system does Apple use?

A

Apple File System (APFS) (since iOS 10.3 and macOS Sierra 10.12.4)
Replaces HFS & HFS+

82
Q

What is the exFAT (extensible file allocation table) used for?

A

Small flash & SSD Drives. Optimized for performance & media file storage.

83
Q

What does Wi-Fi frequency mean?

A

The audio range in which the technology broadcasts.

84
Q

What are the two Wi-Fi operating frequencies?

A

2.4 GHz & 5 GHz

85
Q

What does Wi-Fi frequency range impact?

A

Transmission range & data throughput

86
Q

Which has greater Wi-Fi transmission range - 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz?

A

2.4 GHz - because the lower frequency means it passes through objects (like walls & floors) better.
But throughput is slower & the open frequency means interference from cordless phones, microwaves, etc.

87
Q

Which has faster throughput - 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz?

A

5 GHz has faster data throughput, but transmission range is shorter due to obstruction by walls, etc.

88
Q

What are WiFi frequency channels?

A

Channels are different frequencies used for communications between end-user & wireless access point.

89
Q

How many channels are available for the 2.4 GHz wi-fi range?

A

14 - but the top 3 cant be used in North America so really only 11.
Devices will automatically select a channel, but you can manually select a channel to minimize interference.

90
Q

How many channels does the 5 GHz wifi range have?

A

Trick question (ok 24). You never have to set a channel here.

91
Q

What’s the range of Bluetooth (IEEE 802.15.1 standard)?

A

10 meters, within a PAN (personal area network).

92
Q

What is CSMA/CA?

A

Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (think Wi-Fi or IEEE 802.11standard)

93
Q

What differentiates between the different Wi-Fi standards?

A

operating frequencies, maximum data speed, and data throughput.

94
Q

5 GHz freqeuency, 54 Mbps, 120 meters

A

802.11 a

95
Q

2.4 GHz frequency, 11 Mbps throughput, 140 meters

A

801.11 b

96
Q

2.4 GHz, 54 Mbps, 140 meters

A

802.11 g

97
Q

2.4 / 5 GHz frequency, 54 Mbps, 250 meters

A

802.11 n

98
Q

5 GHz, 6.5 Gpbs throughput, 140 meters

A

802.11 ac / Wi-Fi 5

99
Q

2.4 / 5 GHz, 9.6 Gbps, 140 meters

A

802.11 ax / Wi-Fi 6

100
Q

What is a long-range fixed wireless connection?

A

It’s a point-to-point wireless technology that uses directional antennas to send & receive network signals from 10-20 km

101
Q

What are licensed frequencies?

A

Frequencies regulated / use is granted by the FCC in the US

102
Q

What are unlicensed frequencies?

A

Frequencies that can be sued by anyone - e.g. 2.4 & 5 GHz (susceptible to interference & eavesdropping)

103
Q

What is wireless power transfer?

A

Power generated by a transmitting station & sent via long-range fixed wireless by microwave or laser light to the receiver, which turns the transmission back to electricity / power.
Wireless Power Transfer (WPT) technology is regulated by the FCC in the US.

104
Q

What does RFID do?

A

Radio-Frequency Identifiers transmit identifying info via a radio signal

105
Q

What is a server?

A

Process running in memory on a networked system that answers requests from a remote client system.

106
Q

How many public DNS servers are needed for an enterprise to host a website?

A

2 - one acting as redundency

107
Q

What is a zone file?

A

DNS records of hostname IP address sets

108
Q

What is a fileshare or file server?

A

A central repository for storage, management, and access of network files. NAS (network-attached storage) can serve as a file server.

109
Q

What is a print server?

A

A server that manages print requests & connects printers to a network.

110
Q

What is a mail server?

A

Responsible for sending, receiving & managing emails. A mail server must be running a specialized server package, e.g. Microsoft Exchange, Sendmail, Postfix, or Exim, to be a mail server.

111
Q

What is Syslog?

A

A client-server model responsible for collecting ingo obtained from system monitoring, such as login events and errors. Messages compiled at the syslog server include facility code, severity level, and a textual description of the logged events. 3 primary components: listener, database, and management/filtering software.

112
Q

What is a web server?

A

listens for incoming requests, executes them and provides the requested content, including text, images, videos, and the running of scripts.
2 common web servers are Microsoft’s IIS (internet information services) and Apache.

113
Q

What is an AAA server?

A

Authentication, Authorization and Accounting - an access control server that gatekeeps for critical network components.
Also known as DOMAIN CONTROLLERS.
E.G. RADIUS (remote authentication dial-in user service)
Kerberos
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+)
Remote access service (RAS)

114
Q

List 5 examples of internet appliances (aid in internet access & help users access the internet safely)

A

Spam gateways
Unified Threat Management (UTM) (centralizes security management on a network. Packet filtering and inspection, IPS, gateway antimalware, spam blocking, malicious website blocking, application control).
Load Balancers (evenly distributing requests. Configurations include identical, cross-region, and content-based)
Proxy servers (makes resource requests on behalf of a client)

115
Q

What is SCADA?

A

Supervisory Control & Data Acquisition. Critical legacy system category - high-level management system for manufacturing machines & processes, large-scale infrastructure settings, and building components.

116
Q

IoT devices connect to the network through:

A

a central controller or coordinating device.

117
Q

Principles of setting up a SOHO network:

A

Understand relevant regulations
Make a map
Locate the servers
Identify client computer locations
Locate network resources
Determine user connectivity type
Designate additional connectivity options if needed.

118
Q

How many bits are IPv6 addresses?

A

128 bits in hexademical notation (8 16-bit fields seperated by colons)

119
Q

What does APIPA stand for?

A

Automatic private IP Addressing. Will always be on the 169.254.0.0 network. Also known as link-local addresses.

120
Q

Dynamic IP address can be assigned by….

A

router or DHCP server

121
Q

What is a gateway?

A

a ROUTER that connects one network to another

122
Q

Is DNS server info given out dynamically or manually?

A

Either. If dynamically, it’s given by DHCP (along with IP address)

123
Q

Zone files contain what?

A

Records of hostname-to-IP address mappings and info such as the name of the server/computer, IP address, record type, computer address, comments. Zone files are held in DNS servers.
A records are for IPv4.
AAAA (or quad 4) records are for IPv6.

124
Q

What is MX

A

mail exchanger. An MX record is a DNS record that signifies that the host record is an email server

125
Q

What is a text (TXT) record for in DNS?

A

A TXT record type in a zone file signifies that the host record is text for human-readable or machine-readable data

126
Q

Spam management:
DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)
SPF (sender policy framework)
DMARC (domain-based message authentication, reporting & conformance). Combines DKIM & SPF.

A
127
Q

What is a VPN (virtual private network)?

A

An encrypted connection between 2 networks or between a host and a network. When a host connects to a network over a VPN, a separate IP address from the network’s address range is assigned to it.

128
Q

What are characteristics of satellite internet?

A

Slower than wired broadband connections; require a satellite dish; affected by weather & misalignment

129
Q

What are characteristics of fiber connectivity?

A

Wired connection; uses a fiber-optic calbe made of thin flexible glass or plastic fiber surrounded by a rubberized outer sheath that sends data by light signals. Fast data transmission. 2 types: single-mode fiber (SMF) and multimode fiber (MMF).

130
Q

What are characteristics of cable?

A

Wired connection that uses either coaxial or twisted pair cable for data transmission.

131
Q

What is DSL?

A

Digital subscriber line- wired connection that uses existing phone lines with a DSL modem to provide internet.

132
Q

crimper

A

connects a connector to a cable (different types for ethernet, coaxial, and fiber-optic

133
Q

Punchdown tool

A

Connect exposed ends of a wire into a wiring harness

134
Q

Loopback plug

A

a special cable wired to transmit & receive on a single connector. There are loopback plugs for different types of connectors (like USB or ethernet) for testing network interface cards.

135
Q

What is a Network TAP (test access port)?

A

A hardware device that creats a copy of network traffic by monitoring devices without interfering with traffic. Can be easily moved from place to place.