ORTHOTICS-PROSTHETICS Flashcards
Vertical section to calcaneus:
a. Syme’s
b. Pirogoff’s
c. Boyd’s
d. AKA
b. Pirogoff’s
Types of partial foot amputation include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Toes
b. None of these
c. Lisfranc
d. Chopart
b. None of these
Emphasis should be placed on strengthening the hip to prevent the most likely contracture in an AK amputee. The hip muscle group consist of:
a. Flexion and abduction
b. Flexion and abduction
c. Extension and adduction
d. Extension and abduction
c. Extension and adduction
At what speed for the average individual as the worth of walking at a minimum?
a. 5 mph
b. 4 mph
c. 3 mph
d. 2 mph
c. 3 mph
Energy expenditure of a double AKA is:
a. 60%
b. 65%
c. 110%
d. 40%
c. 110%
To maintain a level pelvis & a normal gait while using an AK prosthesis, the muscles of the hip that must be adequately contracted are:
a. The abductors
b. The extensors
c. The flexors
d. The adductors
a. The abductors
The major advantage of a hip prosthesis over internal fixation in the geriatric patient with a fractured hip:
a. Early weight bearing ambulation
b. Decrease amount of pains
c. Ease in nursing care
d. Functional dependence
a. Early weight bearing ambulation
Reasons for buckling in AK prosthesis:
a. Too hard heel cushion
b. Posteriorly displace socket
c. Too soft heel cushion
d. Hip abduction contracture
a. Too hard heel cushion
Gait deviation in patients with BK prosthesis having a stiff heel cushion:
a. Insufficient knee flexion on amputated side
b. Excessive knee flexion on amputated side
c. Excessive lateral thrust
d. Insufficient lateral thrust
b. Excessive knee flexion on amputated side
An above knee prosthesis that is too long may cause the following gait deviation EXCEPT:
a. Circumduction
b. Vaulting
c. Terminal impact
d. Wide-walking base
c. Terminal impact
Is considered as the widest part of the sole that
corresponds to the MT heads?
a. ball
b. heel
c. last
d. upper
a. ball
All are considered as functions of orthosis:
a. All of these
b. Supporting unstable segments
c. Assisting weak motions
d. Stopping undesired motions
A 16 y/o patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5 following trauma received in a motor vehicle accident. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can be BEST be achieved with:
a. Halo orthosis
b. Soft collar
c. Four poster orthosis
d. Milwaukee orthosis
a. Halo orthosis
A patient with spastic left hemiplegia experiences
recurvatum during stance phase. If the patient is
using an ankle-foot orthosis, the cause of the
problem might be attributed to
a. not enough limitation by the posterior stop
b. not enough limitation by the anterior stop
c. too much limitation by the posterior stop
d. too much limitation by the anterior stop
a. not enough limitation by the posterior stop
Cuban heel height is:
a. 1/8 inch
b. 6/8-8/8 inch
c. 10/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch
It is used 1st
-5th metatarsal heads pain?
a. sesamoid pad
b. rocker bar
c. heel seat
d. metatarsal bar
d. metatarsal bar
What would be your prescription to patient with talipes equinovarus?
a. abduct forefoot: outflare last
b. evert midfoot/hindfoot: lateral heel & sole wedge, reverse Thomas heel, extended medial counter
c. decrease plantarflexion: decrease/remove heel & elevate sole
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
You are teaching a 20-year-old patient diagnosed with L3 paraplegia how to ambulate using an adaptive device. What type of equipment would be the most appropriate for this patient?
a. Bilateral HKAFO and crutches
b. Bilateral KAFO and crutches
c. Bilateral AFO and crutches
d. You should not be teaching a patient with L3
paraplegia to ambulate
b. Bilateral KAFO and crutches
Are types of shoe/foot attachments?
a. stirrup
b. caliper
c. shoe insert
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The lateral T-strap controls the:
a. ankle varus deformity
b. ankle valgus deformity
c. knee varus deformity
d. knee valgus deformity
a. ankle varus deformity
In an AK prosthesis, the prime force causing knee extension is:
a. Mid-swing acceleration
b. Full extension of the hip joint
c. Sudden flexion of the thigh on the pelvis
d. Gravity
b. Full extension of the hip joint
The energy expenditure of single BK amputee;
a. 65% above normal
b. 75% above normal
c. 10% above normal
d. 41% above normal
c. 10% above normal
Exaggerated lordosis of a patient with prosthesis in stance phase may be due to:
a. Hip flexion contracture
b. Weak trunk extensors
c. Weak hip flexors
d. Insufficient socket extension
a. Hip flexion contracture
In an AK prosthesis, the majority of the body’s weight is absorbed by which wall of the socket:
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Medial
c. Posterior
Keel is in the form of spring module:
a. Seattle d. Carbon-Copy II
b. Flex-foot
c. Quantum
d. Carbon-Copy II
e. STEN
c. Quantum
The SAFE prosthesis is defined as:
a. Solid attachment flexible exoskeleton
b. Stationary attachment flexible endoskeleton
c. Soft ankle friction extension
d. Stationary ankle friction endoskeleton
b. Stationary attachment flexible endoskeleton
A midstance deviation:
a. Abrupt knee flexion
b. Lateral thrust of the knee
c. Whip
d. Uneven step length
e. One of the above
b. Lateral thrust of the knee
What is NOT the possible cause of rotation of foot at heel strike on patients with prosthesis:
a. Too much resistance on heel cushion
b. Too much friction
c. Too much resistance on patients with
prosthesis
d. Too much toe out
e. None of these
d. Too much toe out
All are possible cause of uneven length of steps in patients using prosthesis in walking EXCEPT:
a. Improper socket fit
b. Friction of knee too weak
c. Extension aide too weak
d. Prosthesis too long
d. Prosthesis too long
An AK amputee is prone to develop:
a. Hip ER contracture
b. Hip IR contracture
c. Hip flexion contracture
d. Hip Abduction-rotation contracture
c. Hip flexion contracture
Counterpart of the Chairback brace for the thoracolumbosacral brace?
a. Knight-Taylor
b. Cowhorn
c. Taylor
d. Cruciform
c. Taylor
A 47-year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA with left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic examination. Significant results of manual muscle testing include: hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee flexion 3+/5, knee extension 3+/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intact and no abnormal tone is noted. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a:
a. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee
b. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis
c. Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis locked in
neutral
d. Prefabricated posterior leaf spring orthosis
b. Plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis
What is the type of orthoses used by scoliotic patients for curves with apex below T6?
a. Miami
b. Boston
c. Wilmington
d. Milwaukee
a. Miami
Type of orthoses used by scoliotic pts for curves below T8 level EXCEPT:
a. Milwaukee
b. Boston
c. Wilmington
d. Yamamoto
a. Milwaukee
The idea of this orthoses is to stabilize the fracture site while allowing motion in the adjacent joints & ambulation possible?
a. A-Frame orthoses
b. Fracture orthoses
c. Patellar tendon-bearing orthoses
d. Parapodium
b. Fracture orthoses
An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar varus deformity is:
a. cushion heel
b. lateral heel wedge
c. medial sole wedge
d. medial heel wedge
b. lateral heel wedge
Orthoses used for pts with congenital hip dysplasia, EXCEPT:
a. Von Rosen splint
b. Scottish Rite orthoses
c. Ilfeld splint
d. Pavlik harness
b. Scottish Rite orthoses
Is designed for more proximal torsional abnormalities?
a. Denis-Browne splint
b. A-Frame orthoses
c. Torsion-shaft
d. Internal rotation control strap
b. A-Frame orthoses
This special purpose orthoses is used for total elimination of weight-bearing on whole lower limb, no ankle joints & toe suspended in mid-air?
a. Patellar tendon-bearing orthoses
b. Ischial weight-bearing
c. Patten-Bottom orthoses
d. Tibial orthoses
c. Patten-Bottom orthoses
Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk?
a. Scott-Craig orthoses
b. Parapodium
c. Denise-Brown splint
d. All of the above
b. Parapodium