Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OCCTH 584 > Orthopedics > Flashcards

Orthopedics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of bones?

A
  1. Long bones
  2. Short bones
  3. Flat bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 layers of the bone?

A
  1. Periosteum: The outside layer/membrane where muscles, tendons, and nerve endings attach
  2. Compact bone layer: Mineralized; Provide strength and integrity
  3. Sponge bone: Bone marrow; Contains blood vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are alternative terms for bone growth?

A

Ossification or osteogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does bone growth start after conception?

A

8 weeks after conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 cell types involved in bone growth?

A
  1. Osteoblasts: Bone-forming
  2. Osteocytes: Mature cells
  3. Osteoclasts: Break down and reabsorb bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What kind of hip fractures are good candidates for hip replacement surgery?

A

Fractures on the neck of the femur or subtrochanteric fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What kind of hip fractures are not good candidates for hip replacement surgery?

A

Trochanteric fracutres (greater or lesser trochanters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 phases of bone growth post-fracture?

A
  1. Reactive phase (Acute): Inflammation and granulation (formation of new bone)
  2. Reparative phase (weeks to months): Periosteum forms osteoblasts, which forms new tissue
  3. Re-modelling phase (3-5 years): Thickening of the fracture site and remodelling of the vasculature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the main treatments for fractures?

A 
Immobilization and surgical intervention
Sufficient blood supply (nutrition and sleep)
Energy (depleted by healing)
Protein supplement
Weight bearing (appropriate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the only type of fractures that are non-surgical?

A

Undisplaced fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are stable undisplaced fractures (e.g. minor spinal fracture) treated?

A

Managed by protection alone with the need for reduction or immobilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are unstable undisplaced fractures (e.g. radius fracture) treated?

A

Require positioning/immobilization but not reduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the goal of surgical treatment of fractures?

A

Effective and precise stabilization for optimal recovery and resolution of function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do fractures require surgical intervention?

A

When bony fragments cannot be approximated accurately in a closed manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is open reduction internal fixation?

A

Open surgery of the fracture, where the bony fragments are internally fixed using pins and screws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Ilizarov procedure?

A

A leg-lengthening procedure where the bone is cut surgically and the body is encouraged to close the gap between the bones, 1 mm of bone distraction/lengthening per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What level of weight-bearing is prescribed for patients going through the Ilizarov procedure?

A

Weight bear as tolerated (WBAT) – Required to stimulate osteogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the OT roles in caring for patients going through the Ilizarov procedure?

A
  1. Fabrication of foot plate – High risk for foot drop and plantar-flexion contracture
  2. Wound care
  3. Compression to manage edema
  4. Aid with body image acceptance
  5. Clothing modifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is arthroscopy?

A

Using small cameras to investigate or assist in surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is arthroplasty?

A

Joint replacements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is an arthroplasty required?

A
  1. When conservative treatments have failed

2. Patient continues to have pain, stiffness, and functional impairments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The number of total hip replacement surgeries are [decreasing/increasing].

A

Increasing, due to the increasing aging population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common responsible diagnoses for total hip replacement surgeries?

A

Arthritis and hip fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common responsible diagnoses for knee replacment surgeries?

A

Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In total arthroplasty, which structures are replaced?

A

Both articulating surfaces, e.g. part of the femur, the femoral head, and the acetabular in total hip replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In hemi-arthroplasty, which structures are replaced?

A

Only one articular surface is replaced, e.g. Just the acetabulum or the femoral head (Austin Moore prosthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is cemented hip hardware used?

A

For people who have osteoporosis or osteopenia, and have weak bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the pros and cons of cemented hip hardware?

A

More stability in the beginning

Increases risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the weight-bearing recommendations for cemented hip implant?

A

Weight-bear as tolerated (WBAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the weight-bearing recommendations for cementless hip implant?

A

Depends on the growth of the porous bone stability – Possibly initially non-weight bearing (NWB), and/or 6-12 weeks of partial weight bearing (PWB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are hybrid hip implants?

A

Femoral portion cemented, acetabulum uncemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the weight-bearing recommendations for hybrid hip implants?

A

4-6 weeks of partial weight bearing (PWB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What types of walking aids would a non-weight bearing (NWB) individual need?

A

Bilateral gait aids, e.g. 2WW, 4WW, crutches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is toe-touch weight bearing (TTWB) or touch-down weight bearing (TDWB)?

A

Allowed to put part of the affected lower extremity on the ground for balance or proprioception only. i.e. Touching down only for sensation purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What types of walking aids would a toe-touch or touch-down weight bearing (TTWB/TDWB) individual need?

A

Bilateral gait aids, e.g. 2WW, 4WW, crutches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What condition could arise from TTWB?

A

Tight gastrocnemius muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a precaution for TDWB?

A

Not putting too much weight on lower extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which activity allows weight bearing of 50% of the body weight?

A

Standing with body weight evenly supported by both feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is partial weight bearing (PWB)?

A

Supporting < 50% or 50% of body weight with the affected limb. No walking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is weight bearing as tolerated (WBAT)?

A

Placing up to full body weight on the affected limb but not all the time, due to pain, endurance, and ROM. May use gait aid to reduce the load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 3 topics to cover in pre- and post-surgical education for hip replacement?

A
  1. Weight bearing precautions
  2. Movement precautions
  3. Activity restriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most common approach for hip arthroplasty, and why?

A

Posterolateral approach

Simplest technique and does not interfere with hip abductors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the disadvantages of anterior approach for hip arthroplasty?

A

Takes longer
A more complex surgery
A newer approach with less given information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the disadvantage of posterolateral approach?

A

High rate (9.5%) of posterior hip dislocation due to nonadherence to hip precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the hip precautions for posterolateral approach?

A
  1. No hip flexion beyond 90 degrees – No reaching down to the floor or lifting the knee up when sitting
  2. No internal hip rotation or twisting
  3. No hip adduction beyond midline – No crossing legs at the knee or ankles, sleep with a pillow between knees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the OT roles pre-operatively to hip replacement?

A
  1. Educate the client precautions and functional implications
  2. Take environmental history, home Ax, etc.
  3. Arrange equipment and/or home care needs
  4. Discuss hip/knee kit and provide information for purchase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the OT roles post-operatively to hip replacement?

A
  1. Weight bearing as early as 4 hours post-op, 10 steps or more with a walking aid
  2. Reinforce precautions
  3. Foot and ankle exercises every hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the OT roles post-operative day 1 to hip replacement?

A
  1. Teach correct transfer techniques
  2. Confirm home support and equipment
  3. ADL practice with equipment
  4. Encourage walking 3-5 times during the day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the OT roles post-operative day 2 to hip replacement?

A
  1. Ensure independence with self-care, dressing, and transfers
  2. Ensure maintenance of hip precautions during functional tasks
  3. Review car transfers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the OT roles post-operative day 3 to hip replacement?

A
  1. Ensure independence with self-care, dressing, transfers while maintaining precautions
  2. Discharge from acute care if medically stable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the ideal number of post-op days that an individual will need before discharge?

A

3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the correct chair/toilet transfer for an individual with hip precautions?

A
  1. Back up until they feel the chair/toilet at the back of their legs.
  2. Slide operated leg forward.
  3. Reach back and grasp the armrests for support, as both kneeds bend to sit.
  4. Reverse to stand.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe the correct bed transfer for an individual with hip precautions?

A
  1. Sit on the bed as per the chair/toilet transfer method.
  2. Slide buttocks back as far as possible
  3. Pivot as they lift their legs up onto the bed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How high must the bed height be to make bed transfers safe for individuals with hip precautions?

A

At or slightly above knee level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some assistive equipment that an individual with hip precautions may need to transfer onto a bed?

A

Abduction wedge between legs to ensure no adduction
Leg lifter to ensure no flexion beyond 90 degrees
Reacher to adjust covers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What types of beds are safe for individuals with hip precautions?

A

Hard mattresses; No water beds or soft mattresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

True or False: Shower doors make bathtub transfers easier.

A

False. Sliding doors make it difficult for swiveling on the stool, so shower curtains are better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False: Individual with hip precautions may reach forward for the faucet once in the bathtub.

A

False. They need assistance to reach forward to the faucet without breaking their hip precautions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False: Individuals with hip precautions do not often need the back rest for their tub stool.

A

True. Not having a back rest gives them more space to pivot. Individuals with trunk instability may need back rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which cars should be avoided with hip precautions?

A

Small cars with low seats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How should the car seat be arranged to be the safest for car transfers for individuals with hip precautions?

A

In the front passenger seat, with the seat back as far as it can go and the back recliend slightly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When dressing with hip precautions, the [operated/unaffected] side should be dressed first.

A

Operated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When dressing with hip precautions, the [operated/unaffected] side should be undressed first.

A

Unaffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Can individuals with hip precautions return to driving?

A

Yes, when cleared by the surgeon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When is it usually safe for individuals with hip replacement to return to sexual activities?

A

4-6 weeks post-op, depending on healing and pain, with all hip precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

When the capital femoral epiphysis slips off the femoral neck as a result of shearing failure of the cartilaginous growth plate in the proximal femur, i.e. growth plate fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which conditions usually cause slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Growth spurt – Weakening of the growth plate

Increased body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which population experiences slipped capital femoral epiphysis the most?

A

Boys 10-16 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is usually [unilateral/bilateral.]

A

Unilateral, but can be bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the treatment for slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Surgical treatment required – Pins through the neck of the femur into the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What kinds of precautions are needed for slipped capital femoral epiphysis post-op?

A

No hip precautions necessary.

Need home ADL equipments (i.e. hip kit – raised toilet seats, transfer benches, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the movement precautions for knee replacement?

A
  1. No twisting the knee, kneeling, or squatting

2. Keep toes pointing the same direction as their nose – Sleep with pillow between kneeds, no pivoting to turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which conditions increase the risk for ankle fractures?

A

Diabetes
Peripheral vascular disease
Metabolic bone disease
Chronic use of corticosteroids

74
Q

What shape do the structures of the ankle form?

75
Q

An ankle with fracture/rupture of a single part is [stable/unstable].

76
Q

An ankle with fracture/rupture of more than one part is [stable/unstable].

77
Q

What is the Weber classification?

A

Classification of ankle fractures based on which part(s) of the ankle “ring” are affected.

78
Q

Describe the Weber A classification?

A

Fracture on the fibula inferior to the syndesmosis between the fibula and the tibia. Medial malleolus may be fractured.

79
Q

Which interventions are usually needed for Weber A ankle fractures?

A

Reduction (occasionally ORIF) and cast.

80
Q

Describe the Weber B classification?

A

Fracture on the fibula at the level of the syndesmosis between the fibula and the tibia. Syndesmosis is intact or partly torn. Possible medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament damage.

81
Q

Which interventions are usually needed for Weber B ankle fractures?

A

Reduction (occasionally ORIF) and cast.

82
Q

Describe the Weber C classification?

A

Fracture above the level of the ankle joint. Tibiofibular syndesmosis is damaged, and the tibiofibular joint is widened. Medial malleolus fracture and/or deltoid ligament disruption.

83
Q

How stable is a Weber A fracture?

A

Usually stable if medial malleolus is intact.

84
Q

How stable is a Weber B fracture?

A

Variable – Weight bearing to inability to weight bear due to joint instability or pain.

85
Q

How stable is a Weber C fracture?

A

Very unstable

86
Q

Which interventions are usually needed for Weber C ankle fractures?

A

ORIF required.

87
Q

What are pilon fractures?

A

Fracture of the distal tibial metaphysis and disruption of the talar dome

88
Q

What are Maisonneuve fractures?

A

Proximal fibular fracture with a medial malleolar fracture or disruption of the deltoid ligament. Partial or complete disruption of the syndesmosis

89
Q

Which interventions are usually needed for Maisonneuve fractures?

A

Surgical repair with immobilization with a cast for 6-8 weeks

90
Q

What are Tillaux fractures?

A

Fracture in the lateral portion of the distal tibia, where the anterior tibiofibular ligament attaches.

91
Q

How are Tillaux fractures caused?

A

Extreme eversion and lateral rotation of the ankle

92
Q

In what population is the incidence of Tillaux fractures highest, and why?

A

Adolescents aged 12-14 ages
Fracture occurs after the medial aspect of the epiphyseal plate of the tibia closes bue before the lateral aspect arrests.

93
Q

Which interventions are usually needed for Tillaux fractures?

A

Closed reduction if displacement is < 2 mm. Long leg cast for 4 weeks, short leg case 2-3 weeks.
Open reduction if displacement is > 2 mm after closed reduction attempt.

94
Q

What are the complications of Tillaux fractures?

A 
Premature growth arrest
Early arthritis (high risk with articular displacement)
95
Q

What is arthrodesis?

96
Q

When is ankle arthrodesis primarily indicated?

A

Severe pain or deformity

97
Q

What is ankle arthrodesis?

A

Reconstructive surgical procedures where an injured ankle joint is converted into an immobile segment of bone

98
Q

What are the weight bearing recommendations post-op to ankle arthrodesis?

A

6-12 weeks of non-weight bearing (NWB)

99
Q

What are the risks of ankle arthrodesis?

A 
Functional issues (NWB and casting for up to 6 months)
Long-lasting or unresolved edema
100
Q

What is congenital hip dysplasia (CHD)?

A

Congenital laxity of the hip joint capsule

101
Q

What are some causes of congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Larger femoral head than the acetabulum
Breech birth
Small uterus of the mom
Poorly formed hip socket

102
Q

Incidence of congenital hip dysplasia is higher in [males/females].

A

Females (80% of cases)

103
Q

What are the symptoms of congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Reduced movement on the affected side
Affected leg may appear shorter
Asymmetry in thigh folds

104
Q

What are some treatment options for congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Conservative treatment – Diaper splint/Pavlik harness in a position of stability (hips flexed and abducted)
Aggressive treatment – Surgery (osteotomy of pelvis/femur/both) + Hip spica cast

105
Q

What are the OT roles for congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Educate parents
Assess & modify stroller fit
Assess car seat fit and ensure safety
Encourage continued engagement in play activities

106
Q

What is the most common congenital deformity?

107
Q

What is club foot deformity?

A

Intrinsic abnormality of the foot occurring in the 2nd-3rd trimester

108
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of club foot deformity?

A
  1. Plantarflexion
  2. Inward turning at the ankle
  3. Inward turning of the forefoot
  4. Dropped 1st metatarsal head
109
Q

What are the treatment options for club foot deformity?

A

Serial casting – Casting into more and more proper alignment over time
Achilles tenotomy or lengthening of the Achilles tendon
Boots and bar cast

110
Q

Why is the shoulder joint considered to be the most challenging part of the body to rehabilitate?

A

The shoulder joint is unstable and complex.

111
Q

What are the 4 joints in the shoulder complex?

A
  1. Glenohumeral joint
  2. Acromioclavicular joint
  3. Scapulothoracic joint
  4. Sternoclavicular joint
112
Q

What are the four rotator cuff muscles and their functions?

A
  1. Supraspinatus: Shoulder abduction
  2. Infraspinatus & Teres minor: External rotation
  3. Subscapularis: Internal rotation
113
Q

Which rotator cuff muscle is the most frequently torn?

A

Supraspinatus

114
Q

What are the treatment options for rotator cuff tears?

A
  1. Conservative management
  2. Orthotherapy
  3. Subacromial corticosteroid injections
  4. Surgical repair
115
Q

What are the criteria for rotator cuff surgical candidates?

A 
< 60 year old
Fail to improve with conservative interventions for > 6 weeks
Full passive ROM
Full thickness tear in the rotator cuff
Needs to use shoulder overhead
116
Q

What are the 3 types of rotator cuff surgical methods?

A
  1. Open
  2. Arthroscopic
  3. Combination
117
Q

In rotator cuff surgery, what are two ways in which the repair can be done?

A
  1. Anchor torn tendon to another intact tendon

2. Anchor torn tendon to bone

118
Q

True or False: Even with shoulder arthroplasty, the individual will not gain full ROM.

A

True. The goal of shoulder arthroplasty isn’t to gain full ROM back, it’s for pain control and some functional improvement.

119
Q

What are 3 common reasons for shoulder arthroplasty?

A
  1. Severe fractures
  2. Avascular necrosis
  3. Osteoarthritis/rheumatoid arthritis
120
Q

What are precautions to be taken 0-6 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A
  1. No resisted or active internal rotation.

2. No lifting anything heavier than a dinner plate.

121
Q

What are exercise recommendations for 0-6 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Isometric shoulder exercise except for internal rotation.

Pendulum exercises

122
Q

Why is exercise important after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Prevent adhesive capsulitis
Maintain ROM in joint
Promote blood flow for quicker healing

123
Q

What are the ROM restrictions for 0-6 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

AROM in hands and elbow

AAROM in the shoulder, progressing to AROM except for IR

124
Q

What are the recommendations for sling use for 0-6 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Always worn at night or for comfort.

After 2 weeks, may be removed for simple ADLs.

125
Q

What are the ROM restrictions for 6-12 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

No movement restrictions.

AROM allowed for internal rotation.

126
Q

What are exercise recommendations for 6-12 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Strengthening exercises using thera-tubing.

127
Q

What are exercise recommendations for 6-12 weeks after shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Passive ROM to stretch joint as indicated.

Strength training for internal rotation with thera-tubing.

128
Q

What types of clothing are the most convenient for individuals with shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Shirts with front closures.
Elastic waist pants.
Sports bra, or use bra angel.
No-tie shoes/elastic laces

129
Q

How should an individual with shoulder arthroplasty sleep?

A

Wearing sling
Pillow below operated arm for support
Reclining chair may be helpful

130
Q

What is reverse total shoulder replacement?

A

Putting the humeral head component in the place of the existing glenoid cavity, and the glenoid cavity on the humeral shaft

131
Q

What are the benefits of reverse total shoulder replacement?

A

Better functional outcome

Prevent deltoid slackening

132
Q

What are the contraindications for reverse total shoulder replacement?

A

Nonfunctional deltoid muscle
Severe neurologic deficiencies
Refusal to modify post-op physical activities

133
Q

What are the indications for reverse total shoulder replacement?

A

Irreparable rotator cuff tear associated with glenohumeral arthritis or instability
Failed hemiarthroplasty or total arthroplasty associated with rotator cuff deficiency (which pushes the humeral head slides upwards)

134
Q

What is Colles’ fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the distal radius. In 60% of cases, the tip of the ulna is also fractured.

135
Q

What usually causes Colles’ fracture?

A

Extension of the hand to decrease the impact from a fall

136
Q

What is the treatment for Colle’s fracture?

A

Casting or ORIF

137
Q

What usually causes scaphoid fracture?

A

A fall onto an outstretched hand – Axial load across hyper-extended and radially deviated wrist

138
Q

What are the symptoms of scaphoid fracture?

A

Pain and tenderness just below the base of the thumb. No visible deformity nor difficulty with motion.

139
Q

Why is scaphoid fracture difficult to heal?

A

Limited blood supply
Fracture often disrupts the blood flow
Prone to avascular necrosis

140
Q

What is the non-operative treatment option for scaphoid fracture?

A

Thumb spica cast immobilization for 6-8 weeks or more.

141
Q

What is the indication for operative treatment for scaphoid fracture?

A

If the displacement is > 1 mm.

142
Q

What are the operative treatment options for scaphoid fracture?

A

ORIF
Bone grafting
Proximal row carpectomy

143
Q

What are the OT roles in back pain?

A

Assess ergonomics of posture and/or environment

Core strengthening exercises

144
Q

What are the 2 roles of the vertebral discs?

A

Allow spine to flex

Shock absorption

145
Q

True or False: Disc degeneration is a disease.

146
Q

What are the normal changes in the spinal discs with age?

A

Dehydration – stiff and rigid
Lose shock absorbing abilities
Restrict movement

147
Q

Degenerative disc disease is most commonly found in people who do what kind of work?

A

Heavy lifting or misuse their backs repetitively

148
Q

What is herniated disc?

A

Part of the disc pushes through towards the spinal canal, compressing the spinal nerves.

149
Q

What are the symptoms of herniated disc?

A

Pain, numbness, weakness

150
Q

What are non-surgical treatments for herniated disc?

A

Gentle physical acitivty

Education on body mechanics

151
Q

What are surgical treatments for herniated disc?

A

Laminectomy – Removal of lamina

Discectomy – Removal of the herniated disc fragment

152
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A

Narrowing of spinal canal

153
Q

What are the symptoms of spinal stenosis?

A

Pain (back, sciatica), weakness in the lower body, numbness

154
Q

What are some causes of spinal stenosis?

A 
Degeneration
Bone growth due to wear and tear
Herniation
Ligament thickening
Tumors
Spinal injuries
155
Q

What are the non-surgical interventions for spinal stenosis?

A 
Stretching and strengthening
Cortisone
NSAIDs
Acupuncture
Chiropractice
156
Q

What are the surgical interventions for spinal stenosis?

A

Laminectomy and decompression

Spinal fusion

157
Q

What are possible consequences of scoliosis/kyphosis/lordosis?

A

Back pain
Decreased lung volume (can lead to pneumonia)
Heart compression

158
Q

What are the 3 phases of surgical treatment of scoliosis or other spinal curvature issues?

A
  1. Observation – Assess the curve.
  2. Bracing – Thoracic lumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO).
  3. Surgery – Only if bracing ineffective; Growth rods/Vertical Expandable Prosthetic Titanium Rib; Spinal instrumentation.
159
Q

What percentage of the adult populations experiences low back pain some time in their lives?

160
Q

What are the most common causes of low back pain?

A

Poor sleeping or sitting posture
Lifting/reaching with rounded back
Prolonged sitting/standing

161
Q

What percentage of people with low back pain develop chronic pain?

162
Q

How long does it take for people with low back pain to return to work?

A

Usually within 6 weeks

163
Q

What are the OT roles in low back pain?

A

Acute treatments – Activity and early return to work
Chronic treatments – graded exercise and resumption of ADLs, cognitive behavioural therapy, progressive muscle relaxation, education on body mechanics

164
Q

When standing for a prolonged amount of time, what posture is recommended for people with low back pain?

A

Posterior pelvic tilt – Place one foot on a stool

165
Q

For bending and reaching tasks, what movements are recommended for people with low back pain?

A

Move body closer and reach less. Walking with the broom/vacuum instead of reaching with it.

166
Q

For sitting, what movements are recommended for people with low back pain?

A

Flex at the knees and hips, and not at the spine
Raised seats put less pressure on the back
Slightly reclines posture for prolonged sitting

167
Q

What are the common causes of spinal fractures?

A

Trauma
Osteoporosis
Tumor

168
Q

What are the non-surgical treatments for spinal fractures?

A

Flat-bed rest
Thoracic lumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO)
Philadelphia collar

169
Q

What are the back restrictions and precautions?

A

No lifting, pushing, or pulling objects over 5-10 lbs
No twisting (wiping when toileting, log rolling in bed, no driving)
No spinal forward flexion, side flexion, extension
Avoid straight leg lifts
Avoid activities that will jar the back (contact sports, crowds, sexual activity, riding in vehicles)
Avoid staying in one position for too long

170
Q

Why is osteoporosis prevalent in menopausal women?

A

Limited production of estrogen

171
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Loss of bone mass because bone is being broken down faster than it can be replaced

172
Q

What are the 2 types of osteoporosis?

A
  1. Primary: e.g. Post-menopausal women
  2. Secondary: Young and middle-aged people due to medications, malnutrition, or too much exercise (can lead to amenorrhea)
173
Q

What are some risk factors for osteoporosis?

A 
Menopause
Family history
Body type (skinny and thin-boned)
Lifestyle (smoking and drinking)
Lack of exercise
Lack of calcium and vitamin D
174
Q

What are the OT roles for osteoporosis?

A

Education for falls prevention
Safety precautions
Encourage exercise

175
Q

What are the possible complications of falls in seniors?

A

Loss of confidence -> Decrease in activities -> Decline in health and function -> Increased risk for future falls with more serious outcomes

176
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

“Imperfectly formed bone”; Inability to make strong bones due to disordered Type 1 collagen synthesis

177
Q

What are the causes of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Hereditary or spontaneous mutation

178
Q

What are the symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Short stature
Frequent fractures with abnormal healing
Respiratory problems
Occasionally blue sclera

179
Q

What are the 4 types of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Type 1: Most common and most mild. Small quantities of Type 1 collagen. Blue sclera.
Type 2: Fatal. Abnormal collagen structure
Type 3: Fractures present at birth. Short stature.
Type 4: Incidence of fractures decrease as child ages but may increase again with menopause or age.

180
Q

What are the OT roles for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Prevent fractures – Identify safety risks and reduce potential for injury
Positioning and modifications after surgical interventions

OCCTH 584 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions