orthopedics Flashcards

1
Q

A 34year-patient who presented to the A&E with marked ring and finger clawing after injury his upper limb , with sensory loss of little finger and medial aspect of ring finger,
what is the most likely lesion :

A-Ulnar nerve injury at elbow
B-Ulnar nerve injury at wrist
C-Radial nerve injury
D-Lower brachial plexues roots
E-Upper brachial plexus roots
A

Answer is B

Ulnar Paradox

More Proximal - Injury at Elbow >
Less Clawing

More Distal - Injury At Wrist >
Marked clawing

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2
Q

Recall January 2020 - Patient presented to the A&E with loss of medial arm sensation and loss of sensation over hypothenar muscles with loss of finger adduction and wasting of thenar eminence

A-Ulnar nerve injury
B-Radial nerve injury
C-Upper trunk injury
D-Lower trunk injury
E-Middle trunk injury
A

D

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3
Q

Twisting knee injury

Then trying to standing on it next day twisting again with inability to do knee extension

A

Twisting sporting injuries followed by delayed onset of knee swelling and locking are strongly suggestive of a menisceal tear. Arthroscopic menisectomy is the usual treatment.

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4
Q

An 18-month-old girl has been referred to the orthopaedic outpatient clinic. Her mother has noticed that she is walking with an increasing limp on the left side. The girl denies any pain. A pelvic X-ray shows a vertically orientated acetabular roof and poorly developed femoral head.
What is the most likely diagnosis

A.  Developmental dysplasia of the hip
B.  Genu valgum
C.  Genu varum
D.  Perthes’ disease
E.  Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
A

A
Developmental dysplasia of the hip

(DDH; previously known as congenital dislocation of the hip) encompasses a range of disorders ranging from a mildly dysplastic hip to an overtly dislocated one.

The primary abnormality is thought to be a shallow and anteverted acetabulum, with anteversion of the femoral head and neck. The overall prevalence of DDH is 3/1000 (higher at birth).

It most commonly affects the left hip of girls. Risk factors include being the first born, breech presentation, oligohydramnios and neuromuscular disorders, e.g. cerebral palsy, spina bifida. It is common in cultures where children are swaddled around their mothers.

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5
Q

A 74-year lady who has presented with fracture neck of the femur, underwent THR

Examination of the head will show
Common pathology condition ,

Regarding
Mineralization, density, architecture

A

Osteoporosis means normal mineralization
Low density low mass
Abnormal architecture

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6
Q

Weber classification

A

Weber A fractures

describe a fracture that is distal to the syndesmosis.

Weber B fractures
occur at the level of the syndesmosis and often extend proximally, laterally, and posteriorly.
These typically result from external rotation. Fifty percent of Weber B fractures are
associated with tearing of the anterior tibiofibular ligament and are unstable in such
instances.

Weber C fractures
occur above the level of the syndesmosis and often occur with the foot in pronation at the time of injury; they are almost always associ-
ated with a medial ankle injury, whether ligamentous or bony.

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7
Q

A 78 years old man complains of a long hisstory of shoulder pain and more reecently weakness. on examination, active attempts at abduction are impaired. passive movement are normal.
what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. rotator cuff tear
B. osteoarthiritis
C. Metastatic malignancy 
D. adhesive capsulitis
E. calcific tendonitis
A

Answer is Tear

Tear is “unable” actively
But the doctor will help him do it passively without pain

Tendonitis “ Tenderness”
Patient can do it actively & passively but with severe tenderness

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8
Q

Scenario 1
A 47-year-old lady presents with a 3-month history of painful shoulder. The pain is worse during the mid-phase of
abduction and when bringing the hand down. There is no pain during the two extremes of movement.

A

G - Painful arc syndrome« CORRECT ANSWER
G – Painful arc syndrome:
In painful arc syndrome (chronic supraspinatus tendonitis; impingement syndrome), there is pain on
abduction 60–120° (middle 1/3 of the arc), but the extremes of movements are painless. The underlying
pathology is the swelling of the tendon, and the pain is produced when it impinges on the undersurface of
the acromial process during the mid-phase of abduction. Repeating the movement with the arm in full
external rotation throughout may be much easier and relatively painless; this is virtually pathognomonic
of painful arc syndrome.

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9
Q

Scenario 2
A 60-year-old presents with a painful right shoulder after he fell off a tree 2 days ago. He has suffered from
chronic shoulder pain in the past. On examination, there is tenderness at the tip of his shoulder and underneath
the acromial process. He is unable to lift his arm and there is hunching of the shoulder.

A

H - Rotator cuff tear« CORRECT ANSWER.
H – Rotator cuff tear:
Rotator cuff is a sheet of conjoint tendons (subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor)
closely applied to the shoulder capsule and inserting into the greater and lesser tubercle of the humerus.
The differing clinical pictures stem from three basic pathological processes – degeneration, trauma and
vascular lesion. The supraspinatus tendon is liable to injury when it contracts against firm resistance;
this may occur when lifting a weight, or when the patient uses his or her arm to save themselves from
falling. This is much more likely if the cuff is already degenerate. The clinical presentation reflects the
loss of tendon function with weakness, a drop arm sign (characteristic hunching of the affected shoulder)
and even inability to lift the arm. There is often relentless night pain. On local palpation, pain is felt at the
shoulder-tip and upper arm and there is tenderness under the acromion

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10
Q

Scenario 3
A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with an acutely painful left shoulder. There is no history of trauma. On
examination, the shoulder joint is tender anterolaterally and there is restriction of all movements except external
rotation. X-ray reveals radio-opaque deposits within the supraspinatus tendon.

A

Calcified tendinitis

any further minor or major injury = tear

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11
Q

Scenario 4
A 23-year-old rugby player presents with sudden shoulder pain after being involved in a tackle during the game.
On examination, there is loss of shoulder contour and a bulge is felt in the deltopectoral groove

A

D – Dislocated shoulder:
Shoulder dislocation is common after trauma.

Anterior dislocation is the commonest type (in contrast to
posterior dislocation in the hip joint). Shoulder dislocation may be associated with injury to the axillary
nerve which causes loss of sensation over the upper outer aspect of the deltoid region (‘badge’ area).

The round contour of the shoulder is lost because of the absence of the head of the humerus within the
glenoid fossa – the head of humerus may be felt in the deltopectoral groove (in anterior dislocation).

Even in clinically obvious dislocations, an X-ray should be performed to rule out an associated fracture.

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12
Q

A 24-year-old man sustains a twisting injury to his knee, with his body turning outwards (the tibia rotates inwards) as he falls while climbing a mountain. His binding fails to release and he feels a crack in his knee. Nothing seems to be out of place, but it swells immediately and he has to be brought down off the mountain on a stretcher. He has a positive Lachman’s test.

1 Anterior cruciate ligament injury
2 Chondromalacia patellae
3 Hoffa’s syndrome
4 Lateral collateral ligament injury

A

1

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13
Q

A 17-year-old long jumper injures her knee by landing with it hyperextended. She now has chronic knee pain, especially when she tries to straighten it. On examination she has tenderness to palpation over the anterior fat pad.

1 Anterior cruciate ligament injury
2 Chondromalacia patellae
3 Hoffa’s syndrome
4 Lateral collateral ligament injury

A
  1. Hoffa syndrome

a hyperextension injury of the knee crushes the fat pad in the front of knee. the fat pad becomes swollen and painful. usually settles spontaneously but may require arthroscopic resection of the fat pad.
examination = fat pad tenderness

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14
Q

A 16-year-old rugby player is tackled and feels severe pain in the knee. He notices something
out of place in this knee. However, as he rolls over to try to stand up, whatever it was clicks
back into place

1 Anterior cruciate ligament injury
2 Chondromalacia patellae
3 Hoffa’s syndrome
4 Patellar dislocation
5 Lateral collateral ligament injury
A

4
patella dislocation is one of the more common acute intrinsic injury to the knee.
it is most frequent in the second and third decades.

risk factor

  • trochlear dysplasia
  • ligamentous laxity
  • patella alta

knee will be painful and swollen initially and so will be difficulty to examine but once the initial inflammation settled patient will be left with a patella apprehension sign. any attempt to push the patella laterally as you passively flex the knee will be resisted by the patient who have a sense of discomfort and apprehension.

radiograph is important to rule out any bony injuries

TX
- conservative treatment unless there is an acute bony pathology or recurrent problem with instability

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15
Q

An 18-year-old driver is involved in a high-energy motor vehicle accident. He sustains facial injuries from the windscreen and a fractured sternum from the steering wheel, and his right knee is painful and swollen. Radiographs are unremarkable.

1 Anterior cruciate ligament injury
2 Lateral collateral ligament injury
3 Meniscal injury
4 Patella dislocation
5 Posterior cruciate ligament injury
A

5

Dashboard injury

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16
Q

A 20-year-old footballer is involved in a heavy tackle where another player impacts with
outside of his knee. He feels pain over the inner aspect of his knee, and he has a positive valgus stress test but with a firm end point.

1 Anterior cruciate ligament injury
2 Lateral collateral ligament injury
3 Meniscal injury
4 Patella dislocation
5 Posterior cruciate ligament injury
A

MCL

17
Q

A A young man complains of clunking and locking of the knee. MRI shows that a fragment of the femoral condyle has broken off and is jamming in the joint.

1 Blount’s disease
2 Chondromalacia patellae
3 Discoid meniscus
4 Osgood–Schlatter disease
5 Osteochondritis dissecans
A

5
effusion + tenderness long standing
Fragments of the femoral condyle can be lost in a condition called osteochondritis dissecans. These loose fragments can jam in the joint and cause locking.

18
Q

A child presents with a painful lump over the tibial tubercle.

1 Blount’s disease
2 Chondromalacia patellae
3 Discoid meniscus
4 Osgood–Schlatter disease
5 Osteochondritis dissecans
A

4
clinical appearance
prominence over tibial tuberosity partly due to soft tissue swelling and partly to avulsed fragments

OSD = soft tissue swelling over proximal tibia
OCD = tubercle over proximal tibia
19
Q

Type of femur fracture in the

Child who was hit

A

Greenstick

20
Q

Type of femur fracture in the Woman with metastasis

A

Oblique

21
Q

Type of femur fracture in the Tibial twisted

A

Spiral

22
Q

Type of femur fracture in the Trauma from side

A

Transverse

23
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is the most common type of arthritis that affects children. It used to be known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, but the name was recently changed to reflect the differences between childhood arthritis and adult forms of rheumatoid arthritis.

24
Q

Maisonneuve fracture

A

The Maisonneuve fracture is a spiral fracture of the proximal third of the fibula associated with a tear of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and the interosseous membrane. There is an associated fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deep deltoid ligament. This type of injury can be difficult to detect.

25
Q

A 32-year-old man presented with a 1-month history of shoulder pain especially on lifting his arm. On examination
he had marked tenderness lateral to the acromion process with a painful arc of 60–120°.

A

A - Supraspinatus tendonitis

26
Q

A 47-year-old lady presents with a 3-month history of painful shoulder. The pain is worse during the mid-phase of
abduction and when bringing the hand down. There is no pain during the two extremes of movement.

A

G - Painful arc syndrome« CORRECT ANSWER
G – Painful arc syndrome:
In painful arc syndrome (chronic supraspinatus tendonitis; impingement syndrome), there is pain on
abduction 60–120° (middle 1/3 of the arc), but the extremes of movements are painless. The underlying
pathology is the swelling of the tendon, and the pain is produced when it impinges on the undersurface of
the acromial process during the mid-phase of abduction. Repeating the movement with the arm in full
external rotation throughout may be much easier and relatively painless; this is virtually pathognomonic
of painful arc syndrome.

27
Q

A 15 year old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who is concerned that he has a mark overlying his lower spine. On examination, the boy has a patch of hair overlying his lower lumbar spine and a birth mark at the same location. Lower limb neurological examination is normal. What is the most likely cause?

Spina bifida occulta
Meningomyelocele
Spondylolisthesis
Scheuermanns disease
Myelocele
A

Spina bifida occulta

Spina bifida occulta is a common condition and may affect up to 10% of the population. The more severe types of spina bifida have more characteristic skin changes. Occasionally the unwary surgeon is persuaded to operate on these cutaneous changes and we would advocate performing an MRI scan prior to any such surgical procedure in this region.

28
Q

A 24 year old man sustains a distal radius fracture during a game of rugby. Imaging shows a comminuted fracture with involvement of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

Open reduction and internal fixation
Reduction under anaesthesia and place in plaster cast
Reduction under haematoma block and place into plaster cast
Place onto skeletal traction system
Apply a futura splint and review in fracture clinic

A

Open reduction and internal fixation

Meticulous anatomical alignment of the fracture segments is crucial to avoid the development of osteoarthritis and risk of malunion.

Distal radius fracture

  • Potentially unstable injuries should be managed with surgical fixation.
  • Factors favoring instability include; dorsal tilt of more than 20 degrees, comminuted fracture, injury to the ulnar styloid, intra articular disruption
  • Young patients, who typically have a higher energy mechanism of injury are usually managed surgically
  • In the elderly it is important to initiate treatment for osteoporosis
29
Q

Which of the following statements relating to menisceal tears is false?

The medial meniscus is most often affected
True locking of the knee joint may occur
Most established tears will heal with conservative management
In the chronic setting there is typically little to find on examination if the knee is not locked
An arthroscopic approach may be used to treat most lesions

A

Most established tears will heal with conservative management

Menisci have no nerve or blood supply and thus heal poorly. Established tears with associated symptoms are best managed by arthroscopic menisectomy.

30
Q

A 22 year old rugby player falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a fracture of the distal radius. The x-ray shows a dorsally angulated comminuted fracture. What is the most appropriate management?

Reduce under haematoma block and place in plaster
Admit for open reduction and internal fixation
Reduce using Biers block and place into plaster cast
Discharge home with arm sling and review in fracture clinic
Discharge home with futura splint and fracture clinic appointment

A

Admit for open reduction and internal fixation

Unlike an osteoporotic fracture in an elderly lady this is a high velocity injury and will require surgical fixation.

31
Q

A 56 year old lady presents with a painful swelling over the lower end of the forearm following a fall. Imaging reveals a distal radial fracture with disruption of the distal radio-ulnar joint. What is the most likely fracture?

Fracture of the distal humerus
Fracture of the shaft of the radius and ulnar
Fracture of the coronoid process
Galeazzi fracture
Fracture of the radial head
A

Galeazzi fracture

Galeazzi fractures occur after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. On examination, there is bruising, swelling and tenderness over the lower end of the forearm. X- Rays reveal a displaced fracture of the radius and a prominent ulnar head due to dislocation of the inferior radio-ulnar joint.

32
Q

A 45 year old man has been admitted after being knocked off his bicycle. His ankle is grossly deformed with bilateral malleolar tenderness with severe ankle swelling and tenting of the medial soft tissues. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Application of compression dressing and physiotherapy
Application of external fixation device
Immediate reduction and application of backslab
Surgical fixation
Application of full leg plaster cast

A

Immediate reduction and application of backslab

This is an unstable ankle injury that is likely to require surgical fixation. The immediate management of a displaced ankle fracture is to reduce the fracture to prevent soft tissues compromise and help reduce swelling. This can be performed before an x-ray is obtained if performing the x-ray will significantly delay reduction.

33
Q

A 28 year old man falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

Barton's
Colles'
Smith's
Pott's
Galeazzi
A

Smith’s

his is a Smith fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture); unlike a Colles’ this is a high velocity injury and may require surgical correction. Note that Colles’ fractures are usually dorsally displaced.

34
Q

An 8 year old boy presents with symptoms of right knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past three months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; he walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent right leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Perthes Disease
Osteosarcoma of the femur
Osteoarthritis of the hip
Transient synovitis of the hip
Torn medial meniscus
A

Perthes Disease

There are many causes of the irritable hip in the 10-14 year age group. Many of these may cause both hip pain or knee pain.

Transient synovitis of the hip the commonest disorder but does not typically last for 3 months.

An osteosarcoma would not usually present with apparent limb shortening unless pathological fracture had occurred.

A slipped upper femoral epiphysis can cause a similar presentation although it typically presents later and with different patient characteristics.

Perthes disease

  • Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis of the femoral head
  • Impaired blood supply to femoral head, causing bone infarction.

Features

  • Males 4x’s greater than females
  • Age between 2-12 years
  • Limp
  • Hip pain
  • Bilateral in 20%

Plain x-ray, Technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging if normal x-ray and symptoms persist.