Orthopedics Flashcards

1
Q

Likely diagnosis if there is a baby with uneven gluteal folds, and physical examination of the hips shows that they can be easily dislocated posteriorly with a jerk and a “click,” and returned to normal with a “snapping.”

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

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2
Q

Suspect this in a kid (usually 6 y.o.) who walks with a limp, decreased hip motion, antalgic gait, and passive motion of the hip is guarded.

A

Legg-Calve-Perth disease (Avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis)

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3
Q

What to suspect in an obese boy, around age 13, complains groin (or knee) pain and limps. When they sit with the legs dangling, the sole of the foot on the affected side points toward the other foot.
On physical exam there is limited hip motion, and as the hip is flexed the
thigh goes into external rotation and cannot be rotated internally.

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). it’s an orthopedic emergency

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4
Q

Suspect this in little toddlers who have had a febrile illness and then refuse to move the hip. They hold the leg with the hip flexed, in slight abduction and external rotation, and do not let anybody try to move it passively. They have elevated sedimentation rate.

A

Septic hip

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5
Q

Suspect this in little kids who have had a febrile illness, but it shows up with severe localized pain in a bone (and no history of trauma to that bone). X-rays will not show anything for a couple of weeks. MRI gives prompt diagnosis.

A

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

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6
Q

Genu varum is normal in kids up to what age? Past that, what is a likely diagnosis?

A

Normal in kids up to 3 years old. Past that, probably Blount disease, a disturbance in the medial proximal tibial growth plate.

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7
Q

Genu valgus is normal in what age group?

A

Ages 4-8

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8
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle. Seen in teenagers with persistent pain right over the tibial tubercle, which is aggravated by contraction of the quadriceps. Physical exam shows localized pain right over the tibial tubercle, and there is no knee swelling. Tell athletes to stop doing their sport

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9
Q

Conservative management for Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

RICE: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

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10
Q

Club foot: When it presents, description, and management

A

Seen at birth. Both feet are turned inward, and there is plantar flexion of the ankle, inversion of the foot, adduction of the forefoot, and internal rotation of the tibia. Plaster casts, sometimes achilles tenotomy, leg braces.

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11
Q

Scoliosis: usual patient, description, treatment

A

Adolescent girls, curvature of the spine usually to the right, use braces and possibly need surgery

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12
Q

Bone remodeling in children compared to adults

A

Remodeling occurs to an astonishing degree in children, so degrees of angulation in children that would be unacceptable in an adult is permissible in children when they are reduced and immobilized.

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13
Q

When a kid falls on an extended arm and hyperextends it, what is a common fracture?

A

Supracondylar fracture, on the humerus

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14
Q

How do you treat a fracture of a growth plate?

A

Closed reduction, if the epiphyses and growth plate are displaced laterally from the metaphysis but are in one piece (i.e., the fracture does not cross the epiphyses or growth plate and does not involve the joint). If the growth plate is in two pieces, open reduction and internal fixation will be required, for precise alignment. Otherwise, growth will occur unevenly, resulting in deformity of the extremity.

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15
Q

Suspect this in a young person with persistent low-grade pain for months, and have a “sunburst” pattern or “onion skinning” on X-ray

A

Primary malignant bone tumors: think Osteogenic Sarcoma or Ewing Sarcoma

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16
Q

Most common malignant bone tumor. Usually 10-25 year olds, around the knee. Shows “sunburst” pattern on X-ray.

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

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17
Q

Second most common malignant bone tumor. Usually 5-15 year olds, in diaphyses of long bones. Shows “onion skinning” on X-ray.

A

Ewing sarcoma

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18
Q

Bone tumors in humans are usually:

A

Metastatic from other areas

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19
Q

Suspect this in an old man with fatigue, anemia, and localized pain at specific places on several bones. X-rays show multiple punched-out lytic lesions. They also have Bence-Jones protein in the urine and abnormal immunoglobulins in the blood, shown by serum immunoelectrophoresis.

A

Multiple Myeloma

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20
Q

Suspect this bone cancer in a cancer with relentless growth (several months) of soft tissue mass anywhere in the body. They are firm, fixed to surrounding structures. They metastasize to lungs but not to lymph nodes.

A

Soft tissue sarcomas

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21
Q

What is closed reduction and when do you do it

A

Immobilization of a broken bone to let it heal. You can do a closed reduction when the fracture is not badly displaced or angulated or it can be aligned by external manipulation.

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22
Q

When do you have to fix a bone fracture with open reduction and internal fixation

A

When the fracture leaves the bone severely displaced, angulated, or unable to be aligned

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23
Q

Most common shoulder dislocation

A

Anterior dislocation of the shoulder

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24
Q

Fracture of the distal radius, dorsally displaced and dorsally angulated. Typically happens when old osteoporitic ladies fall with outstretched hands. Tx?

A

Colles fracture. Closed reduction.

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25
Q

Fracture that results from a direct blow to the ulna (think a raised protective arm from a nightstick).

A

Monteggia fracture

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26
Q

Fracture that results from a direct blow to the radius, which gets the fracture, with dorsal dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint. Tx?

A

Galeazzi fracture. Open reduction and fixation of fracture, closed reduction of the dislocation.

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27
Q

Suspect this fracture in a person who fell on an outstretched hand, complains of wrist pain, with localized tenderness over the anatomic snuff box.

A

Scaphoid bone fracture. Open reduction and internal fixation.

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28
Q

Suspect this fracture in a person who punched a wall, hand is swollen and tender.

A

Metacarpal neck fractures

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29
Q

What do you have to worry about with a femoral neck fracture?

A

Compromising the blood supply of the femoral head, which is fragile. Could result in avascular necrosis

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30
Q

Most common treatment for femoral shaft fractures

A

Intermedullary rod fixation

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31
Q

Ligaments injured by sideways blows to the knee

A

Collateral ligaments (medial or lateral)

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32
Q

Anterior draw test and what it means

A

Pull the leg forward and it comes forward at the knee. Means ACL tear

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33
Q

Repair for a meniscal tear

A

open repair

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34
Q

Is seen in out-of-shape middle-aged men who subject themselves to severe strain (tennis, for instance). As they plant the foot and change direction, a loud popping noise is heard (like a rifle shot), and they fall clutching the ankle.

A

Achilles tendon rupture

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35
Q

Compartment Syndrome. When will you see it, signs and symptoms, physical findings.

A

Mostly in the forearm/lower leg. Can be caused by prolonged ischemia -> reperfusion, crushing injuries, or other trauma. In the lower leg, most common cause is a fracture with closed reduction. The patient has pain and limited use of the extremity. The compartment feels very tight and tender to palpation. The most reliable physical finding is excruciating pain with passive extension. Pulses may be normal.

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36
Q

Most reliable finding of compartment syndrome

A

Excruciating pain with passive extension.

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37
Q

Gas gangrene: What causes it, natural course, and treat it.

A

Caused by deep, penetrating, dirty wounds (stepping on a rusty nail, with lots of mud or manure). In about 3 days the patient is extremely sick, looking toxic and moribund. The affected site is tender, swollen, discolored, and has gas crepitation. Treatment includes copious IV penicillin, extensive emergency surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen.

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38
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms

A

Numbness and tingling in hands, esp. at night, and in the distribution of the median nerve (radial 31⁄2 fingers). The symptoms can be reproduced by hanging the hand limply for a few minutes, or by tapping, percussing or pressing the median nerve over the carpal tunnel.

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39
Q

Maneuver to reproduce DeQuervain Tenosynovitis

A

Asking her to hold her thumb inside her closed fist, then forcing the wrist into ulnar deviation

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40
Q

Occurs in older men of Norwegian ancestry. There is contracture of the palm of the hand, and palmar fascial nodules can be felt. Surgery may be needed when the hand can no longer be placed flat on a table.

A

Dupuytren Contracture

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41
Q

How to treat Felon, an abscess in the pulp of the fingertip

A

Urgent surgical drainage, since the pulp is a closed space with multiple fascial trabecula, and pressure can build up and lead to tissue necrosis

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42
Q

Injury of the ulnar collateral ligament sustained by forced hyperextension of the thumb, and how to treat it

A

If untreated it can be dysfunctional and painful, and lead to arthritis. Casting is usually done.

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43
Q

Jersey finger vs Mallet finger

A

Jersey finger: when the flexed fingers are forcefully extended, injuring the flexor tendon.
Mallet finger: when the extended finger is forcefully flexed, resulting in extensor tendon rupture. The finger tip remains flexed when the hand is extended, resembling a mallet.
Splint for both.

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44
Q

Common region for Lumbar disk herniation

A

Occurs almost exclusively at L4-L5 or L5-S1

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45
Q

Lumbar disk herniation sx

A

Several months of vague aching pain (the “discogenic pain” produced by pressure on the anterior spinal ligament) before sudden onset of the “neurogenic pain” precipitated by a forced movement. The latter is extremely severe, “like an electrical shock that shoots down the leg” (exiting on the side of the big toe in L4-L5, or the side of the little toe in L5-S1), and it is exacerbated by coughing, sneezing, or defecating (if the pain is not exacerbated by those activities, the problem is not a herniated disk). Patients cannot ambulate, and they
hold the affected leg flexed. Straight leg-raising test gives excruciating pain.

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46
Q

Lumbar disk herniation Tx

A

Bed rest for about 3 weeks. Often require pain control with nerve blocks. Surgical intervention is needed if neurologic deficits are progressing (progressive muscle weakness), and emergency intervention is required if there is a cauda equina syndrome.

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47
Q

Cauda equina syndrome

A

Distended bladder, flaccid rectal sphincter,

perineal saddle anesthesia. A surgical emergency requiring immediate decompression.

48
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Seen in young men in their thirties or forties who c/o chronic back pain and morning stiffness. Pain is worse at rest, and improves with activity. Symptoms are progressive, and xrays eventually show a “bamboo spine.” Antiinflammatory agents and physical therapy are used.

49
Q

What antigen is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, and what else is it associated with?

A

HLA B-27. Also associated with uveitis and inflammatory bowel disease

50
Q

Where will diabetic ulcers develop, and why

A

Pressure points (heel, metatarsal head, tip of toes). They start because of the neuropathy, and they fail to heal because of the microvascular disease.

51
Q

Where will ulcers from arterial insufficiency develop, and what will they look like.

A

As far away from the heart as they can be: at the tip of the toes. They look dirty, with a pale base devoid of granulation tissue. The patient has other manifestations of arteriosclerotic occlusive disease (absent pulses, trophic changes, claudication or rest pain)

52
Q

How does workup begin for ulcers from arterial insufficiency

A

Doppler studies looking for a pressure gradient (if there isn’t one, there is microvascular disease not amenable to surgical therapy).

53
Q

Where do venous stasis ulcers develop, and what does the clinical picture look like

A

Chronically edematous, indurated, and hyperpigmented skin above the medial malleolus. The ulcer is painless, with granulating bed. The patient has varicose veins and suffers from frequent bouts of cellulitis.

54
Q

What 2 medical conditions need to be looked for in the workup of chronic foot ulcers

A

Diabetes and arteriosclerotic occlusive disease

55
Q

What causes a Marjolin ulcer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin developing in a chronic leg ulcer

56
Q

Suspect this in a pt with many years of healing and breaking down, such as seen in untreated third-degree burns that underwent spontaneous healing, or in chronic draining sinuses secondary to osteomyelitis. A dirty-looking, deeper ulcer develops at the site, with heaped up tissue growth around the edges.

A

Marjolin ulcer: squamous cell carcinoma of the skin developing in a chronic leg ulcer

57
Q

Suspect this in an older, overweight patient who complains of disabling, sharp heel pain every time their foot strikes the ground. The pain is worse in the mornings.

A

Plantar Fasciitis

58
Q

X-ray and PE results for plantar fasciitis

A

Bony spur matching the location of the pain, and physical exam shows exquisite tenderness to palpation over the spur. Interestingly, the bony spur is not the problem.

59
Q

Suspect this in a patient with inflammation of the common digital nerve at the third interspace, between the third and fourth toes. The spot is very tender. The cause is typically the use of pointed, highheeled shoes (or pointed cowboy boots) that force the toes to be bunched together.

A

Morton’s neuroma.

60
Q

Conservative management of Morton’s neuroma

A

Analgesics and more sensible shoes, but, if needed, surgical excision can be done

61
Q

Pathophysiology and symptoms of gout

A

Uric acid chrystals build up in the fluid of joints. Swelling, redness, and exquisite pain of sudden onset at the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint, in a middle-age obese man with high serum uric acid

62
Q

Treatment for gout

A

Acutely, indomethacin and colchicine. Chronically, allopurinol and probenicid.

63
Q

Suspect this in a patient w/ mid or distal humerus fxr who can’t dorsiflex wrist or extend metacarpophalangeal joints

A

Radial nerve injury

64
Q

Suspect this in a pt w/ this classic triad 24-72 hours after a trauma: respiratory symptoms, neurological changes, and a reddish-brown petechial rash.

A

Fat embolism syndrome. Respiratory findings such as hypoxemia, dyspnea, and tachypnea are the earliest manifestations. A chest x-ray may demonstrate Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Neurologic abnormalities develop afterwards, most often manifested by confusion, drowsiness or altered level of consciousness, and, in severe cases, seizure or paralysis. Lastly, the classic petechial rash develops, but in only 50–60 % of cases. The petechial rash results from extravasation of erythrocytes secondary to the occlusion of dermal capillaries by fat emboli. The rash, in the proper clinical context, is pathognomonic for fat embolism syndrome.

65
Q

6 Ps of compartment syndrome

A

pain out of proportion to injury with gentle passive stretch of the involved muscles, pressure (swollen and tense compartments), paresthesia, pulselessness, poikilothermia, and paralysis. This is a surgical emergency.

66
Q

Seddon’s Three Basic Categories of Nerve Injury

A

Neuropraxia, axonotmesis, neurotmesis.

67
Q

What is neuropraxia

A

Minimal injury (myelin), but not axon or nerve sheath. Temporary nerve conduction block, loss of motor and sensory function, but not autonomic. Full recovery expected, hours to months.

68
Q

What is Axonotmesis?

A

Myelin plus axon disrupted, nerve sheath intact. Wallerian degeneration with motor sensory and autonomic paralysis. Recovery often incomplete, weeks to months, axon sprouts within nerve sheath.

69
Q

What is Neurotmesis?

A

Myelin, axon, and nerve sheath also damaged. Recovery variable and incomplete at best, usually requires surgery or results in permanent paralysis.

70
Q

What antibiotics should be given for class 1, 2, or 3 open fractures? For how long?

A

1 and 2 get cephalosporins, grade 3 gets cephalosporin+aminoglycoside. Given 24 hours after closure of wound.

71
Q

What antibiotic should be added to the regimen if farm or soil contamination of an open fracture has taken place?

A

Penicillin (or equivalent) to cover anaerobes, especially clostridium perfringens which could cause gas gangrene.
Also consider tetanus immune globulin (TIG) and tetanus toxoid (TT) depending on their immunization status.

72
Q

Treatment for fat embolism syndrome

A

Supportive care including ventilatory support with high PEEP and early stabilization of the fractures. Corticosteroids can help in certain cases.

73
Q

suspect this if Anterior drawer sign+.

A

ACL tear

74
Q

suspect this if McMurray test +

A

Medial meniscal tear

75
Q

suspect this if Posterior drawer sign +

A

PCL tear

76
Q

suspect this if Varus instability is present

A

Lateral collateral ligament tear

77
Q

suspect this if Valgus instability is present

A

Medial collateral ligament tear

78
Q

Suspect this if foot drop is present

A

Damage to peroneal nerve

79
Q

“Unhappy triad” of the knee

A

ACL tear, MCL tear, and medial meniscus injury

80
Q

“Terrible triad” of elbow

A

Elbow dislocation, coronoid and radial head fracture

81
Q

Suspect these 2 things if patient is unWILLING to bend their knee

A

Fracture or septic arthritis. Consider arthrocentesis

82
Q

What radiographic sign is pathognomonic for ACL injury?

A

Segond sigmoid fracture (a small fleck of bone avulsed from the lateral tibial plateau)

83
Q

Patella alta vs patella baja

A

The patella may ride high (alta) due to unopposed pull from the quadriceps in the setting of a patellar tendon rupture.
Conversely, it may ride low (baja) with quadriceps rupture.

84
Q

Characteristic Radiographic Features of Osteoarthritis of the Knee (list 4) and Why Is It Important to Consider After ACL Injury?

A

Joint space narrowing, osteophytes (bone spurs), subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. These changes are critical to recognize as ACL surgery is not appropriate in the setting of significant arthritis of the knee.

85
Q

What test do you do in the case of a hot, swollen knee with no history of trauma? What are you looking for?

A

Arthocentesis, which looks for WBC (->infection) and crystal analysis (looking for monosodium urate crystals in gout and calcium pyrophosphate crystals in pseudogout).

86
Q

Acute symptomatic conservative treatment for ACL tears and such

A

RICE: Rest, Ice, Compress, Elevate

87
Q

Tumors that frequently metastasize to the bone

A

“BLT and Kosher Pickle”: Breast, Liver, Thyroid, Kidney, Prostate.

88
Q

What disorders should be looked for in a kid with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

Endocrine disorders, like hypothyroidism, growth hormone abnormalities, renal osteodystrophy, hypopituitarism, and hyper- or hypoparathyroidism.

89
Q

Pain originating around the groin and traveling to the knee suggests which joint as the main cause?

A

Hip joint

90
Q

Most common cause of hip pain in childhood, and what will precede it?

A

Transient synovitis. Will be preceded by a respiratory infection or viral infection.

91
Q

What infectious diseases should you consider on the differential of hip pain?

A

Lyme disease, TB

92
Q

What does steroid use predispose children to, joint wise?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head AKA osteonecrosis

93
Q

Genetic risk factors for AVN of the femoral head

A

Sickle cell disease, Gaucher’s disease

94
Q

Knee pain should be considered referred from the ____ until proven otherwise

A

Hip

95
Q

X-ray finding: Asymmetry of the femoral head on the neck. The ice cream appears to slide off the cone.

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

96
Q

X-ray finding: Subluxation or dislocation of the femoral head from the acetabulum. Difficult to assess on x-ray in infants

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

97
Q

X-ray finding: Subchondral (under the cartilage) collapse of the bone of the femoral head

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

98
Q

Most Common Nerve Entrapment Syndrome in the Upper Extremity

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

99
Q

Classic PE signs of Carpal Tunnel

A

Tinel’s: percussing over median nerve at the carpal tunnel, pt feels electrical shock sensation in the median nerve distribution.
Phalen’s: place the dorsal sides of each hand against each other in a position of maximal wrist flexion for 30–60 s. Patient reports new or worsening paresthesias in the median nerve distribution of the affected hand(s)

100
Q

Durkan’s Median Nerve Compression Test

A

Squeezing the patient’s wrist with direct compression over the median nerve at the carpal tunnel using the examiner’s thumb. Positive if the patient reports new or worsening numbness or tingling in some portion of the median nerve sensory distribution to the hand within 30–60 s

101
Q

How do you distinguish Carpal Tunnel Syndrome from proximal median nerve compression at the elbow (pronator syndrome)?

A

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve branches prior to the carpal tunnel and travels above the transverse carpal ligament. It innervates the skin over the thenar eminence. Thus typical carpal tunnel syndrome will not show sensory dysesthesias in this area, whereas pronator syndrome will.

102
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Compression of the lower brachial plexus (ulnar symptoms predominate) or compression of the subclavian vessels between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, often associated with a cervical rib.

103
Q

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

The Median Nerve

104
Q

What does the median nerve innervate in the hand?

A

The thenar muscles (abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis – superficial head and opponens pollicis) and the two radial lumbricals.

105
Q

What Is the Sensory Distribution of the Median Nerve in the Hand?

A

Sensory distribution provides sensation to the radial volar 3.5 fingers and dorsal tips (thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring).

106
Q

What Is the Origin of the Median Nerve from the Cervical Spine Roots?

A

C5-T1

107
Q

What Are the Boundaries of the Carpal Tunnel?

A

Carpus dorsally (floor) and transverse carpal ligament volarly (roof). The scaphoid, trapezium, and sheath of flexor carpi radialis form its radial margin. The ulnar boundary consists of the triquetrum, hook of the hamate, and the pisiform.

108
Q

What Is the Significance of Thenar Wasting?

A

Since the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar muscle mass, long-standing or severe carpal tunnel disease can result in denervation of the thenar muscles. The profile of the thenar eminence of both hands as well as the strength of abductor pollicis brevis (palmar abduction) should always be checked.

109
Q

Three stages of median nerve compression

A

Stage 1: Sensory symptoms (numbness, pain, tingling) at night.
Stage 2: Symptoms occur also by day.
Stage 3: Motor symptoms of weakness and/or muscle wasting, too.

110
Q

Froment’s sign

A

Examiner can easily pull a flat piece of paper from the hand of the patient who
uses thumb IP flexion via the FPL tendon of the median nerve (anterior interosseous branch) to grasp the paper.

111
Q

What Systemic Condition Is Often Associated with CTS?

A

Hypothyroidism

112
Q

First line, second line, and surgical treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

First line: Splinting of the wrist (not hand) in a neutral position (reduces pressure in the carpal tunnel). NSAIDs and activity modifications.
Second Line: Carpal tunnel injection with local anesthetic and corticosteroid medication.
Indications for Surgical Intervention: Failure to respond adequately to conservative nonoperative management or thenar motor involvement.

113
Q

What Is the Gold Standard Treatment for CTS?

A

Carpal tunnel release which is surgical cutting of the transverse carpal ligament, the roof of the carpal tunnel. This is performed through a small open incision or endoscopically.

114
Q

Two nerves at risk of injury during transection of the carpal tunnel

A

Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. The thumb will show greatly impaired function.
Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve. Leads to a very painful and difficult to treat neuroma despite improvement in carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms.

115
Q

Tumor that could produce carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms

A

Pancoast tumor

116
Q

Prosthetic joint infection, most common organisms: 1) <3 months after surgery 2) 3-12 months after surgery 3) >12 months after surgery

A

1) <3 months: Staph aureus, gram-neg rods, anaerobes.
2) 3-12 months: coag-neg staph, propionibacterium species, enterococci.
3) >12 months: Staph aureus, gram-neg rods, beta-hemolytic strep.

117
Q

Neer test, and what to consider when it is positive

A

Patient internally rotates shoulder, with forearm pronated (thumbs towards floor), examiner flexes humerus. If positive (elicits pain) consider a rotator cuff tear.