Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery Subspecialties > Orthopedic Surgery > Flashcards

Orthopedic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

subluxation definition

A

partial dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fracture-dislocation definition

A

peri-articular fracture resulting in subluxation or dislocation of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

displacement definition

A

translation of the 2 fragments in relation to each other in one or more planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

angulation definition

A

2 fracture fragments are not aligned and an agular deformity is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

rotation definition

A

torsional relationship btw the 2 fracture fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does this type of fracture say about the mechanism of injury: spiral

A

torsional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does this type of fracture say about the mechanism of injury:avulsion

A

tension (eg. ACL tear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does this type of fracture say about the mechanism of injury: transverse

A

bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does this type of fracture say about the mechanism of injury: oblique

A

bending w/compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does this type of fracture say about the mechanism of injury: segmental/comminuted

A

high energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

incomplete fracture involving the cortex of 1 side (tension side), most commonly seen in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Buckle/torus fracture

A

Buckling of the compression side of the cortex of a long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Salter-Harris fractures

A

fracture of the growth plate in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the types of salter-harris fractures?

A 
I (S) - straight across the physis
II (A) - above the physis
III (L) - lower than the physis
IV (T) - through metaphysis/physis/epiphysis
V (R) - cRushed physis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are stress fractures the most common?

A
  • 2nd metatarsal
  • femoral neck
  • proximal tibia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In which people do you see the most stress fractures?

A
  • runners
  • military recruits
  • anorexic patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pathologic fractures can be 2/2 to ___(3)

A
  • tumor/mets
  • previously infected bone
  • osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 5/6 P’s of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Pain out of proportion to exam
  • parasthesia
  • pallor
  • poikilothermia (inability to regulate core body temp)
  • paralysis
  • pulselessness (later finding)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

compartment syndrome has pain with ______ stretch

A

PASSIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx of compartment syndrome

A

emergent fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what happens to arteries that are injured?

A
  • arterial injury rare becuase they usually slide out of the way
  • damage to the walls leads to intramural hematomas that require vein grafts or prostheses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

With what bone injuries are you most concerned about vascular trauma?

A
  • clavicle
  • supracondylar region of elbow
  • femoral shaft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What vascular trauma do you worry about with supracondylar fractures of the elbow?

A
  • damage to the brachial artery that could cause Volkmann’s contracture (compartment syndrome of the forearm causing ischemia/necrosis of the forearm muscles resulting in FLEXION OF THE WRISTS AND FINGERS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s more common - nerve or vascular injury?

A

nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 types of nerve injury from most likely to recover to least likely?

A
  • neuropraxia - disruption of nerve function
  • axonotmesis - anatomic disruption of the axonal sheath
  • neurotmesis - anatomic disruption of the nerve itself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What nerve do you worry about injury to with the following injuries:

  • humerus shaft fracture
  • knee dislocation
  • hip dislocation
A
  • radial nerve
  • peroneal nerve
  • sciatic nerve, peroneal division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

myositis ossificans definition. Where is it most common?

A

heterotopic bone forms within the damaged muscle which leads to the ossification of muscle
- quadriceps, brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the most likely damage to muscle/tendon (i.e., where in the muscloskeletal system) in the following age groups:

  • kids
  • adults
  • elderly
A
  • growth plate (physis)
  • ligaments
  • bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe the 3-step process of fracture healing

A
  • vascular phase
  • metabolic phase
  • mechanical phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the vascular phase of bone healing

A
  • hematoma development
  • cellular infiltrate
  • vascularization/organized hematoma
  • soft callous formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the metabolic phase of bone healing

A

soft callous –> hard callous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe the mechanical phase of bone healing

A

mechanical stress is required to produce skeletal remodeling and solid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the orthapedic emergencies (6)

A

VC SCOreD

  • fractures a/w Vascular injury
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Septic arthritis
  • Cauda equina syndrome
  • Open fractures
  • Dislocation of major joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a glycocalyx

A

can form on implants and provides substrate for colonization. It’s inaccessible to abx and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tx of infection after fractures

A
  • surgical debridement
  • remove infected bone
  • abx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in what bones do you see avascular necrosis

A
  • head of the femur
  • dome of the talus
  • scaphoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

A
  • trivial trauma resulting in abnormal sympathetic tone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe complex regional pain syndrome

A
  • exquisite pain
  • erythema, swelling
  • idiopathic cause
  • often a/w minor trauma/surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Clavicular fractures:

  • in whom are they most common
  • how do you treat them
A
  • kids, cyclists
  • usually sling, figure 8 strap
  • surgical tx if open, widely displaced, or a/w lower or ipsilateral fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do you treat:

  • simple proximal humerus fractures
  • proximal humerus displacement
A
  • sling, early range of motion (ROM)

- open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Acromioclavicular separation:

  • what is it injury of and how is caused
  • in whom are these most common
  • how do you treat them
A
  • injury of acromaclavicular and coracoclavicular ligament 2/2 falling on acromion
  • atheletes, football players
  • sling + early motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of shoulder dislocation is the most common?

A
  • anterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe anterior shoulder dislocations, how are they treated?

A
  • axillary nerve damage possible
  • often recurrent
  • tx: closed reduction + sling. Recurrent dislocations may need surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

posterior shoulder dislocations are usually a/w _____. How are they treated?

A
  • seizures, electrocution

- closed reduction + sling. Recurrent dislocations may need surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

W/humeral shaft fractures check for _____ damage

A
  • radial nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

humeral shaft fractures are treated with

A
  • closed treatment w/either hanging arm cast or functional (Sarmiento) brace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Distal humeral fractures have many complications such as ____ (4)

A
  • nerve palsies
  • posttraumatic arthritis
  • heterotopic ossification
  • stiffness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Distal humerus fractures are treated with _____(3)

A
  • anatomic reduction
  • stable fixation
  • early motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Supracondylar fractures are usually seen in ______ (what group) as a result of ____.

A
  • kids

- monkey bar fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a risk a/w supracondylar fractures

A
  • injury to brachial artery causing Volkmann’s contracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you treat supracondylar fractures?

A
  • closed reduction

- cast for 4-6 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture/dislocation and how is it treated?

A
  • ULNA fracture, RADIUS dislocation

- ORIF of ulna, closed reduction of radial head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture/dislocation and how is it treated?

A
  • RADIUS fracture, ULNA dislocation

- ORIF of radius and casting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Colles fracture

  • definition,
  • cause,
  • popular age groups
  • Classic findings
  • treatment
A
  • distal radius fracture
  • FOOSH
  • kids and elderly
  • dorsal displacement of distal fragment, dorsal angulation, radial shortening
  • closed reduction + cast (if stable); open reduction if fracture is intra-articular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Scaphoid fracture

  • presentation
  • tx
  • high risk of….
A
  • tenderness in anatomic snuffbox
  • thumb-spica cast
  • high risk of nonunion and AVN requiring OR for displaced fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Nightstick fracture

  • definition
  • results from
  • Tx
A
  • ulnar shaft fracture
  • self defense with arm against a blunt object
  • ORIF if significant displacement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Vertebral fractures

  • tx if one vertebra is fractured (therefore stable)
  • tx if 2-3 vertebra are fractured (therefore unstable)
  • tx if nerve damage involved
A
  • use brace
  • surgery
  • surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is considered a stable pelvic fracture? How is it treated?

A
  • one break in pelvic ring

- bed rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is considered an unstable pelvic fracture? What is this a/w? How is it treated?

A
  • 2+ breaks in pelvic ring
  • significant blood loss
  • stabilization with external fixator or through surgical means
60
Q

What are the 2 types of hip fractures?

A
  • femoral neck

- intratrochanteric

61
Q

Risk of femoral neck (intracapsular) fracture _____. Tx?

A
  • AVN

- younger patient - fixation; older patient - hemiarthroplasty

62
Q

Risk of intertrochanteric (extracapsular) fracture _____. Tx?

A
  • NO RISK OF AVN

- surgery

63
Q

Hip dislocation is usually a result of ______.

  • complications include (2)
  • tx
A
  • impact between a knee and dashboard in an MVA
  • AVN, sciatic nerve palsy
  • emergent closed reduction
64
Q

Femoral shaft fractures are usually caused by ______.

  • Watch for ______
  • Tx.
A
  • direct trauma
  • FAT EMBOLI
  • intramedullary nailing of the femur
65
Q

Tibial or “bumper” fractures are usually the result of ______

  • Tx if minimal displacement
  • Tx if lots of displacement
  • Tx if tibial shaft, what is a common AE of this?
A
  • direct trauma
  • nonoperative
  • ORIF
  • intramedullary nailing - high nonunion rate
66
Q

W/knee dislocations check for ____(2)

A
  • vascular injury (popliteal pulse, ABI)

- nerve injury (peroneal)

67
Q

Calcaneous fracture:

  • Tx if extra articular, minimal displacement
  • Tx if extra articular, lots of displacement
A
  • non-weight bearing

- ORIF

68
Q

What is the etiology of osteoarthritis? (8 steps)

A
  • age –> decreased proteoglycans/collagen –> decreased cartilage formation –> bone stress/formation –> sclerosis (bone hardening) –> cracks –> synovial fluid inside bone –> subchondral cysts w/bone repair along edges (osteophytes)
69
Q

what is lamina splendens?

A
  • top protective layer of articulating cartilage
70
Q

What are the 4 main radiographic characteristics of OA

A
  • subchondral cysts
  • osteophytes
  • sclerosis
  • joint space narrowing
71
Q

What do patients w/OA present w/?

A
  • pain at the end of the day
  • older people
  • crepitus
  • decreased ROM
  • morning stiffness s nodes: PIP
72
Q

Tx for OA (4)

A
  • PT
  • weight reduction
  • NSAIDs
  • arthroplasty - severe cases (efficacious for pain but not fxnl improvement)
73
Q

The hallmark of septic arthritis is _____

A

resistance to active and passive motion

74
Q

The organisms you think of when you think of septic arthritis

A
  • S. aureus

- GC in sexually active

75
Q

Describe the formation of RA joints

A
  • inflammatory response/AI disease 2/2 hyperplasia of synovial cells –> increased synovial fluid + pannus formation –> bone erosion, cartilage destruction, ankylosis of joints
76
Q

S/sx of RA (3)

A
  • morning stiffness >1hr
  • pain decreases w/use
  • affects wrists, MCPs, PIPs
77
Q

RA labs (2)

A
  • increased RF

- increased anti-CCP antibodies

78
Q

Tx of RA

A
  • MTX/DMARDs
  • NSAIDs
  • Sulfasalazine
  • Hydroxychloroquine
79
Q

What is neurogenic arthritis?

A
  • no feedback causes joint damage

- SNS dysfxn causes arteriole induced hyperemia and pain out of proportion to PE

80
Q

What action do the following spinal nerves control?

  • L2
  • L3
  • L4 (3)
  • L5
  • S1 (4)
A

L2: hip flexion
L3: leg extension (quads)
L4: foot dorsiflexion (AT), patellar reflex, sensation to medial aspect of lower leg
L5: toe dorsiflexion (Extensor Hallicus Longus - EHL), sensory to dorsum of foot + lateral aspect of lower leg
S1: sensation to plantar and lateral aspects of the foot, plantar flexion (gastroc + soleus), achille’s reflex, hip extension (glut max)

81
Q

Nerve root irritation or injury is a ______

A

radiculopathy

82
Q

How do radiculopathies affect motor, sensation and reflexes?

A
  • motor: weakness
  • sensation: parasthesias
  • DTRs: decreased
83
Q

How likely is it someone 60-80 yo will have a herniated nucleus pulposis (HNP)?

A
  • 93%
84
Q

RFs for HNP (3)

A
  • Age
  • cancer
  • trauma
85
Q

What are the 2 most common sites for HNPs?

A
  • L4-L5

- L5-S1

86
Q

Which nerve root is usually affected for HNPs? If central? If lateral?

A
  • lower one (for ex - if it’s the L4-L5 disc than the L5 would most likely be affected)
  • lower (ex L5)
  • Upper (ex L4)
87
Q

HNPs can result from (3)

A
  • age
  • degeneration
  • disc dehydration
88
Q

What is a physical exam finding w/HNPs?

A
  • positive passive straight leg raise and if it’s on both sides this is more specific
89
Q

S/Sx of HNP (7)

A
  • sciatica
  • parasthesias
  • muscle weakness
  • atrophy
  • contractions
  • spasms
  • radiculopathy
90
Q

How do you diagnose HNPs?

A
  • clinical (MRIs only if indicated)
91
Q

Tx of HNPs (5)

A
  • NSAIDs
  • PT
  • steroid injections
  • neurostimulator if necessary
  • NO bedrest
92
Q

How effective is surgery for HNP?

A
  • 50-70%
93
Q

How many HNPs resolve on their own?

A
  • 90%
94
Q

What are potential causes of cauda equina syndrome? (3)

A
  • L4-L5 herniation
  • tumor
  • abscess
95
Q

S/Sx of cauda equina syndrome

A
  • b/l sciatic pain or saddle anesthesia
  • urinary retention/bowel dysfunction
  • impotence
96
Q

Tx of cauda equina syndrome

A
  • MEDICAL EMERGENCY

- requires rapid cord decompression

97
Q

What is spinal stenosis and what’s it usually caused by?

A
  • narrowing of the lumbar or cervical spinal canal causing compression of nerve roots and spinal cord
  • usually caused by degenerative joint disease w/osteophyte formation
98
Q

S/Sx of spinal stenosis (3)

A
  • pain that radiates to arms, legs or butt
  • pain increases w/standing or walking
  • forward bend test - pain decreases w/flexion of the hips and bending forward (neuroclaudication)
99
Q

Dx of SS

A
  • MRI, CT
100
Q

Tx of SS (for mild, moderate, and severe)

A
  • mild - NSAIDs
  • moderate - epidural steroid injections
  • severe - surgical laminectomy
101
Q

What is spondylitis?

A
  • seronegative spondylo-arthropathy, meaning RF- (also included in this group is psoriatic arthritis, IBS, and reactive arthritis)
  • a/w HLA-B27
102
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis. What are the s/sx? What other conditions is it a/w?

A

chronic inflammation of spine and sacroiliac joints causing spine stiffness 2/2 fusion of the joints- “bamboo spine”

  • pain worsens w/inactivity and in the mornings
  • a/w uveitis and aortic regurge
103
Q

Tx of AS (4)

A
  • NSAIDs,
  • exercise
  • TNF inhibitors
  • Sulfasalazine
104
Q

What is spondylosis

A

disc degeneration, the same as OA of the back

105
Q

What is spondylolysis

A

defect in the pars interarticularis

106
Q

What is spondylolisthesis

A
  • slippage of the vertebral body forward

- degenerative in old, isthmic in children

107
Q

Pain in the back when moving means ____ disease. Pain while sitting means ____ disease.

A
  • joint

- disc

108
Q

You only image people with back pain after ______ wks of sx or if _____ are present

A
  • 6 wks

- red flags

109
Q

What is the difference in long term outcomes in surgery vs. medical management of back pain?

A
  • no difference
110
Q

metatarsus adductus

A

Pediatrics

  • pigeon toed walk 2/2 defect in the foot
  • it’s a ‘packaging defect’ meaning that it arose d/t positioning of the baby inside the mom’s womb
111
Q

What are the 3 types of metatarsus adductus

A
  • actively correctable - no needed tx
  • passively correctable - stretching exercises
  • ridgid - casts or braces
112
Q

What is the triad of club foot?

A
  • equinus = plantar flexion deformity, pt walks on their toes
  • metatarsus adductus
  • heel varus
113
Q

Is club foot a packaging defect like metatarsus adductus?

A

NO

114
Q

club foot is a/w

A

DDH (developmental dysplasia of the hip)

115
Q

tx for club foot

A

manipulation of the foot, surgery

116
Q

Blounts disease

- tx?

A
  • unknown cause
  • dysfxn of the medial tibia physis causing varum
  • tx: surgical realignment
117
Q

What is genu verum (verus)

A

bowlegs

118
Q

what is genu vulgum (valgus)

A

knock kneed

119
Q

Pes planus

- what causes this?

A

flat feet

- ligamentous laxity causes the rigid flat feet which stay flat, most are static, tarsal bone fusion

120
Q

DDH is a hip dislocation that results from poor development of the hip d/t _____ and ______ which causes _____ and excessive stretching of the ______

A
  • lax muscles of the hip
  • shallow acetabulum
  • contractures
  • posterior hip capsule
121
Q

What fxn of the hip do the following PE tests test:

  • Barlow
  • Ortolani
  • Galeazzi’s sign
A
  • adduction
  • abduction
  • knees at unequal heights when hips and knees are flexed
122
Q

Other than Barlow, ortolani, and galeazzi’s sign, what might you find on the PE of someone with DDH?

A
  • asymmetric skin folds
123
Q

DDH is most commonly seen in ______

A

first born females born BREECH

124
Q

What is the tx for DDH. What happens if you don’t treat this?

A

<6 mos old: Pavlik Harness (maintains hip flexed and abducted)
6-15 mos old: spica cast
15-24 mos old: open reduction + spica cast
No tx leads to early OA of the hip

125
Q

What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

separation of the proximal femoral epiphysis through the growth plate causing inferior and posterior displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck. The epiphysis remains in the acetabulum

126
Q

What are RFs for SCFE (4)

A
  • obesity
  • ages 11-13
  • male gender
  • AA
127
Q

What is SCFE a/w (2)

A
  • hypothyroidism

- other endocrinopathies

128
Q

S/Sx of SCFE (5)

A
  • Insidious or acute groin or knee pain
  • painful limp
  • decreased ROM
  • inability to bear weight
  • often b/l (40-50%)
  • limited internal rotation and abduction of the hip
129
Q

How do you dx SCFE (2)

A
  • XR: AP and frog-leg lateral views
    • will show posterior and inferior displacement of the femoral head
  • check TSH levels
130
Q

How do you treat SCFE (2)

A
  • no weight bearing

- percutaneous screw fixation

131
Q

What is Legg-Calve Perthes Disease?

A
  • idiopathic AVN of the femoral head
132
Q

W/regard to Legg-Calve Perthes Disease:

  • most commonly affected group
  • natural hx of the disease
  • what indicates better prognosis?
A
  • boys 4-10 yo
  • usually self-limited w/sx present for <18 mos.
  • early onset
133
Q

S/sx of Legg-Calve Perthes Disease (5)

A
  • painless limp
  • pain can exist in the groin or anterior thigh
  • limited abduction and internal rotation
  • atrophy of affected leg
  • usually unilateral
134
Q

Tx of Legg-Calve Perthes Disease

A

Observation if full ROM intact.

If full ROM not intact, consider bracing, hip abduction w/petrie cast or osteotomy

135
Q

Define scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature of the spine >10 degrees

136
Q

Possible etiologies of scoliosis (5)

A
  • usually idiopathic

- can be congenital, a/w neuromuscular, vascular, or spinal cord disease

137
Q

What indicates a better prognosis for scoliosis?

A
  • late onset
138
Q

If a pt presents w/congenita scoliosis, also check ____ & ______ because ____

A
  • kidneys
  • heart
  • they develop at the same time
139
Q

how does the prevalence of scoliosis differ between males and females?

A

ratio of 1:7

140
Q

What test can you use to check for scoliosis?

A
  • forward bending test: rib hump (clinical hallmark of scoliosis)
141
Q

How do you treat scoliosis?

A
  • 50º - surgical correction
142
Q

Osteomyelitis is most commonly d/t _____

A

staph

143
Q

Rigidity of the bone causes ___ to move down the path of least resistance, so it rapidly pressurizes spread to medullary canal through the cortex, and into the subperiosteal space to form an abscess in osteomyelitis

A

pus

144
Q

You rarely see osteomyelitis in the ____ because _____

A

epiphysis

- physis acts as a barrier

145
Q

Dx of osteomyelitis

A
  • t-99m bone scan is sensitive and specific
  • ESR
  • CRP
146
Q

Tx of chronic osteomyelitis

A

surgical debridement

Surgery Subspecialties (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions