Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Module 3 > Orthopaedics and Rheumatology > Flashcards

Orthopaedics and Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of crystals accumulate in gout?

A

Uric acid crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risk factors for gout?

A

High meat/seafood/alcohol intake, male, older-age, thiazide/loop diuretics, aspirin, G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of recurrent gout?

A

Allopurinol - A xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces uric acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the management of acute gout?

A

NSAIDs, COXi (if increased risk of GI bleeds), colchicine or corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of crystals accumulate in pseudo gout?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What antibodies are seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti-cyclic citrullinated antibodies and rheumatoid factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the management of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

DMARD (methotrexate), corticosteroid (prednisolone) and NSAID.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What common skin complaint is reported in juvenile RA?

A

Salmon coloured rash on trunk/proximal extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 regions of the body affected in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Neck, shoulder and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What condition is often seen alongside polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Sjogren’s Syndrome characterised by?

A

Xerostomia (reduced salivary gland secretions) and keratoconjunctivitis sicca (reduced lacrimal gland secretions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What antibodies are seen in SLE?

A

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and antiphospholipid antibodies (increase risk of venous/arterial thrombosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 skin complaints first seen in SLE?

A

Malar butterfly rash, photosensitive rash and discoid rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of tissue does scleroderma affect?

A

Connective tissue - causes hardening/thickening of skin, internal organs and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What size muscular artery does polyarteritis nodosa affect?

A

Medium-sized (kidneys, brain, heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What autoimmune disorder causes raised red plaques on knuckles as well as muscle aches?

A

Polyarteritis myositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two most common causative agent of cellulitis?

A

Streptococcous pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the main symptoms of septic arthritis?

A

Acute joint pain, fever, erythema/warmth/swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What bones does osteomyelitis tend to affect?

A

Long bones i.e. in the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes bone erosion in osteomyelitis?

A

The leukocytes secrete enzymes to destroy the pathogen, but in fact erode the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a risk factor for osteomyelitis in a diabetic person?

A

A diabetic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What infections does reactive arthritis succeed?

A

GI/GU infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common cause of reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the triad symptoms of reactive arthritis?

A

Arthritis of large joints, conjunctivitis/uveitis, GU inflammatory conditions - balantitis, urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What type of drug is given to a CKD patient suffering from gout?
Corticosteroid
26
What drug is given to patients with gout who are at a high risk of peptic ulcers/GI bleeding?
Colchicine
27
What causes compartment syndrome?
Increased interstitial pressure in a closed compartment - damages microvasculature and muscles.
28
What is the surgical management of compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomy
29
What condition is caused by compression of the nerve root bundle in the lumbar region of the spinal cord?
Cauda Equina Syndrome
30
What medical emergency causes bowel and urinary dysfunction alongside severe back pain?
Cauda Equina Syndrome
31
Who tends to be most at risk of adhesive capsulitis?
Females, aged 40-70 years
32
What is the rotator cuff?
Group of muscles and tendons responsible for shoulder stabilisation. Rotator cuff disorders cause tears in the muscles/tendons of the rotator cuff.
33
What condition can cause deltoid pain, which tends to radiate down into the forearm and worsens at night?
Rotator cuff disorders
34
What body part is affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
The thumb and its surrounding tendon sheath
35
What condition causes locking of the finger and a tender nodule formation at the metacarpal head?
Trigger finger
36
What are the risk factors for Dupuytren's Contracture?
Male, European, middle-aged, alcohol, smoking, T2DM, family history
37
What are the risk factors for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Female, 40-60 years, high BMI, previous wrist damage, diabetes, RA, pregnancy
38
What tendon is affected in lateral epicondylitis/tennis elbow?
Common extensor tendon
39
What condition can cause buttock pain and may show sacroiliitis on a pelvic x-ray?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
40
What conditions are associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Iritis, uveitis, sacroiliitis
41
Back pain that worsens at night is a sign of what?
Compression fractures due to osteoporosis
42
Kyphosis presents with what type of deformity?
Hunchback
43
What common condition affecting the elderly causes kyphosis?
Osteoporosis - causes compression fractures resulting in a hunchback appearance.
44
What is the most common cause of spinal stenosis?
Older age - ligaments thicken, bone spurs bulge, degenerative disc disease.
45
Which knee injury presents with pain on going downhill?
Posterior cruciate ligament injury
46
What body part refers pain to the knee?
The hip
47
What investigation confirms muscle/tendon tears?
MRI
48
What type of cruciate ligament injury causes pain on flexion?
Anterior cruciate ligament
49
What knee injury presents with pain behind the patella that worsens on inclines/declines?
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
50
What are the 5 Ottawa Ankle Rules?
1. Pain in malleolar zone 2. Pain in posterior edge/lateral malleolus (distal 6cm) 3. Pain at base of fifth metatarsal 4. Navicular pain 5. Inability to bear weight
51
A Hallux Valgus is a...
Bunion
52
What are the risk factors for the development of Hallux Valgus?
Osteoarthritis, older age, family history, females
53
Where are the interdigital nerve branches that are affected in Morton's Neuroma?
Third inter metatarsal space
54
What are the risk factors for Morton's Neuroma?
Female, middle-aged, high heels, high-impact sport
55
The sensation of a small stone underfoot is a sign of what condition?
Morton's Neuroma
56
What adulthood condition can cause flat feet?
Osteoarthritis
57
A child with knock knees will present with
Knees and ankles not being able to touch
58
A child with bow legs will present with
Knees being unable to touch (ankles able)
59
Knock knees is associated with what vitamin/mineral deficiency?
Vitamin C/D and calcium deficiency
60
What conditions can cause Bow Legs?
Blount's disease, Rickets, dwarfism
61
What causative agent commonly causes septic hip?
Staph aureus
62
What haematological disorder increases the risk of septic hip?
SCD
63
What is a lifestyle-related risk factor for slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Obesity
64
What is a common complication of a bone cyst?
Fracture
65
What are the signs/symptoms of osteosarcoma?
Worsening pain, worse at night, pain just below the knee, mass/swelling, limp
66
What is the term given to a fracture at the 5th metacarpal base?
Boxer's Fracture
67
What fracture occurs after falling onto an outstretched hand?
Colle's fracture
68
What fracture occurs after falling onto a flexed hand?
Smith's fracture
69
Who commonly experiences Greenstick fractures?
Children
70
What is the most common pelvic fracture in elderly people?
Inferior and superior pubic rami fracture
71
What nodes are seen on the middle fingers in OA?
Bouchard's nodes
72
What nodes are seen on the distal fingers in OA?
Heberden's nodes
73
What are the adverse effects of NSAIDs?
Increased MI/stroke risk, GI toxicity (ulcers, bleeding) and renal toxicity
74
Who should avoid NSAIDs?
Those with severe renal impairment, heart failure, liver failure. Low doses for people with peptic ulcers, GI bleeding, CVD/renal impairment.
75
NSAIDs reduce the effectiveness of what type of drugs?
Anti-hypertensives
76
What are the common dermatological side effects of steroids?
Striae, skin thinning, acne
77
What is the risk of suddenly stopping steroid treatment?
Adrenal crisis
78
What supplement must be taken alongside (on a different day) to methotrexate?
Folic acid
79
What is the function of bisphosphonates?
Prevent/slow loss of bone mass in osteoporosis.
80
What type of drug is alendronic acid?
Bisphosphonate
81
Bisphosphonates should be avoided in people with..
Upper GI disease/bleeding/oesophageal disorders
82
What are risk factors for avascular necrosis?
High cholesterol, alcohol, smoking, steroid treatment (prednisolone), chemotherapy.
83
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
Female, low BMI, older age, steroid therapy (prednisolone), smoking.
84
Osteomalacia causes
Softening of bones
85
Paget's Disease is caused by
Increased bone remodelling/growth. This increases the risk of bony deformities, fractures, bone/back pain.
86
Renal osteodystrophy is secondary to
CKD
87
Septic arthritis is most commonly caused by 3 bacteria?
1. Staph aureus 2. Strep 3. Disseminated gonococcal infection
88
5 RF for septic arthritis
1. Age 2. PMH of arthritis (OA/RA) 3. Recent joint surgery 4. Immunocompromised 5. IV drug user
89
What differentiates cellulitis from septic arthritis?
In septic arthritis, the pain/swelling/erythema/warmth is localised to the joint
90
Most common cause of osteomyelitis
Staph aureus
91
5 RF for osteomyelitis
1. Open fracture 2. Recent orthopaedic surgery 3. Immunocompromised 4. IV drug use 5. Artificial joints/screws
92
Investigations for Reiter's/Reactive arthritis
Bloods: Raised ESR and CRP STI screening (GU) Stool cultures (GI) Antibody testing for RA
93
3 non-surgical causes of compartment syndrome
1. Burns 2. Crush injuries (i.e. in a car crash) 3. Infection
94
What renal complication arises following compartment syndrome?
AKI - requiring dialysis
95
An absent Achilles tendon reflex with sciatica back pain could be a sign of
Cauda Equina Syndrome
96
Adhesive capsulitis is commonly known as
Frozen shoulder
97
Pain in the wrist when writing/moving could be a sign of
De Quervain's tenosynovitis
98
Locking of the fingers and a painful popping could be a sign of
Trigger finger
99
Tennis elbow is also known as
Lateral epicondylitis
100
Tennis elbow affects which tendon?
Common extensor tendon
101
Golfer's elbow is also known as
Medial epicondylitis
102
Back pain that worsens at rest is a sign of
AS, osteomyelitis
103
Back pain that worsens after exercise is a sign of
Spinal stenosis
104
Back pain after straining is a sign of
Degenerative disc disease
105
5 red flags of back pain
1. < 20 y/o or > 55 y/o 2. Acute onset in elderly 3. Constant/progressive pain 4. Nocturnal pain 5. Fever/night sweats/weight loss/neurological dysfunction
106
Common genotype seen in AS?
HLA-B27 +
107
5 Ottawa knee rules
1. > 55 y/o 2. Fibula head tenderness 3. Isolated patella tenderness 4. Inability to flex knee > 90 degrees 5. Inability to bear weight
108
Where does Morton's neuroma commonly affect?
Third intermetatarsal space
109
Management for a clavicle fracture not affecting the medial third
Broad arm sling
110
Management for a clavicle fracture affecting the medial third
Surgery
111
High risk complication of scaphoid fracture
Avascular necrosis
112
Boxer's fracture affects the
5th metacarpal base
113
Management for Boxer's fracture
Immobilisation and internal fixation with K wires
114
Colle's fracture is caused by a fall on a what hand?
Outstretched
115
Colle's fracture affects the
Radius
116
Management for a Colle's fracture
Closed reduction and immobilisation
117
A Smith's fracture is caused by a fall on what hand?
Flexed
118
A Smith's fracture affects
Distal radius
119
Management for a Smith's fracture
Casting and/or surgery
120
A Greenstick fracture typically affects the what bones in what age group?
Long bones, children
121
Supracondylar fracture can damage what 2 nerves
Medial and ulna nerves

Module 3 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions