Orthognathic Surgery and Deformities Flashcards

1
Q

causes of skeletal maocclusion

A
  1. trauma
  2. pathology
  3. congenital
  4. developmental
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2
Q

congenital causes of skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. clefts

2. syndromes

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3
Q

developmental causes of skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. malocclusion

2. condylar hyperplasia

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4
Q

most malocclusions are caused by what?

A

developmental causes

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5
Q

trauma that causes skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. condylar fracture

2. radiation therapy

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6
Q

pathology causing skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. TMJ internal derrangement

2. acromegaly

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7
Q

congenital syndromes that cause skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. ectodermal dysplasia
  2. Treacher Collin’s syndrome (mandibulofacial dysostosis)
  3. hemifacial microsomia (Goldenhar’s syndrome)
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8
Q

tx of skeletal malocclusion

A
  1. growth redirection
  2. orthodontic camouflage
  3. orthognathic surgery
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9
Q

orthodontic camouflage accentuates what?

A

dental compensations

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10
Q

orthodontic camouflage is the opposite movement of what?

A

pre-surgical orthodontics

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11
Q

T/F: orthodontic camouflage has minimal discrepancy

A

true

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12
Q

T/F: orthodontic camouflage may possibly be less stable than other means of tx’ing skeletal malocclusion

A

true

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13
Q

what may be compromised with orthodontic camouflage ?

A
  1. esthetic

2. perio

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14
Q

T/F: in order to treat skeletal malocclusion with growth redirection, patient needs to be done growing

A

false, must have remaining growth

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15
Q

what should be considered with growth redirection?

A

TMJ

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16
Q

which tx option has limited correction possible?

A

growth redirection

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17
Q

T/F: patients undergoing growth redirection may have issues with compliance and may face burnout

A

true

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18
Q

orthognathic surgery

A

combined orthodontics and surgery used to manage a skeletal malocclusion

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19
Q

advantages of orthognathic surgery

A
  1. increased stability
  2. decreased tx time
  3. improved occlusion
  4. improved esthetics
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20
Q

indications for orthognathic surgery

A
  1. skeletal discrepancy with masticatory difficulty
  2. impingement on palatal tissue
  3. speech difficulty
  4. OSA (obstructive sleep apnea)
  5. psychosocial problems
  6. esthetics
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21
Q

how long does pre-surgical ortho take?

A

12-18 months

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22
Q

phase of treatment for orthognathic surgery

A
  1. pre-surgical ortho
  2. surgery
  3. post-surgical ortho
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23
Q

how long does post-surgical ortho take?

A

6 months

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24
Q

T/F: only ppl with convex facial profiles have normal occlusion

A

false, all facial types can have a normal occlusion

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25
Q

how is general facial form defined?

A

by appearance of the N’ -A- Pg’ line

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26
Q

general facial form is a general agreement among what?

A
  1. soft tissue profile
  2. skeletal features
  3. dental features
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27
Q

T/F: general facial form gives an overall impression and does not identify specific problems

A

true

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28
Q

straight profile indicates what?

A

optimal relations of maxilla and mandible to each other and to the cranial base

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29
Q

T/F: ppl with straight profiles can include some convexity at younger ages

A

true

30
Q

ppl with straight profiles usually are what skeletal and dental class?

A

1

31
Q

convex profile indicates what?

A

disproportional relationship with either…

  1. protrusive maxilla
  2. retrusive mandible
  3. combo of both
32
Q

ppl with convex profiles usually are what skeletal and dental class?

A

2

33
Q

concave profile indicates what?

A

disproportional relationship with either…

  1. retrusive maxilla
  2. protrusive mandible
  3. combo of both
34
Q

ppl with concave profiles usually are what skeletal and dental class?

A

3

35
Q

T/F: as a general rule, dental and skeletal relationships often agree

A

true

36
Q

what can be used as a guide for skeletal relationships?

A
  1. overjet

2. molars and overjet relationships

37
Q

deformities that can lead to orthognathic surgery

A
  1. class 2 deformites
  2. class 3 deformities
  3. open bite
38
Q

class III deformities?

A
  1. maxillary AP hypoplasia
  2. mandibular AP hyperplasia
  3. vertical maxillary deficiency
39
Q

class II deformities?

A
  1. maxillary AP hyperplasia
  2. mandibular AP hypoplasia
  3. vertical maxillary hyperplasia
40
Q

what percent of US Caucasians are class 2?

A

10%

41
Q

what percent of the US Caucasian class 2 population needs surgery?

A

2%

42
Q

what percent of US Caucasians are class 3?

A

2.5%

43
Q

what percent of the US Caucasian class 3 population needs surgery?

A

40%

44
Q

work-up of tx

A
  1. ceph analysis
  2. problem list
  3. orthodontic prediction
  4. surgical prediction
  5. model surgery
  6. virtual model surgery
45
Q

the ceph analysis generally supports what?

A

the profile and intraoral exam

46
Q

what is the purpose of model surgery?

A
  1. reproduce on mounted models what the surgical plan is

2. fabricate surgical stents

47
Q

vertical position is determined by what in surgery?

A

k-wire placed in nasion

48
Q

AP position is determined by what in surgery?

A

the stent

49
Q

transverse is determined by what in surgery?

A

by the stent

50
Q

surgical procedures for mandible?

A
  1. vertical ramus osteotomy
  2. BSSO (sagittal split)
  3. anterior subapical
  4. total subapical
  5. anterior horizontal osteotomy (genioplasty)
51
Q

T/F: bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO) is extraoral

A

false, intraoral

52
Q

bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO) has a potential for what type of injury?

A

IAN

53
Q

T/F: you can only do advancement with bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO)

A

false, can do advancement or set-back

54
Q

why might bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO) not be stable when used to treat anterior open bite?

A

counterclockwise rotation

55
Q

what is possible with bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO)?

A

stable rigid internal fixation

56
Q

T/F: bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy (BSSO) is commonly done in the maxilla

A

false, mandible

57
Q

maxillary surgical procedures

A
  1. anterior segmental
  2. posterior segmental
  3. lefort I
  4. high lefort (II and III)
58
Q

when was lefort I osteotomy developed?

A

1975

59
Q

what can lefort I osteotomy do?

A
  1. move maxilla in all planes
  2. stable treatment of anterior open bite
  3. allow segmentalization of the maxilla
60
Q

T/F: lefort I osteotomy has high morbidity

A

false, low

61
Q

T/F: an internal rigid fixation is possible with lefort I osteotomy

A

true

62
Q

skeletal deficiency secondary to oligodontia

A

ectodermal dysplasia

63
Q

what makes cleft patient different?

A
  1. large maxillary AP deficiencies
  2. scar tissue
  3. velopharyngeal (VP) incompetence
  4. vascular compromise
  5. palatal and nasolabial fistulas
64
Q

large AP moves

A

distraction

65
Q

surgery is indicated for patients with obstructive sleep apnea if what?

A
  1. pts is not obese
  2. unable to tolerate CPAP
  3. no evidence of redudant pharyngeal soft tissue
66
Q

what is the morbidity of orthognathic surgery?

A

very limited

67
Q

how long is the hospital stay after orthognathic surgery?

A

overnight hospital stay

68
Q

T/F: orthognathic surgery can be performed as outpatient (OMFS clinic)

A

true

69
Q

T/F: sensory nerve deficit is possible with orthognathic surgery

A

true

70
Q

T/F: intermaxillary fixation (wiring of teeth together) is rarely needed for patients that have undergone orthognathic surgery

A

true

71
Q

where are incisions made during orthognathic surgery?

A

intraoral

72
Q

what is the satisfaction rate after orthognathic surgery?

A

98%