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ABOS PART I > Orthobullets OLD > Flashcards

Orthobullets OLD Flashcards

1
Q

Anti CCP antibodies are detected in what disease?

A

RA

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2
Q

Protein C Deficiency causes a _ coagulable state

A

hyper

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3
Q

Most common radiographic finding of RSD about the knee?

A

patella osteopenia

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4
Q

Rate of fracture of strut allograft

A

25%

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5
Q

Rituximab is an antibody against what for RA?

A

CD20

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6
Q

periarticular erosions are seen in _

A

Gout

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7
Q

Rivoraxaban is a selective _ inhibitor

A

10A

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8
Q

Heparin is a _ inhibitor

A

non specific

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9
Q

Warfarin inhibits _

A

2,7,9,10

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10
Q

Juvenile RA is associated strongly with…

A

Uveitis

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11
Q

Mechanism of action for Vancomycion

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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12
Q

Protamine reverses the effects of what anti coagulant?

A

heparin

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13
Q

Medical tx for bone pain from fibrous dysplasia

A

Bisphosphonates

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14
Q

Binds presynaptic calcium channels to prevent release of neurotrans

A

gabapentin

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15
Q

Zone of polarizing activity controls what part of limb development

A

medial to lateral

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16
Q

apical ectodermal ridge controls what part of limb development?

A

proximal to distal

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17
Q

inhibits prostoglandin formation through IL-1B for pain relief

A

acetaminophen

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18
Q

Alteration in BMP-4 signaling is associated with _

A

fibrousdysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP) - Stone man disease

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19
Q

Bending rigidity proportional to?

A

r^4

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20
Q

Sports hernias caused by activities that rely upon what hip position?

A

Hip extension and abduction

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21
Q

Most lethal condition associated with absent Radius

A

Fanconi’s anemia (aplastic anemia)

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22
Q

Tenotomy of Iliopsoas tendon from medial approach can injure what vessel?

A

Medial femoral circumflex

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23
Q

Excision of the lateral process of talus for non union leads to incompetence of what ligament

A

lateral talocalcaneal

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24
Q

Ewing’s is associated with what translocation and what fusion protein?

A

t(11:22), EWS-FL1

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25
Q

Pareosteal osteosarcoma is treated with?

A

wide excision alone; no chemo/xrt

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26
Q

Single bundle PCL recon should be tightened at what degree of knee flexion

A

90

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27
Q

What direction are CMC dislocations usually and what ligament is torn?

A

dorsal; dorsoradial ligament

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28
Q

What classification system correlates with the apex of curve progression in AIS

A

Turner-Whitehouse

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29
Q

Highest risk of blood born transmission from transfusion

A

Hep B

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30
Q

MOA non nitrogen Bisphosphonates

A

Toxic ATP analog

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31
Q

MOA nitrogen containing bisphosphonates

A

inhibits farnesyl disphosphate synthase

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32
Q

Position to avoid after remplissage

A

FF, adduction

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33
Q

primary blood supply to flexor tendons within the sheath?

A

synovial fluid, not veniculae

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34
Q

Fibular Hemimelia is associated with what ankle/hindfoot abnormalities?

A

ball and socket ankle, tarsal coalition

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35
Q

Driving reaction time returns to normal after THA at _ weeks

A

4-6

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36
Q

Type of collagen in Annulus fibrosis

A

1

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37
Q

Type of collagen in nucleus pulposus

A

2

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38
Q

During open chain knee extension, max tension on ACL is during _

A

0-30 extension

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39
Q

During open chain knee extension, max tension on PCL is during _

A

Deep flexion

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40
Q

BKA amputation with fibula strut is called

A

Ertl

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41
Q

Traditional long posterior flap BKA called

A

modified Burgess

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42
Q

Osteotomy for closed triradiates and incongruent joint

A

Chiari

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43
Q

Osteotomy for closed triradiate and congruent joint?

A

PAO

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44
Q

Dega osteotomy hinges through

A

open triradiate

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45
Q

Salter osteotomy hinges through

A

flexible pubis

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46
Q

Max amount of lateral uncoverage for THA cup

A

30%

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47
Q

A poly wear rate of greater than 0._mm/yr has increased risk of osteolysis

A

0.1

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48
Q

What Bone stimulating medication is contraindicated in Paget’s?

A

Teriparatide (Forteo)

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49
Q

Anterior or posterior ICBG has higher complication rate, duration of pain, and gait abnormalities?

A

Anterior

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50
Q

lead toxicity affects which growth factor?

A

PTHrP

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51
Q

hitchhikers thumb, cauliflower ears, severe clubfeet

A

diastrophic dwarfism

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52
Q

Gene and what it encodes for diastrophic dwarfism?

A

DTD, sulfate transport protein

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53
Q

Partial tears of the biceps insertion occur in what part of the tendon?

A

radial aspect

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54
Q

Articular cartilage cells are present in what zone of cartilage?

A

surface zone

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55
Q

Tumor suppressor gene inactivated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?

A

p53

56
Q

pediatric trigger thumb will no longer resolve with conservative tx after what age?

A

2 years

57
Q

Peroneal tendon injuries are a result of what mechanism?

A

Dorsiflexion and inversion

58
Q

Peroneal tendon subluxation occurs in what position?

A

dorsiflexion and eversion

59
Q

ligament tears occur through which zone?

A

sharpy’s fibers

60
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for complication in adult deformity surgery?

A

Age > 60

61
Q

In finger digital artery sits _ relative to nerve

A

dorsal

62
Q

Elevated N-telopeptides, alpha-C-telopeptides, and urinary hydroxyproline levels are all consistent with

A

paget’s

63
Q

Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath is treated with _

A

marginal excision

64
Q

Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath resembles _ on histology

A

PVNS

65
Q

tardy ulnar nerve palsy is associated with _

A

lateral condyle fractures

66
Q

Chronic PCL instability leads to DJD in what two compartments

A

PFJ, Medial

67
Q

Medial opening wedge osteotomy has this effect compared to lateral closing

A

increases tibial slope, helpful with PCL incompentency

68
Q

An abducens palsy after halo placement is caused by injury to what cranial nerve

A

VI

69
Q

What percentage of flexor tendon laceration warrants repair?

A

>60%

70
Q

Rupture of the 2nd MTP plantar plate can lead to _

A

2nd crossover toe

71
Q

Absolute contraindication to meniscal transplant (medical condition)

A

inflammatory arthritis

72
Q

type of autograft for scaphoid non union with prox pole AVN?

A

vascularized

73
Q

In renal osteodystrophy what is the pathophysiological step that is responsible for his osteomalacia

A

uremia related phosphate retention

74
Q

SMA is caused by a deficiency in _

A

survival motor protein

75
Q

most common solid malignant tumor in children?

A

neuroblastoma

76
Q

MOA of TXA

A

competitive inhibition of plasminogen activation

77
Q

Muscles deforming rolando or Bennet fractures (2)

A

APL, adductor pollicis

78
Q

Normal range for base deficit

A

2 to -2

79
Q

Normal value for lactate?

A

<5

80
Q

histologic finding of lateral epixondylitis

A

angiofibrotic dysplasia

81
Q

Most common complication from endoscopic anterior thoracic spine surgery?

A

intercostal neuralgia

82
Q

Fibular hemimelia associated with what 2 hind foot disorders?

A

tarsal coalition, ball and socket ankle

83
Q

Predictors for ulcer not healing: ABI < _, Toe pressure < _, Albumin < _

A

0.45, 30-40 (varies), 3.0

84
Q

Arterial supply for medial gastroc flap?

A

sural artery

85
Q

What enzyme has increased activity in osteoid osteomas?

A

Cyclooxygenase

86
Q

Most common nerve injury with flexion SCH

A

Ulnar

87
Q

pseudo gout crystals are _ and _ birefringent

A

calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate; positive

88
Q

gout crystals are _ and _ birefringent

A

monosodium urate; negative

89
Q

Most important deciding factor between reconstruction and ablation for hypo plastic thumb?

A

CMC joint stability

90
Q

Primary blood supply to humeral head (GT, and LT too)

A

anterolateral branch of anterior circumflex humeral artery

91
Q

Displacement in which direction has the highest non union rate for odontoid fractures?

A

posterior displacement

92
Q

Board answer to THA dislocation direction in patients with ankylosing spondylitis

A

Anterior due to loss of lumbar lordosis

93
Q

4 most common locations of giant cell tumor from most to least common

A

distal femur, prox tibia, distal radius, sacral ala

94
Q

Order of things to release in pediatric trigger finger (not thumb)

A

A1, A3, 1 slip of FDS

95
Q

largest size of defect for Moberg advancement flap

A

2cm

96
Q

What has been shown to be increased in subacromial bursitis

A

metalloproteases

97
Q

Sites of ulnar nerve compression

A

arcade of Struthers, medial intermuscular septum, medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel (MCL and Osborne’s ligament), and deep flexor pronator aponeurosis (Two heads of FCU)

98
Q

ligament of struthers can cause compression of what nerve?

A

median

99
Q

Are facets a part of PLC

A

No, just their capsule

100
Q

Tx for jones fx in older patients?

A

cast

101
Q

With anabolic steroid use HDL _ and LDL _

A

decreases, increases

102
Q

Classic location for juvenile OCD lesion in knee

A

lateral aspect of MFC

103
Q

Position for ankle arthrodesis

A

plantigrade, 10 ER, 5 valgus, 5mm posterior translated

104
Q

Deep muscular interval for medial inside out meniscus repair

A

joint capsule and medial head of gastroc

105
Q

Best shoulder XR view for identifying hill Sachs lesion

A

stryker notch

106
Q

Responsiveness is best measured using what type of graph

A

receiver operating characteristic curve (ROC);

107
Q

children with lysosomal storage disorders have increased rate of _

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

108
Q

Treatment for early stage DJD of ankle in young person

A

supramalleolar osteotomy to correct varus or valgus, whichever is present

109
Q

Hand deformity associated with Poland Syndrome

A

Symbrachydactyly

110
Q

Relative contraindication to metaphyseal sleeve usage

A

uncontained metaphyseal defect

111
Q

Pain with pushup from chair indicative of injury to _ of elbow

A

lateral ulnar colateral ligament

112
Q

Small Blue Cell Tumors

A

LERNM Lympohoma ewings rhabdomyosarcoma neuroblastoma myeloma

113
Q

Sarcomas that metastasize to lymph nodes

A

CARES Clear cell angiosarcoma rhabdomyosarcoma epithelioid sarcoma synovial sarcoma

114
Q

Translocation associated with rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

t(2;13)

115
Q

Hip Approach with highest risk of femur fracture during femoral implant placement

A

lateral

116
Q

anteromedial bundle of ACL tight in?

A

flexion

117
Q

posterolateral bundle of ACL tight in?

A

extension (PaLE)

118
Q

T/F: indomethacin for HO ppx leads to increased femoral shaft non unions

A

True

119
Q

Muscle that also originates from common extensor organ besides ECRL, ECRB, EDC, ECU

A

anconeus

120
Q

Use of fracture table for antegrade nails has higher risk of _ deformity

A

internal rotation

121
Q

Position for hip fusion

A

5 ER, 5 adduction, 20 flexion

122
Q

What age cutoff for perthes pushes to surgical intervention?

A

8

123
Q

The teardrop is composed of what structures?

A

cotyloid fossa, quadrilateral surface

124
Q

peak bone mass in men and women is linked to what hormone?

A

estrogen

125
Q

Besides less knee pain, supra patellar nailing is associated with _ for distal third tibia fractures

A

improved alignment

126
Q

most common neurologic deficit in lumbar stenosis?

A

none

127
Q

molecule formed by macrophages for osteolysis reaction?

A

IL-1

128
Q

Primarily knee ligament responsible for rotational stability (out of ACL/PCL)

A

posterolateral band of ACL

129
Q

Time since seen in your practice for it to be “new patient:

A

3 years

130
Q

Mangled extremity scoring system takes into account what 4 factors?

A

Soft tissue injury, limb ischemia, shock, age

131
Q

When plating proximal radius fractures, forearm should be in what position for plating?

A

neutral to assure you are on the extra artic portion of radial head

132
Q

giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath is treated with ?

A

marginal excision

133
Q

Vertical or horizontal mattress repair for meniscus?

A

vertical

134
Q

In ACL deficient knee what is thought to be the highest risk factor for development of future DJD?

A

Meniscus tear

135
Q

Secondary stabilizer of anterior tibia translation without ACL?

A

posterior horn of medial meniscus

136
Q

What factor is most linked to poor outcomes from adult spinal deformity surgery?

A

obesity

137
Q

TLICS

A

ABOS PART I (7 decks)

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