Orthobullets OLD Flashcards

1
Q

Anti CCP antibodies are detected in what disease?

A

RA

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2
Q

Protein C Deficiency causes a _ coagulable state

A

hyper

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3
Q

Most common radiographic finding of RSD about the knee?

A

patella osteopenia

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4
Q

Rate of fracture of strut allograft

A

25%

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5
Q

Rituximab is an antibody against what for RA?

A

CD20

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6
Q

periarticular erosions are seen in _

A

Gout

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7
Q

Rivoraxaban is a selective _ inhibitor

A

10A

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8
Q

Heparin is a _ inhibitor

A

non specific

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9
Q

Warfarin inhibits _

A

2,7,9,10

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10
Q

Juvenile RA is associated strongly with…

A

Uveitis

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11
Q

Mechanism of action for Vancomycion

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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12
Q

Protamine reverses the effects of what anti coagulant?

A

heparin

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13
Q

Medical tx for bone pain from fibrous dysplasia

A

Bisphosphonates

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14
Q

Binds presynaptic calcium channels to prevent release of neurotrans

A

gabapentin

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15
Q

Zone of polarizing activity controls what part of limb development

A

medial to lateral

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16
Q

apical ectodermal ridge controls what part of limb development?

A

proximal to distal

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17
Q

inhibits prostoglandin formation through IL-1B for pain relief

A

acetaminophen

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18
Q

Alteration in BMP-4 signaling is associated with _

A

fibrousdysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP) - Stone man disease

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19
Q

Bending rigidity proportional to?

A

r^4

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20
Q

Sports hernias caused by activities that rely upon what hip position?

A

Hip extension and abduction

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21
Q

Most lethal condition associated with absent Radius

A

Fanconi’s anemia (aplastic anemia)

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22
Q

Tenotomy of Iliopsoas tendon from medial approach can injure what vessel?

A

Medial femoral circumflex

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23
Q

Excision of the lateral process of talus for non union leads to incompetence of what ligament

A

lateral talocalcaneal

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24
Q

Ewing’s is associated with what translocation and what fusion protein?

A

t(11:22), EWS-FL1

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25
Pareosteal osteosarcoma is treated with?
wide excision alone; no chemo/xrt
26
Single bundle PCL recon should be tightened at what degree of knee flexion
90
27
What direction are CMC dislocations usually and what ligament is torn?
dorsal; dorsoradial ligament
28
What classification system correlates with the apex of curve progression in AIS
Turner-Whitehouse
29
Highest risk of blood born transmission from transfusion
Hep B
30
MOA non nitrogen Bisphosphonates
Toxic ATP analog
31
MOA nitrogen containing bisphosphonates
inhibits farnesyl disphosphate synthase
32
Position to avoid after remplissage
FF, adduction
33
primary blood supply to flexor tendons within the sheath?
synovial fluid, not veniculae
34
Fibular Hemimelia is associated with what ankle/hindfoot abnormalities?
ball and socket ankle, tarsal coalition
35
Driving reaction time returns to normal after THA at _ weeks
4-6
36
Type of collagen in Annulus fibrosis
1
37
Type of collagen in nucleus pulposus
2
38
During open chain knee extension, max tension on ACL is during \_
0-30 extension
39
During open chain knee extension, max tension on PCL is during \_
Deep flexion
40
BKA amputation with fibula strut is called
Ertl
41
Traditional long posterior flap BKA called
modified Burgess
42
Osteotomy for closed triradiates and incongruent joint
Chiari
43
Osteotomy for closed triradiate and congruent joint?
PAO
44
Dega osteotomy hinges through
open triradiate
45
Salter osteotomy hinges through
flexible pubis
46
Max amount of lateral uncoverage for THA cup
30%
47
A poly wear rate of greater than 0.\_mm/yr has increased risk of osteolysis
0.1
48
What Bone stimulating medication is contraindicated in Paget's?
Teriparatide (Forteo)
49
Anterior or posterior ICBG has higher complication rate, duration of pain, and gait abnormalities?
Anterior
50
lead toxicity affects which growth factor?
PTHrP
51
hitchhikers thumb, cauliflower ears, severe clubfeet
diastrophic dwarfism
52
Gene and what it encodes for diastrophic dwarfism?
DTD, sulfate transport protein
53
Partial tears of the biceps insertion occur in what part of the tendon?
radial aspect
54
Articular cartilage cells are present in what zone of cartilage?
surface zone
55
Tumor suppressor gene inactivated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?
p53
56
pediatric trigger thumb will no longer resolve with conservative tx after what age?
2 years
57
Peroneal tendon injuries are a result of what mechanism?
Dorsiflexion and inversion
58
Peroneal tendon subluxation occurs in what position?
dorsiflexion and eversion
59
ligament tears occur through which zone?
sharpy's fibers
60
What is the biggest risk factor for complication in adult deformity surgery?
Age \> 60
61
In finger digital artery sits _ relative to nerve
dorsal
62
Elevated N-telopeptides, alpha-C-telopeptides, and urinary hydroxyproline levels are all consistent with
paget's
63
Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath is treated with \_
marginal excision
64
Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath resembles _ on histology
PVNS
65
tardy ulnar nerve palsy is associated with \_
lateral condyle fractures
66
Chronic PCL instability leads to DJD in what two compartments
PFJ, Medial
67
Medial opening wedge osteotomy has this effect compared to lateral closing
increases tibial slope, helpful with PCL incompentency
68
An abducens palsy after halo placement is caused by injury to what cranial nerve
VI
69
What percentage of flexor tendon laceration warrants repair?
\>60%
70
Rupture of the 2nd MTP plantar plate can lead to \_
2nd crossover toe
71
Absolute contraindication to meniscal transplant (medical condition)
inflammatory arthritis
72
type of autograft for scaphoid non union with prox pole AVN?
vascularized
73
In renal osteodystrophy what is the pathophysiological step that is responsible for his osteomalacia
uremia related phosphate retention
74
SMA is caused by a deficiency in \_
survival motor protein
75
most common solid malignant tumor in children?
neuroblastoma
76
MOA of TXA
competitive inhibition of plasminogen activation
77
Muscles deforming rolando or Bennet fractures (2)
APL, adductor pollicis
78
Normal range for base deficit
2 to -2
79
Normal value for lactate?
\<5
80
histologic finding of lateral epixondylitis
angiofibrotic dysplasia
81
Most common complication from endoscopic anterior thoracic spine surgery?
intercostal neuralgia
82
Fibular hemimelia associated with what 2 hind foot disorders?
tarsal coalition, ball and socket ankle
83
Predictors for ulcer not healing: ABI \< \_, Toe pressure \< \_, Albumin \< \_
0.45, 30-40 (varies), 3.0
84
Arterial supply for medial gastroc flap?
sural artery
85
What enzyme has increased activity in osteoid osteomas?
Cyclooxygenase
86
Most common nerve injury with flexion SCH
Ulnar
87
pseudo gout crystals are _ and _ birefringent
calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate; positive
88
gout crystals are _ and _ birefringent
monosodium urate; negative
89
Most important deciding factor between reconstruction and ablation for hypo plastic thumb?
CMC joint stability
90
Primary blood supply to humeral head (GT, and LT too)
anterolateral branch of anterior circumflex humeral artery
91
Displacement in which direction has the highest non union rate for odontoid fractures?
posterior displacement
92
Board answer to THA dislocation direction in patients with ankylosing spondylitis
Anterior due to loss of lumbar lordosis
93
4 most common locations of giant cell tumor from most to least common
distal femur, prox tibia, distal radius, sacral ala
94
Order of things to release in pediatric trigger finger (not thumb)
A1, A3, 1 slip of FDS
95
largest size of defect for Moberg advancement flap
2cm
96
What has been shown to be increased in subacromial bursitis
metalloproteases
97
Sites of ulnar nerve compression
arcade of Struthers, medial intermuscular septum, medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel (MCL and Osborne's ligament), and deep flexor pronator aponeurosis (Two heads of FCU)
98
ligament of struthers can cause compression of what nerve?
median
99
Are facets a part of PLC
No, just their capsule
100
Tx for jones fx in older patients?
cast
101
With anabolic steroid use HDL _ and LDL \_
decreases, increases
102
Classic location for juvenile OCD lesion in knee
lateral aspect of MFC
103
Position for ankle arthrodesis
plantigrade, 10 ER, 5 valgus, 5mm posterior translated
104
Deep muscular interval for medial inside out meniscus repair
joint capsule and medial head of gastroc
105
Best shoulder XR view for identifying hill Sachs lesion
stryker notch
106
Responsiveness is best measured using what type of graph
receiver operating characteristic curve (ROC);
107
children with lysosomal storage disorders have increased rate of \_
Carpal tunnel syndrome
108
Treatment for early stage DJD of ankle in young person
supramalleolar osteotomy to correct varus or valgus, whichever is present
109
Hand deformity associated with Poland Syndrome
Symbrachydactyly
110
Relative contraindication to metaphyseal sleeve usage
uncontained metaphyseal defect
111
Pain with pushup from chair indicative of injury to _ of elbow
lateral ulnar colateral ligament
112
Small Blue Cell Tumors
LERNM Lympohoma ewings rhabdomyosarcoma neuroblastoma myeloma
113
Sarcomas that metastasize to lymph nodes
CARES Clear cell angiosarcoma rhabdomyosarcoma epithelioid sarcoma synovial sarcoma
114
Translocation associated with rhabdomyosarcoma?
t(2;13)
115
Hip Approach with highest risk of femur fracture during femoral implant placement
lateral
116
anteromedial bundle of ACL tight in?
flexion
117
posterolateral bundle of ACL tight in?
extension (PaLE)
118
T/F: indomethacin for HO ppx leads to increased femoral shaft non unions
True
119
Muscle that also originates from common extensor organ besides ECRL, ECRB, EDC, ECU
anconeus
120
Use of fracture table for antegrade nails has higher risk of _ deformity
internal rotation
121
Position for hip fusion
5 ER, 5 adduction, 20 flexion
122
What age cutoff for perthes pushes to surgical intervention?
8
123
The teardrop is composed of what structures?
cotyloid fossa, quadrilateral surface
124
peak bone mass in men and women is linked to what hormone?
estrogen
125
Besides less knee pain, supra patellar nailing is associated with _ for distal third tibia fractures
improved alignment
126
most common neurologic deficit in lumbar stenosis?
none
127
molecule formed by macrophages for osteolysis reaction?
IL-1
128
Primarily knee ligament responsible for rotational stability (out of ACL/PCL)
posterolateral band of ACL
129
Time since seen in your practice for it to be "new patient:
3 years
130
Mangled extremity scoring system takes into account what 4 factors?
Soft tissue injury, limb ischemia, shock, age
131
When plating proximal radius fractures, forearm should be in what position for plating?
neutral to assure you are on the extra artic portion of radial head
132
giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath is treated with ?
marginal excision
133
Vertical or horizontal mattress repair for meniscus?
vertical
134
In ACL deficient knee what is thought to be the highest risk factor for development of future DJD?
Meniscus tear
135
Secondary stabilizer of anterior tibia translation without ACL?
posterior horn of medial meniscus
136
What factor is most linked to poor outcomes from adult spinal deformity surgery?
obesity
137
TLICS