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ABOS PART I > OB 3 > Flashcards

OB 3 Flashcards

1
Q

primary blood supply to growth plate

A

Perichonodral

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2
Q

tumors with “small blue cells”

A

Neuroblastoma, primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNET), Ewing’s sarcoma, and embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

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3
Q

CRPS Type II is like type I but _

A

in a single nerve distribution

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4
Q

10 year % Hip fracture and overall osteoporotic fracture threshold to start bisphosphonates

A

3%, 20%

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5
Q

pectus excavatum is associated with?

A

marfan’s

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6
Q

Tx for intramuscular myxoma?

A

excision alone

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7
Q

Homogenous mass on MRI bright on T2, dark on T1 unlike lipoma (matches fat on everything)?

A

myxoma

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8
Q

ankle position with lowest calf compartment pressures?

A

neutral to 30 degrees plantar flexion

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9
Q

Treatment of elderly olecranon fractures with good outcomes?

A

Cast, early mobilization

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10
Q

Letter at end of iCD-10 means what?

A

what phase of care. Initial/subsequent/sequelae

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11
Q

What sided IT fractures are at risk for malreduction and what type of malreduction?

A

left sided from screw insertion, Apex anterior of the proximal segment

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12
Q

Definitive diagnosis of ALS is with what modality?

A

electrodiagnostic tests

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13
Q

tibiotalar impingement in calcaneus fracture malunions caused by?

A

decreased calc height causing talus dorsiflexion and impingment

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14
Q

Component of bone responsible for its compressive strength?

A

proteoglycans and hydroxyappetite

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15
Q

Blood volume in normal adult?

A

5L

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16
Q

Blood loss in Grade I

A

<15%

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17
Q

Blood loss in grade II

A

15-30%

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18
Q

Blood loss in grade III

A

30-40%

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19
Q

Blood loss in grade IV

A

> 40%

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20
Q

MOA penicillins

A

cell wall synthesis

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21
Q

MOA cephalosporins

A

cell wall synthesis

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22
Q

MOA vancomycin

A

cell wall synthesis

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23
Q

MOA -penems

A

cell wall synthesis

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24
Q

MOA aminoglycosides

A

anti 30s ribosomal subunit (mycins)

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25
Q

MOA tetracyclines

A

anti 30s ribosomal subunit

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26
Q

MOA Macrolides

A

anti 50s ribosomal subunit (thromycins)

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27
Q

MOA Linezolid

A

anti 50s ribosomal subunit

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28
Q

MOA Flouroquinolones

A

DNA gyrase (floxacins)

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29
Q

MOA Rifampin

A

RNA synthesis via RNA polymerase

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30
Q

MOA bactrim

A

folic acid synthesis

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31
Q

Arterial supply to flap in calc extensile lateral?

A

lateral calcanea branch of peroneal artery

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32
Q

Fractures in OI should be treated with _ fixation when possible

A

intramedullary; plates put adjacent bone at risk of fracture

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33
Q

Only remaining blood supply to talus after talar neck frx?

A

deltoid branch of posterior tib that sits within the deltoid ligament

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34
Q

mech of inheritance of osteopetrosis

A

auto recessive

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35
Q

t/f: DBM is osteoinductive and conductive

A

true

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36
Q

MOA anakira?

A

IL-1 antag

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37
Q

medium to long term muscle weakness after antegrade femoral nailing?

A

hip abduction and knee extension

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38
Q

Hoffa fracture more common in what condyle?

A

lateral

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39
Q

Canals that connect mature osteocytes?

A

Cannaliculi

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40
Q

Does PT improve outcomes/motion after DR ORIF?

A

No

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41
Q

Most common side effect of indomethacin?

A

GI (stomach ulceration)

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42
Q

Increased energy for unilateral BKA

A

25

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43
Q

Increased energy for b/l BKA

A

40

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44
Q

Increased energy for AKA

A

65

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45
Q

Nerve roots for perianal sensation?

A

S1. S2

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46
Q

Most common malreduction of distal 1/3 tibia with infrapatellar nail

A

valgus

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47
Q

Most common complication after talar neck fx?

A

tibiotalar or subtalar djd

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48
Q

Structure that blocks reduction of medial subtalar dislocation?

A

EDB

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49
Q

Structure that blocks reduction of lateral subtalar dislocation?

A

posterior tib tendon

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50
Q

What molecule thought to be released during dissection puts postop THA/TKA patients at risk of DVT?

A

thromboplastin

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51
Q

Tumor marker associated with colorectal

A

CEA

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52
Q

pelvic ring injury with highest rate of transfusion?

A

APC 3

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53
Q

What seen on an EMG for radial nerve palsy 6 months after injury represents signs of recovery?

A

fasciculations

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54
Q

What seen on an EMG for radial nerve palsy 6 months after injury represents no signs of recovery and pushes towards surgical exploration?

A

fibrillations

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55
Q

Predictors of humeral head AVN after fx?

A

calcar length less than 8 mm > disrupted medial hinge > humeral head angulation more than 45 degrees > head-split fracture

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56
Q

Vaughn Jackson Syndrome is

A

Sequential rupture of digital extensors in RA

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57
Q

Bone substitute that resorbs the fastest?

A

calcium phosphate

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58
Q

Bone overgrowth in pediatric amputations is seen in what types of amputations?

A

BKA/AKA - transosseous. Avoided with knee disartic

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59
Q

Most common malrotation of proximal femoral shaft fractures?

A

IR (proximally frag is in ER by hip external rotators)

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60
Q

Most common malrotation of distal femoral shaft fractures?

A

ER (Distal fragment pulled by lateral head of gastroc?)

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61
Q

Most sensitive way to diagnose pediatric spondy when XR are normal

A

SPEC CT

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62
Q

Diastrophic dwarfish is caused by a mutation in what gene that serves what function?

A

DTD, Sulfate transport protein

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63
Q

telangiealitic osteosarcoma is radiographs and histologically similar to _

A

ABC

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64
Q

Unicortical locked screws compared to bicortical non locked screws in a plate have _ resistance to axial forces, and _ resistance to torsional forces

A

increased, decreased

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65
Q

penecillin is given for barnyard/soil injuries to cover what organism?

A

Clostridia

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66
Q

get up and go speed of less than _ seconds is predictive of assistive device free ambulation at 2 years?

A

12 seconds

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67
Q

is smoking associated with postop airway complications in acdf?

A

no

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68
Q

Most common site of PIN entrapment?

A

arcade of Froshe

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69
Q

lesion in zone 1 of guyon’s canal affect _

A

motor (including hypothenar) and sensory

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70
Q

lesion in zone 2 of guyon’s canal affect _

A

motor only (not hypothenars, only Interossei and thenar)

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71
Q

lesion in zone 3 of guyon’s canal affect _

A

sensory only

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72
Q

most common organism in wounds from cat/dog bites?

A

pasteurella

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73
Q

Excessive anterior retraction during Watson jones can injure what structure?

A

femoral nerve

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74
Q

ETO for revision THA has what material effect on femur?

A

Reduces torque to failure by 50% compared to intact bone

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75
Q

Most common foot deformity with myelomeningocele?

A

clubfoot

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76
Q

wORST material for injection injury?

A

oil based paints or industrial solvents

77
Q

When performing LRTI what two things should be examined?

A

STT joint, MCP joint hyperextension (fusion)

78
Q

During LRTI the FCR tendon reconstructs what ligament?

A

First intermetacarpal

79
Q

Type of corrosion that leads to failure at junction in modular THA stems?

A

fretting

80
Q

amount of diaphysis for press fit of fully porous coated stem in revision?

A

4cm

81
Q

amount of diaphysis for press fit of modular tapered stem in revision?

A

2cm

82
Q

“safe” angles for acetabulum cup

A

30-50, 5-25

83
Q

most common cause of TKA revision in first 2 years?

A

infection

84
Q

Computer based neurocog test used for baseline and after concussion?

A

ImPACT

85
Q

“Overall” rate of distal femur physical arrest after physical fracture?

A

60%

86
Q

Besides anterolateral bowing and congenital pseudoarthrosis of the tibia, NF can be associated with what other deformity?

A

Bowing of the forearm

87
Q

treatment for chondroblastoma?

A

curettage +/- adjuvants, bone grafting

88
Q

Multiple lesions that appear to be multiple metastatic lesions but have variable appearance can also be caused by?

A

hyperparathyroidism

89
Q

Mass that pathonomically occurs at inferior angle of scapula and its treatment?

A

elastofibroma, exision alone

90
Q

most common met to hands and feet?

A

lung

91
Q

Only soft tissue sarcoma where chemo has effect?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

92
Q

Most to least predictive of humeral head ischemia after fracture

A

calcar < 8mm, disrupted medial hinge, head angulation > 45 degrees, head split

93
Q

pediatric femur fractures or placement of tibial traction pins in kids can lead to _ deformity?

A

recurvatum

94
Q

Hip deformity that can be seen with Marfans

A

protrusio

95
Q

histology finding for schwannoma?

A

veracoy bodies

96
Q

Shoulder functional scores between ORIF and IMN are _

A

the same (stiffness and pain are higher after IMN)

97
Q

Does timing of ORIF with fasciotomy closure affect infection rates in tibial plateau fractures?

A

no

98
Q

Adductor policis is innervated by _

A

ulnar nerve

99
Q

max rotational difference after femur IMN that is acceptable?

A

15 degrees

100
Q

primary bone healing is _

A

intramembranous

101
Q

Secondary bone healing is _

A

enchondral (callus)

102
Q

Normal 1-2 IMA

A

<13

103
Q

Normal DMAA

A

<10

104
Q

Normal Halux valgus interphalangeus angle?

A

<10

105
Q

Normal Hallux valgus angle

A

<15

106
Q

Biplanar chevron vs uniplanar chevron osteotomy for hallux valgus has what advantage?

A

Corrects DMAA

107
Q

Factor associated with poor outcomes in pediatric radial neck fractures after surgical fixation?

A

age > 10

108
Q

Contrindication to humeral IMN?

A

radial nerve palsy

109
Q

Poland syndrome associated with what hand deformity?

A

syndactyly

110
Q

sensory distribution of femoral nerve?

A

anteromedial thigh (medial cutaneous nerve of thigh), medial shin (saphenous nerve)

111
Q

imagining modality to assess chronicity of compression fx?

A

MRI

112
Q

Adjacent level fusion required after Lumbar PSIF at 5 and 10 years?

A

15%, 36%

113
Q

Adjacent level fusion required after cervical fusion annually and 10 years?

A

2.5% per year, 25%

114
Q

minimum ACL Graft size

A

8mm (btb and HS)

115
Q

Type of joint degeneration with inflammatory arthritis?

A

symmetric without osteophyte formation

116
Q

Throwers get retroversion of humeral head, glenoid, or both?

A

both

117
Q

T/F: pulse lavage for open fractures increases postop wound necrosis?

A

true

118
Q

contraction ring syndrome (amniotic band) is associated with what foot deformity?

A

clubfoot

119
Q

Secondary primary contributor to femoral head blood supply?

A

IGA

120
Q

released by macrophage to activate osteoclast in total joint osteolysis

A

TNF alpha (and RANKL)

121
Q

tensor fascia latta is innervated by _

A

SGn

122
Q

Do pre aspiration abx affect alpha anti defensin result?

A

no

123
Q

MOA of abatacept?

A

MHC receptor antag

124
Q

First to be lost and last to return after peripheral nerve injury?

A

motor

125
Q

D zone test is for detecting inducible resistance to. _

A

clinda

126
Q

MOA LMWH

A

Xa inhibitor

127
Q

MOA heparin

A

Antithrombin III activator

128
Q

BMP peaks in biomembrane after 1st stage masquelet at how many months?

A

1

129
Q

tenderness to central part of the heel after multiple CSI for plantar fasciitis?

A

heel pad atrophy

130
Q

first line tx for anterolateral tibial bowing with development of fracture?

A

casting, open tx with bone grafting if fails to heal and goes on to pseudarthrosis

131
Q

abx to use for prophylactic coverage when using leeches?

A

Bactrim (aeromonas hydrophilia bacteria)

132
Q

Familial hyperphosphatemic tumoral calcinosis associated with what mutation?

A

FGF 23

133
Q

spindle cell lipoma treated with _

A

resection alone, no radiation

134
Q

In addition to correcting SVA, in adult ASD, the goal is to correct _ to within 10 of _

A

lumbar lordosis, pelvic incidence

135
Q

inheritance of rett syndrome?

A

x linked dominant

136
Q

airbags should be turned off in front seat for children < _ lbs

A

80

137
Q

gram-negative intracellular diplococci on gram stain is _

A

gonorrhoeae

138
Q

physiologic inflammatory response to trauma is _ in children compared to adults

A

decreased

139
Q

trauma is associated with bone/joint infxn in kids _% of time

A

30

140
Q

flexion type SCH pinned in what elbow position?

A

ext

141
Q

AP position for anterior column screw within the ramus on _ view

A

iliac inlet

142
Q

SI position for anterior column screw to rule out joint penetration on _ view

A

Obturator outlet

143
Q

M/L position within iliac wing for anterior column screw on _ view

A

Obturator inlet

144
Q

collagenase has little effect on type _ collagen, thereby pretecting NV bundles

A

IV

145
Q

Free fibula based on what arterial supply

A

peroneal

146
Q

most common UMN sign that can be seen in those without spinal cord compression?

A

hyperreflexia

147
Q

most common nerves injured in distal biceps repair?

A

LABC, PIN

148
Q

Gait exam finding that is contraindication to Valgus HTO?

A

varus thrust

149
Q

Vertical cup eliminates what THA design that decreases instability?

A

large head

150
Q

What type of femoral shaft fracture under 3 years is associated with NAT (not metaphyseal)

A

transverse

151
Q

Muscle that becomes the primary deforming force for producing hallux valgus

A

adductor hallicus

152
Q

pedicle for medial femoral vascularized bone graft?

A

longitudinal branch of the descending geniculate artery

153
Q

Standard THA neck angle

A

131

154
Q

“Varus” THA neck angle that allows increased offset without increasing leg length

A

127

155
Q

IV abx for p. acnes coverage

A

Penecillin

156
Q

Metal most susceptible to pitting corrosion

A

stainless steel

157
Q

Factors involved in osteolysis

A

IL1, IL6 TNF alpha, rankl

158
Q

MOA of calcitonin

A

inhibits sclerostin formation and inhibits osteoclast apoptosis

159
Q

MOA fondaparinux

A

Inhibition of factor X

160
Q

MOA Enteracept

A

Binds TNF alpha receptor

161
Q

MOA all “abs” for RA

A

bind TNF alpha directly

162
Q

peripheral nerve layer that must be intact for nerve to regrow?

A

endoneurium

163
Q

first carpal bone to ossify

A

capitate (starts at capitate, then hamate, triq, lun, scap, trapezium, trapezoid, pisiform)

164
Q

foot deformity of chronic lisfranc injury

A

planovalgus

165
Q

Besides IMA, what can a distal chevron osteotomy for hallux valgus not correct?

A

metatarsal pronation

166
Q

gout crystal shape

A

needle, negative birefrigent

167
Q

pseudo gout crystal shape

A

rhomboid, positive birefrigent

168
Q

first portal established for ankle scope

A

anteromedial

169
Q

pedicle for lat flap

A

thoracodorsal art

170
Q

pharmacotherapy for Raynaud

A

topical nitrates

171
Q

Tumor of finger that often leads to amputation

A

subungal melanoma

172
Q

primary stabilizer of thumb cmc joint?

A

volar oblique (or beak) ligament

173
Q

type of radiation used near critical structures like spinal cord

A

proton beam

174
Q

standard type of XRT

A

photon beam

175
Q

factor associated with PVNS

A

colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF-1).

176
Q

Common gene mutation in osteosarcoma

A

P53

177
Q

Congenital scoliosis often runs in families?

A

false. sporadic, <1% of family history

178
Q

inheritance of cleft hand or foot?

A

AD

179
Q

congenital glenohumeral dyplasia results in:

A

humeral head flattening, glenoid retroversion, poster subluxed humeral head

180
Q

joints with intra artic metaphysis

A

hip, elbow, ankle, shoulder

181
Q

most common exam finding for isthmus spondylolysis?

A

hamstring tightness

182
Q

kocher interval is

A

aconeus and ECU

183
Q

kaplan interval is

A

EDC/ECRB

184
Q

Elbow lateral pivot shift is done by _

A

extension, then flexing the elbow with valgus and supination moments along with axial compression.

185
Q

cause of persistent back pain after multiple surgeries, etc.

A

central sensitization

186
Q

scheurerman kyphosis is serpositive?

A

true

187
Q

risk of radial nerve palsy with holstein lewis fx?

A

22%

188
Q

iatrogenic radial nerve palsy most commonly occurs during what two approaches?

A

lateral and posterior

ABOS PART I (7 decks)

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