Ortho - Hips, elbows and cruciates Flashcards

1
Q

what is hip dysplasia?

A

a common inherited developmental disease characterised by laxity of the hip joint

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2
Q

are hips lax from birth?

A

no, puppies are born normal - laxity apparent from 4-5 months

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3
Q

which animals are commonly affected by hip dysplasia?

A

most commonly large and giant breed dogs
also affects small breeds and cats

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4
Q

when are the earliest signs of hip laxity usually seen?

A

4-5 months

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5
Q

what is the usual signalment for hip dysplasia?

A

4-12 months at first presentation

second phase affects adults - present with arthritis secondary to hip dysplasia - no laxity

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6
Q

what is the usual history associated with hip dysplasia?

A

hindlimb stiffness and difficulty mobilising, affecting both legs, bunny hopping, adducted hindlimbs

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7
Q

what can we see on gait analysis which is characteristic of hip dysplasia?

A

short stride on hindlimbs

lateral sway to avoid full stride - uses back

bunny hopping

adducted hindlimbs

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8
Q

what might we see upon orthopaedic examination of a patient with hip dysplasia?

A

muscle atrophy (quadriceps)
pain on hip extension
crepitus
clunking

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9
Q

what radiographic views are useful in diagnosing hip dysplasia?

A

v/d extended
frog leg
lateral pelvis

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10
Q

which manipulation tests can be used to test for hip dysplasia?

A

ortolani test

Bardens hip lift test

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11
Q

in which cases is the ortolani test not useful?

A

older dogs with arthritis

negative in cases of dislocation - will be unable to relocate joint

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12
Q

how is the Bardens hip lift test performed?

A

patient in lateral

hip is levered out of acetabulum to see how much ‘bounce’ is achieved

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13
Q

can the Bardens hip lift test be done on a conscious patient?

A

no - patient must be heavily sedated/under GA - painful test

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14
Q

what is classed as an abnormal Bardens hip lift result?

A

> 0.5cm

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15
Q

what are the available treatment options for hip dysplasia?

A

conservative managament

myotomies

growth plate fusion

osteotomies

THR

FHNE

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16
Q

what type of growth plate fusion is carried out on patients with hip dysplasia?

A

juvenile pubic symphysiodesis

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17
Q

which patients are suitable for growth plate fusion/osteotomy?

A

young patients with early diagnosis

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18
Q

what is involved in conservative management of hip dysplasia?

A

restricting exercise to lead-only - short regular walks, no off-lead

hydrotherapy

controlling food intake to restrict weight and slow down growth

judicious use of NSAIDs and other medication

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19
Q

can conservative management improve degree of subluxation?

A

not shown to improve - remains same or worse

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20
Q

what is juvenile pubic symphysiodesis?

A

iatrogenic closure of the pubic symphysis

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21
Q

how is juvenile pubic symphysiodesis achieved?

A

electrocautery to create thermal necrosis

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22
Q

what does juvenile pubic symphysiodesis result in?

A

growth of acetabulum which increases dorsal cover of the femoral head

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23
Q

why is juvenile pubic symphysiodesis rarely done?

A

must be done when patient is very young, during early growth phase - rarely identified this early

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24
Q

why is it important to neuter dogs who have had juvenile pubic symphysiodesis?

A

to ensure they are not bred from to avoid passing the condition on

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25
when should a triple/double pelvic osteotomy be performed?
by 6-7 months, no DJD present
26
why is a triple/double pelvic osteotomy not commonly performed?
most cases are identified too late for this approach
27
how do we identify patients who are suitable for a triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
good clunk on ortolani test
28
what is the aim of a triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
increase dorsal cover of the femoral head
29
how is a triple/double pelvic osteotomy performed?
cutting into bone of ilium, pubis and ischium and rotating bone round to improve dorsal cover of the femoral head
30
what are the possible complications of a triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
screw pullout screw breakage - do not usually require correction
31
what is the success rate of triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
90% success
32
does a triple/double pelvic osteotomy prevent arthritis?
no - may still require salvage surgery later on
33
what type of procedure is a FHNE?
salvage procedure - pseudoarthrosis
34
what is a pseudoarthrosis?
fills in with bone and fibrous tissue
35
how can we improve outcome after a FHNE?
encourage exercise after surgery - outcome improved by good post-op rehabilitation programme
36
what is denervation?
removal of the nerves on the dorsal acetabulum - not commonly done
37
when might denervation be carried out?
with cost constraints - cheaper and provides pain relief
38
what are the aims of a THR?
pain relief return of high level function
39
what are the indications for THR?
end-stage hip arthritis hip dysplasia (younger dogs)
40
what are the 2 main types of prosthesis in THR?
acetabular prosthesis femoral prosthesis
41
what are the overall steps of the surgical procedure for a THR?
femoral head excision ream acetabulum and femur cement acetabulum and femur place "femoral head" reduce hip take bacterial swab suture joint capsule, routine closure
42
which approach is used during a THR?
craniolateral approach
43
what does it mean to 'ream'?
remove cartilage
44
why should the joint capsule be sutured as part of a THR?
helps reduce the chance of dislocation following surgery
45
why should we take a bacterial swab during a THR?
to ensure no contamination of the site during surgery
46
what are we assessing on the immediate post-op radiographs after a THR?
positioning of femoral stem and acetabulum cement fill - no fissures, leakage
47
what are we assessing on long-term radiographs after a THR?
position of femoral stem and acetabulum periosteal reaction cement/bone interface
48
when should post-op radiographs be taken for a THR?
immediately post-op and 6 weeks post-op
49
what are the possible complications after a THR?
fracture loosening dislocation infection subsidence cement granuloma neurological issue
50
what are the 2 main type of hip implant available?
cemented vs uncemented
51
which factors influence the type of THR performed?
surgeon preference, shape of femur/acetamulum, equipment available in practice
52
what is involved in post-op care after a THR?
cage lead walks only ehmer sling hobbles avoid slippery surfaces, avoid jumping
53
what occurs at the end of the post-op period?
re-examination and further radiographs taken - ensure no complications have occurred
54
how can loosening of the THR implant be seen on radiographs?
increased lucency between the bone and cement
55
how can infection of the THR implant be seen on radiograph?
periosteal reaction
56
what should occur is progress is satisfactory at the 6 week check?
gradual return to normal exercise over the next few months
57
what is the most common cause of forelimb lameness in dogs?
developmental elbow disease (DED)
58
what type of abnormalities can be involved in developmental elbow disease?
fragmented medial coronoid process of the ulna osteochondritis dissecans joint incongruity ununited anconeal process of ulna
59
why does joint incongruity occur in the elbow?
asynchronous growth of radius and ulna
60
what does developmental elbow disease result in?
varying amounts of elbow osteoarthritis
61
can different abnormalities of developmental elbow disease occur at the same time?
yes
62
what is the common signalment for elbow dysplasia?
large breeds e.g. labradors, rottweilers, retrievers, BMDs 6 months and older (at presentation) males over-represented - females also affected
63
when might a dog present older with developmental elbow disease?
if have arthritis secondary to elbow disease
64
what are the signs of elbow dysplasia?
lameness elbow effusion if severe decreased ROM pain on extremes of flexion and extension
65
what is the common history for a dog with elbow dysplasia?
low grade mild lameness, bilateral
66
which radiography views are helpful in the diagnosis of DED?
cranio-caudal, medio-lateral and flexed lateral views of the elbow
67
which radiographic features are indicative of DJD in elbow dysplasia?
sclerosis of the ulnar notch flattened or blurred coronoid process increased humeroradial joint space
68
what is the neutral lateral view of the elbow useful for?
looking for incongruity
69
what is the fully flexed mediolateral view of the elbow useful for?
looking at dorsal osteophytes on the anconeus
70
what is the cranio-caudal view of the elbow useful for?
looking for osteochondritis dissecans
71
72
what is the craniolateral-caudomedial oblique view of the elbow useful for?
looking for fragmentation of the coronoid process (FCP)
73
what is the distomedial-proximolateral oblique view of the elbow useful for?
viewing the coronoid process (looking for FCP)
74
what is the gold standard method for diagnosis of fragmentation of the coronoid process in the elbow?
CT scan
75
what is the signalment for ununited anconeal process?
large breed dogs, esp. german shepherds
76
at what age should the anconeal process fuse to the proximal ulna?
4-5 months
77
what happens if the anconeal process doesn't fuse to the proximal ulna?
elbow stability is compromised and osteoarthritis ensues
78
how does ununited anconeal process occur?
short ulna compared to radius - growth proceeds and creates a shear separating the anconeal process from the ulna
79
how is ununited anconeal process diagnosed?
fully flexed mediolateral radiographs or CT scan
80
what are the treatment options for ununited anconeal process?
conservative treatment removal of anconeal process (older dogs) proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy lag screw fixation (reattachment)
81
what determines treatment options for ununited anconeal process?
age and displacement of the anconeus
82
what happens during a proximal dynamic ulnar osteotomy?
cutting of the ulna - allows lengthening of the ulna as the radius grows and removes the shear stress of the anconeal process, allow it to reunite with the ulnar metaphysis
83
when might fragment removal for ununited anconeal process be performed?
not usually recommended unless the fragment is very displaced or abnormal usually done in older dogs with OA
84
what is an ulnar ostectomy?
removal of small part of the ulna
85
how can short radius syndrome be improved?
dynamic partial ulnar ostectomy - allows improved humeroradial contact
86
what is the signalment for osteochondrosis dissecans?
medium-sized and larger breeds presentation around 6 months, sometimes younger
87
which part of the elbow is usually affected be osteochondritis dissecans?
medial humeral condyle
88
what is the common history for a osteochondritis dissecans case?
forelimb lameness since 5-6 months age can have some improvement on NSAIDs
89
what is osteochondritis dissecans?
cartilage flap on the medial condyle of the elbow
90
what is the presenting sign of osteochondritis dissecans?
forelimb lameness and effusion
91
how can osteochondritis dissecans be seen on radiographs?
craniocaudal and flexed mediolateral views
92
how is osteochondritis dissecans usually seen on radiographs?
flattening of medial humeral condyle on CC view - subchondral bone defect
93
what are the treatment options for osteochondritis dissecans?
conservative treatment - restricted exercise, NSAIDs surgery - arthrotomy/arthroscopy and debridement for flap removal abrasion arthroplasty or microfracture of the subchondral bone (stimulating bone to heal)
94
what is treatment of osteochondritis dissecans dependent on?
severity of lameness and size of lesion
95
what is the most common elbow pathology diagnosed in dogs with elbow dysplasia?
fragmented medial coronoid process
96
where is fragmentation most commonly seen with fragmented medial coronoid process?
craniolateral aspect of the medial coronoid process of the ulna, adjacent to the radial head
97
how do bone fragments look under arthroscopy in fragmented medial coronoid process?
bone fragments often dead and yellow in appearance compared to well-vascularised red-coloured live bone
98
what are the possible causes of fragmented medial coronoid process?
shallow ulnar notch short ulna during growth
99
what is the signalment for fragmented medial coronoid process?
6-10 months old medium-large breed dogs (some small) often bilateral
100
how is fragmented medial coronoid process diangosed?
x-ray/CT
101
how is fragmented medial coronoid process treated?
arthroscopic debridement medical management of arthritis well established already
102
what do dogs with elbow dysplasia go on to develop?
osteoarthritis
103
what is involved in medical management of OA?
NSAIDs, weight loss, hydrotherapy, physiotherapy
104
how can severity of OA be evaluated?
arthroscopy
105
what is the goal of surgical OA treatment (arthroscopically)?
debridement of necrotic cartilage removal of sclerotic bone neovascularisation recruitment of pluripotential mesenchymal cells
106
how can OA be surgically treated?
removal of loose cartilage and subchondral bone via abrasion arthroplasty stimulation of healing bone using microfracture - induced stem cell healing of hyaline cartilage
107
why is long bone osteotomy for DED often performed on the medial side?
dogs with DED often have more problems on the medial aspect of the the joint than the lateral (medial compartment disease)
108
what is the aim of a long bone osteotomy?
decrease medial compartment load
109
what is the aim of a sliding humeral osteotomy?
transfer weightbearing from the medial aspect of the joint to the lateral aspect
110
what is the purpose of a proximal abducting ulna osteotomy?
transfer weightbearing from the medial aspect of the joint to the lateral aspect
111
what are the surgical options for long bone osteotomy?
sliding humeral osteotomy proximal abducting ulnar osteotomy proximal dynamic ulnar osteotomy
112
what is proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy performed for?
medial compartment disease radioulnar icongruence ununited anconeal process
113
why is elbow replacement not commonly performed in dogs?
complications are common, often require additional surgery and ultimately may lead to arthrodesis or amputation
114
when might an elbow arthrodesis be performed?
final salvage procedure for end-stage painful joint
115
what are the indications for arthroscopy?
exploration of joint for diagnosis removal of loose bodies topical treatment for OA - microfracture and abrasion arthroplasty debridement and lavage assisted joint stabilisation or fracture repair
116
what are the advantages of arthroscopy compared to arthrotomy?
decreased morbidity more rapid recovery decreased complications and improved outcomes decreased surgery/GA/hospitalisation times
117
what are the disadvantages of arthroscopy?
high skill level required, long learning curve expensive equipment increased cost to client
118
which diameter arthroscope is used for elbows?
1.9, 2.4 or 2.7mm
119
what is the lens angle for an elbow arthroscope?
30 degrees - allows for wider view
120
what is the normal working length for an elbow arthroscope?
short 8.5cm or long 13cm
121
what does the cranial cruciate ligament do?
resists stifle extension resists internal rotation prevents tibia moving cranially
122
which animals are affected by cranial cruciate ligament rupture?
dogs, rarely cats overweight females, neutered, middle aged
123
via what 3 ways can cruciate ligament rupture occur?
traumatic degenerative inflammation
124
how does traumatic cranial cruciate rupture occur?
can be seen after heavy fall, catching foot at awkward angle, RTA
125
how does degenerative cranial cruciate rupture occur?
rupture occurs secondary to minimal trauma through ligaments that how evidence of degeneration and ageing
126
how does inflammatory cranial cruciate rupture occur?
occurs in joints with evidence of inflammation e.g. rheumatoid arthritis
127
how can we diagnose cranial cruciate ligament rupture?
cranial draw test tibial compression test radiographs - mediolateral and cr/cd views
128
what can be seen on radiographs where cranial cruciate rupture has occurred?
joint effusion - seen as compression of the parapatellar fat pad chronic - evidence of OA/DJD seen as osteophyte formation on various parts of stifle
129
how can we surgically treat cranial cruciate ligament rupture?
intra-articular replacement of ligament extra-articular replicate function of ligament combination of above alteration of joint angles
130
what is involved in conservative management of cranial cruciate ligament disease?
strict rest for 6-8 weeks
131
which animals are more suited to conservative management for cranial cruciate ligament disease?
dogs and cats <15kg
132
which type of stifle lesion does not do well with conservative management?
those with meniscal tears
133
what happens if there is not improvement from conservative management for cranial cruciate ligament disease?
surgery is indicated if no improvement after 6-8 weeks of rest
134
what are the principles of surgical therapy for cranial cruciate ligament disease?
confirm diagnosis via exploratory arthrotomy debridement of ruptured ligament check and remove torn pieces of menisci stabilisation of the stifle joint
135
give a brief overview of the lateral (DeAngelis) suture technique for cranial cruciate ligament disease
suture is placed medial to the lateral femorofabella ligament, under the patellar ligament and through a small tunnel in the tibial tuberosity progressively increase tension and check for cranial drawer
136
which suture material should be chosen for lateral suture technique?
non-absorbable, monofilament, very strong large gauge nylon in smaller patients (ethilon/prolene) fishing leader line (monofilament nylon) in larger patients
137
how is the suture secured in the lateral suture technique?
metal tube and crimp fastener
138
how is the fascia lata repaired during lateral suture?
modified mayo mattress suture
139
what are the possible complications of lateral suture?
suture failure - breakage, stretching, pull through crimp instability infection meniscal tear anchor pull-out
140
what is the advantage of a lateral suture technique?
common complications are rarely severe
141
how does the femur move in relation to the tibia when the cranial cruciate ligament is ruptured?
femur slides caudally down the slope of the tibial plateau - tibial thrust is cranial
142
what is the average angle of the tibial plateau?
24 degrees
143
what are the general concepts involved in TPLO surgery?
medial arthrotomy to inspect cruciate and menisci medial approach to proximal tibia - circular saw used to cut proximal tibia cut part of tibia rotated a predetermined number of degrees to increase tibia plateau to 5-7 degrees bone stabilised in new position with TPLO plate
144
why does the tibia move when the cranial cruciate ligament ruptures?
it is the only passive restraint to 'slippage' against weight and muscular propulsive forces
145
what type of technique is a TPLO?
joint mechanic altering technique
146
why are locking plates preferred over traditional plates for TPLO?
increased stability and better limb alignment
147
where is the TPLO plate positioned?
medial surface of the tibia
148
which type of saw is used for a TPLO?
oscillating
149
what are possible complications of TPLO?
fibula fracture peroneal nerve damage popliteal artery trauma tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture patella ligament desmitis pivot shift osteomyelitis seroma formation
150
what is the prognosis with TPLO?
80% of patients return to soundness
151
what are some of the alternative techniques to TPLO?
cranial closing wedge/tibial wedge ostectomy tibial tuberosity advancement modified maquet technique triple tibial osteotomy
152
what do all the surgical procedures for cranial cruciate rupture have in common?
work on a similar principle of trying to eliminate the tibial thrust that occurs after CCL rupture
153
what is involved in post-op care after cruciate surgery?
confinement and minimal exercise for 4-6 weeks carefully controlled and gradual increase in exercise for the following 6-10 weeks physiotherapy and hydrotherapy
154
what are menisci?
'C' shaped pads of fibrocartilage in the stifle joint
155
what is the function of menisci in the stifle joint?
shock absorption and aid in fluid shift and nutrition in the joint
156
which meniscus is more commonly damaged?
medial meniscus
157
why might the medial meniscus be more commonly damaged?
possible due to its attachment to the medial collateral ligament - means it is less mobile and more prone to crushing and grinding
158
what usually goes alongside meniscal injuries?
usually seen subsequent to cranial cruciate disease - rarely in isolation
159
how might we detect meniscal injury?
may have a palpable or audible click on stifle manipulation (not reliable) stifle is painful
160
how can meniscal injury be confirmed?
careful inspection during stifle arthrotomy/arthroscopy using a stifle/Senn retractor or Hohmann retractor and good light
161
what types of meniscal injuries are possible?
bucket handle tears detachment of the caudal horn fibrillation
162
what is involved in treatment for meniscal injuries?
probe with meniscal probe torn portion removed using meniscal forceps and sharp narrow scalpel blade
163
why should owners be advised to carefully observe their animal after cruciate surgery?
meniscal tears can occur late after cruciate surgery (months/years)
164
why do dogs with meniscal tears have a poorer prognosis than those without?
they are more prone to developing DJD and post-cruciate stiffness/lameness long-term
165