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AHP Semester > Ortho eponyms/ word associations > Flashcards

Ortho eponyms/ word associations Flashcards

1
Q

Brown tumour; osteitis fibrosa cystica

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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2
Q

Gallium scan - positive with _____

A

Infections

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3
Q

Arthritis with eye symptoms

A

Juvenile RA

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4
Q

Still’s disease

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis < 3 years old

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5
Q

Pauciarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Chronic iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis)

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6
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - test

A

Schober’s test
- Assesses amount of lumbar flexion: mark ~L5 vertebrae + 10cm above + 5cm below. Pt flexes forward and distance between marks re-measured (normal >5cm increase in distance)

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7
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - DDx

A

Forestier’s disease
aka Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
- Bony hardening of ligaments

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8
Q

Arthritis + urogenital/bowel infection

A

Reiter’s syndrome

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9
Q

Gout joint aspirate

A

Negatively birefringent crystals; monosodium urate

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10
Q

Pseudogout joint aspirate

A

Positively birefringent crystals

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11
Q

Achondroplasia - brain association

A

Macrocephaly

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12
Q

Rickets CXR sign

A

Rickety rosary - bone necklace

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13
Q

Looser’s zones

A

‘Pseudo-fractures’: incomplete stress fracture

Associated most frequently with osteomalacia and rickets

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14
Q

Paget’s disease complication

A

Osteosarcoma

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15
Q

Osteoporosis circumscripta [cranii]

A

Paget’s disease XR sign

- highly circumscribed (focal) lytic lesion of skull bone

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16
Q

Erlenmeyer flask deformity

A

Osteopetrosis, Gaucher disease

Ends of long bones shaped like erlenmeyer flasks

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17
Q

Onion skin layers

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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18
Q

Osteosarcoma XR sign

A 
Codman's triangle (periosteal reaction)
Sunburst appearance (breakdown of the cortex)
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19
Q

Popcorn calcification

A

Chondrosarcoma XR sign

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20
Q

Lytic bone mets - primary source

A

Lung, kidney, thyroid

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21
Q

Sclerotic bone mets - primary source

A

Prostate, breast

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22
Q

Fibrous dysplasia - associated conditions

A

McCune-Albright, Mazabrauds syndrome

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23
Q

Bone abscess aka

A

Brodie’s abscess

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24
Q

Gibbus

A

Tuberculosis of the spine

- structural kyphosis deformity of thoracic/ lumbar spine where one or more adjacent vertebrae become wedged

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25
Q

Mercedes Benz sign

A

Describes appearance of normal lateral shoulder X-ray

If glenoid and humeral head are imperfectly overlapping -> shoulder dislocation

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26
Q

Impingement syndrome - tests

A

Neers, Hawkins-Kennedy, Gerber’s lift-off, Jobe’s empty can

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27
Q

Rotator cuff tear - test

A

Positive arm-drop test

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28
Q

Shoulder instability + trauma

A

Bankart lesion

- lesion of anterior-inferior part of glenoid labrum, due to shoulder injury most commonly ant dislocation

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29
Q

SLAP lesion - test

A

O’Briens (active compression test)

  • shoulder flex to 90, adducted 10-15, elbow straight
  • painful elevation against resistance internally rotated, NOT externally rotated
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30
Q

Bicipital tendinitis - tests

A

Speed’s
Yergason’s

Speed’s = elbow extended, forearm supinated, shoulder slightly flexed - examiner applies manual resistance in downward direction
Yergason’s = elbow 90 degrees flexed then active supination and ext rotation against resistance.
Both are positive if pain is reproduced in area of bicipital tendon/ groove

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31
Q

Gilliatt-Sumner hand (wasting at base of thumb) - cause?

A

Neurogenic Thoracic outlet syndrome

Due to compression of lower brachial plexus. Characterised by wasting of AbPB, interrosoues and AbDM muscles PLUS normal sensation within region innervated by the median nerve. If a sensory abnormality does exist, it is usually of the medial forearm (not supplied by median n.)

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32
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome - tests

A

Adson’s, Wright’s (hyperabduction)

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33
Q

Sprengel’s shoulder - association

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome
(‘cervical vertebral fusion syndrome’: rare congenital syndrome characterised by fusion of any C vertebrae)

Sprengel’s deformity is a rare congenital skeletal deformity where 1 scapula sits higher than the other

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34
Q

Lateral epicondylitis - test

A

Cozen’s test
- pain on resisted wrist extension

Maudsley’s
- pain on resisted middle finger extension

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35
Q

Gunstock deformity

A

Cubitus varus

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36
Q

Cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Pressure or stretching of ulnar nerve (‘funny bone’)
Ligament of Osbourne (roof of cubital tunnel)
Signs
- Ulnar claw
- Ulnar escape (Wartenberg’s sign: involuntary abduction of 5th finger due to unopposed action of EDM)
Tests
- Froment’s test (pinch grip holding piece of paper between index finger and thumb)
- Tinel’s test (over cubital tunnel)

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37
Q

Posterior interosseous nerve entrapment (arm)

A

Ligament (‘arcade’) of Frohse (also known as supinator arch: fibrous arch at superior layer of supinator muscle, under which the post interosseous nerve runs under and can become compressed)
Motor signs only (no sensory deficit) - weakness of wrist, thumb and finger extension

The post interosseous nerve is a continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve once it penetrates the supinator muscle

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38
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve entrapment - presentation

A

Lateral forearm numbness

Due to compression by biceps tendon/ aponeurosis against brachialis fascia. This is quite distal, therefore only affects the lateral cutaneous branch, a purely sensory nerve for antero-lateral forearm

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39
Q

High median nerve/anterior interosseous nerve palsy

A

Positive O test
Hand of benediction
Median nerve trapped between two heads of pronator teres in proximal forearm

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40
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome - tests/signs

A 
Phalen's test
Tinel's test
? negative O sign
? negative hand of benediction
- for differentiated from proximal median nerve palsy
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41
Q

Ulnar nerve entrapment (ulnar tunnel syndrome)

A 
Compression of ulnar nerve at wrist in Guyon's canal
May be pure motor, pure sensory or mixed
- Ulnar claw
- weak grasp, pinch
- pain /paraesthesia in ulnar 2 digits
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42
Q

Brodie Abscess

A

Subacute osteomyelitis

on XR: small oval cavity surrounded by sclerotic bone

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43
Q

‘Cold abscess’

A

Tuberculosis spread along fascial planes

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44
Q

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis - test

A

Finkelstein’s

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45
Q

Ollier’s disease

A

Multiple enchondromata affecting long bones

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46
Q

Kienbock’s disease

A

AVN, osteochondritis of lunate

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47
Q

RA deformities of the hand

A 
Duck-bill deformity of the thumb
Ulnar deviation of the fingers
Radial deviation of carpus and metacarpals
Volar subluxation of MPJ and wrist
Boutonniere or swan-neck deformity
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48
Q

Hip OA - tests

A

Thomas’ test
Trendelenburg’s sign
Reduced ROM - internal rotation is first to go

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49
Q

AVN of femoral head - eponymous causes

A

Perthes
Tom Smith’s arthritis (septic hip arthritis in infancy causing pseudoarthrosis with hip subluxation)
Caisson’s disease (diver’s bends)
Gaucher’s disease (enzyme deficiency -> glucocerebroside accumulation)

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50
Q

Sandwich vertebral body

A

Osteopetrosis (dense bands involving both endplates of vertebral bodies are sharply demarcated)

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51
Q

DDH - XR sign

A

Broken Shenton’s line

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52
Q

Meralgia paraesthetic

A

Entrapment of lateral cutaneous nerve as it passes inguinal ligament
Presents with numbness over anterolateral aspect of the thigh from groin to knee

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53
Q

DDH - tests

A

Barlow’s, Ortolani’s tests
Galeazzi sign
Trendelenburg (if old enough to walk)

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54
Q

Klein’s line (XR)

A

Drawn along the top (lateral edge) of the femoral neck - normally, should continue through femoral head/ epiphysis, 20% existing above the line
If not, suggests SUFE

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55
Q

SUFE - tests/signs

A

Antalgic gait
Trendelenburg positive
Whitman’s sign (with hip flexion, there is obligate ER)

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56
Q

Femoroacetabular impingement

A 
Pincer impingement (on acetabulum)
Cam impingement (on femoral head)
70% have both
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57
Q

Sever’s condition

A

Osteochondritis of Achilles’ tendon insertion

- ‘traction apophysistis’

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58
Q

Kohler’s condition

A

Osteochondritis (AVN) of navicular bone

- self-limiting

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59
Q

Freiberg’s condition

A

Osteochondritis (AVN) of second metatarsal head

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60
Q

Ledderhose disease

A

Plantar fibromatosis (benign tumour of plantar fascia, similar process to dupuytren’s contractures)

> other similar processes = Garrod’s pads (dorsal IPJ), Peyronie’s disease (penis)

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61
Q

Fabella

A

Sesamoid bone in the head of gastrocnemius

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62
Q

Osgood Schlatter’s disease

A

Osteochondrosis/traction apophysitis of tibial tuberosity

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63
Q

Discoid meniscus

A

Congenital condition in which lateral meniscus bilaterally D-shaped (rather than usual C-shaped)
-> more prone to injury

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64
Q

Ankle mortise XR - angle, benefit

A

15 degrees internal rotation; gives true view of talus in tibiotalar joint

65
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome (chondromalacia patella) - eponymous sign

A

Clark’s sign - inability to contract quadriceps against resistance, when the knee is held in extension

66
Q

Blount’s disease

A

Physeal defect resulting in abnormal growth of inner part of upper tibia
- tibia goes into varus deformity

67
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

A

Also known as ‘Spinocerebellar degeneration’
Progressive genetic condition with difficulty walking, lost sensation in arms and legs, and impaired speech
Associated with pes cavus feet and equinovarus deformity

68
Q

Ligamentous laxity score

A

Beighton score

69
Q

RA - foot clinical presentation

A

Metatarsal heads prominent in sole

Toes clawed and dorsally dislocated

70
Q

Congenital talipes equinovarus - eponymous treatment

A

Ponseti casting - repeated manipulation and adhesive strapping or PoP casting

71
Q

Claw vs Hammer toes

A

Claw: proximal to distal - hyperextension MTPJ, flexion IPJs (both proximal and distal)
Hammer: proximal to distal - hyperextension MTPJ, flexion PIPJ, hyperextension DIPJ

72
Q

Bunion

A

Hallux valgus deformity of MPJ of big toe

Part congenital, part acquired. Possibly higher risk from wearing tight/ pointed shoes

73
Q

Morton’s neuroma - test

A

Mulder’s test - compression of MT heads and dorsal pressure under MT heads reproduces the pain

[Morton’s neuroma is a thickening of tissue around the digital nerve leading to the toes - most frequently bw the 3rd and 4th toes, usually in response to irritation, trauma or excessive pressure]

74
Q

Ingrown toenail - eponymous surgery

A

Zadik’s operation

75
Q

Pes cavus - areas of high friction

A

Callosities (plantar aspect)

Corns (dorsal aspect)

76
Q

Bunionette

A

Exostosis on lateral aspect of MT5 (little toe)

E.g. from sitting cross-legged on a hard surface

77
Q

‘Pepper pot skull’

‘Swiss cheese’ bones

A

Multiple myeloma

78
Q

Levels of entrapment - straight leg raise vs femoral stretch test

A

SLR: L5-S1 nerve root
FST: L3-L4 nerve root

79
Q

Lasegue’s test

A

After straight leg raise, lower leg until pain abates, then dorsiflex ankle +/- neck flexion

Positive (pain): dural involvement and/or sciatic nerve irritation

Negative (no pain): hamstring tightness or sacroiliac pathology

80
Q

Winking owl sign (XR)

A

On AP view - absent pedicle is closed eye, open eye is other pedicle, beak is spinous process
Destroyed pedicle e.g. from tumour invasion

81
Q

Froment’s sign

A

Test for ulnar nerve palsy

82
Q

Spinal cord finishes at level of ?

A

L1-L2

83
Q

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH syndrome)

A

Aka Forrestier’s disease or ankylosing spondylitis

Spondyloarthritis characterised by ankylosis and ossification of ligaments of 4 or more vertebrae

84
Q

Spinal tuberculosis usually localises where?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament of vertebral body

85
Q

Scheuermanns disease = ?

A

Idiopathic juvenile kyphosis
- crushing osteochondritis affecting the spine in adolescence
The vertebrae grow unevenly with respect to the sagittal plane (the posterior angle is often greater than the anterior) -> “wedging” shape of the vertebrae, causing kyphosis

86
Q

Pars interarticularis fracture - XR sign

A

Scottie dog sign

87
Q

Risser sign

A

Indirect measure of skeletal maturity, whereby the degree of ossification of the iliac apophysis by x-ray evaluation is used to judge overall skeletal development

The lower the grade, the more severe the potential for spinal scoliosis

88
Q

What is diastematomyelia?

A

Bifurcation of spinal canal/cord by bony, fibrous cartilagenous band

89
Q

What is an Arnold-Chiari malformation?

A

Condition present at birth where there is skull abnormalities/ hypertrophy of cerebellar tonsils that herniate into the spinal canal and may obstruct the foramen magnum

90
Q

Congenital scoliosis associated with ?

A

Renal, cardiac, imperforate anus, tracheoesophageal fistula, club hand, spinal dysraphism , VATER syndrome (aka VACTERL association - a group of birth deformities that tend to co-occur: vertebral , anorectal, cardiovascular, tracheoesopagheal fistula, esophageal atresia, renal, limb)

91
Q

Scoliosis - test

A

Adams forward bend test

92
Q

Schmorl’s nodes = ?

A

An upward and downward protrusion (pushing into) of a spinal disk’s soft tissue into the bony tissue of the adjacent vertebrae

93
Q

Which side of a greenstick fracture cracks?

A

Convex side

94
Q

What is the type of fracture when bone fragments are pulled in opposite direction?

A

Distracted

95
Q

Abx for open fracture?

A

Ampicillin + flucloxacillin

Gentamycin/metronidazole if contaminated

96
Q

Salter Harris II - XR sign

A

Thurston-Holland sign/fragment - sign depicting a triangular portion of the metaphysis remaining with the epiphysis in a physeal fracture

97
Q

Salter Harris IV - beware the ? fracture

A

Triplane fracture - distal tibia fracture occurring in adolescents, that can appear as SH II and SH III in different imaging planes - combined SH IV, but need to look at multiple planes

98
Q

Treatment of Salter Harris fractures

A

SH I and II - closed reduction and cast immobilisation
SH III and IV - ORIF
SH V - growth arrest almost inevitable, so no specific treatment

99
Q

AVN XR sign

A

Crescent sign - subchondral lucent line

100
Q

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

A

Aka Sudeck’s dystrophy, complex regional pain syndrome type 1
Chronic arm or leg pain developing after injury, surgery, stroke or heart attack

101
Q

Complex regional pain syndrome classification

A

Type 1: CRPS without evidence of nerve damage in the affected limb. Secondary to injury/trauma. This accounts for about 90% of CRPS.
Type 2: CRPS with evidence of nerve damage in the affected limb.

102
Q

Fat embolus syndrome

A

ARDS associated with circulation of abnormal lipid aggregations

103
Q

Sulcus test

A

Pulling arm downwards may cause depression below the shoulder

Suggestive of capsular instability

104
Q

Kocher or Stimson method

A

For relocation of shoulder dislocation

105
Q

Dugas sign

A

Unable to put hand on opposite shoulder with elbow touching chest - loss of internal rotation

Indicative of anterior dislocation of humeral head

106
Q

Regimental badge/patch sign

A

Axillary nerve damage causes loss of sensation on lateral deltoid

107
Q

Most common complication of anterior shoulder dislocation

A

Axillary nerve damage

108
Q

Associated lesions with anterior shoulder dislocation

A

Hill-Sachs - indentation of posterior humeral head after impaction on glenoid rim

Bankart - avulsion of capsule when shoulder dislocates, seen in 85% of all anterior dislocations

109
Q

Anterior shoulder dislocation - reduction methods

A

Kocher method
Hippocratic method
Stimson Hanging arm method

110
Q

Putti-Platt operation

A

Operation for reduction of anterior shoulder dislocation - anterior joint reinforced by shortening subscapularis tendon to limit external rotation

111
Q

Posterior shoulder dislocation - XR signs

A

Round light-bulb appearance of humeral head on lateral view

Reverse Hill-Sachs - divot in anterior humeral head

112
Q

Erb’s palsy

A

Upper brachial plexus injury, affecting C5-C6; axillary, suprascapular and musculocutaneous nerves

113
Q

Erb’s palsy - clinical sign

A

Waiter’s tip hands

114
Q

Klumpke’s palsy

A

Lower brachial plexus injury, affecting C8-T1; ulnar and median nerves

115
Q

Medication for heterotopic ossification prophylaxis

A

Indomethacin

116
Q

Supracondylar fracture - XR sign

A

Fat pad sign (sail sign) - dark triangle posterior that may suggest blood in the joint, and demonstrates a minimal/undisplaced occult fracture
- fat pad sign anteriorly is normal

117
Q

Tardy ulnar nerve palsy

A

Chronic clinical condition characterized by a delayed onset ulnar neuropathy after an injury to the elbow
- Typically, tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs as a consequence of nonunion of pediatric lateral condyle fractures at the elbow, which eventually lead to a cubitus valgus deformity

118
Q

Radial head fracture classification system

A

Mason classification

119
Q

Essex Lopresti injury

A

Triad of comminuted fracture of radial head, disrupted interosseous membrane and distal radioulnar joint dislocation

120
Q

Nightstick fracture

A

Isolated fracture of the ulnar shaft

121
Q

Monteggia vs Galeazzi fractures

A

Monteggia: fracture of proximal ulna with dislocation of radial head
- A = proximal

Galeazzi: fracture of distal radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
- Z = distal

MUGGER

  • MU = Monteggia/ulna
  • GR = Galeazzi/radial
122
Q

Scaphoid test

A

Pain worse on radial deviation of wrist

- indicative of scaphoid fracture

123
Q

Colles fracture

A

Distal radial fracture +/- fracture of ulnar styloid
‘Dinner fork deformity’
Dorsal (posterior) displacement of distal radial fragment
Complication = rupture of EPL tendon at Lister’s tubercle of the radius

124
Q

Smith fracture

A

Distal radius fracture - volar displacement

125
Q

Barton fracture

A

Intra-articular fracture of distal radius from shearing force

126
Q

Bennett’s fracture

A

Fracture of thumb base (intraarticular @ CMCJ)

Proximal base is displaced proximally and radially

127
Q

Rolando’s fracture

A

Three-piece intraarticular fracture of the base of the thumb

128
Q

Gamekeeper’s thumb / skier’s thumb

A

An insufficiency of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the thumb

129
Q

Scapho-lunate dissociation - XR sign

A

An increase in the scapholunate space on an AP radiograph of the wrist (or coronal CT)

130
Q

Boxer’s fracture

A

Fracture of 5th metacarpal neck

131
Q

Pilon fracture (of the hand)

A

Avulsion fracture involving the base of the most distal phalanx, which may secondarily result from a more proximal dislocation

132
Q

Straddle fracture

A

Pelvic fracture where direct anterior blow causes fracturing and posterior displacement of all 4 rami

133
Q

Pelvic fracture - classification system

A

Tile classification

134
Q

Pelvic open book fracture is Tile classification Type ?

A

Type B

135
Q

Leg appearance in posterior vs anterior hip dislocation?

A

Posterior: flexed, internally rotated, adducted (shortened)

Anterior: extended, externally rotated, abducted

136
Q

Intertrochanteric hip fracture stability determined by compromise of ?

A

Calcar femorale

137
Q

Thomas splint

A

Splint used for femoral diaphysis fractures

138
Q

O’Donahue’s unhappy triad

A

ACL, ML and medial meniscus tear

139
Q

Segond fracture

A

Avulsion fracture of the knee that involves the lateral aspect of the tibial plateau and is very frequently (~75% of cases) associated with disruption of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

140
Q

Lateral capsular sign (knee XR sign)

A

Indicative of Segond fracture, and therefore ACL disruption

141
Q

Pellegrini-Stieda syndrome

A

The Pellegrini–Stieda sign is a calcification of the medial collateral ligament of the knee after trauma
Syndrome - above calcification with discomfort at MCL attachment to medial femoral condyle

142
Q

Tibial plateau fracture classification system

A

Schatzker classification

143
Q

Ankle fracture classification system

A

Weber classification

144
Q

Maisonneuve fracture

A

Proximal fibula fracture together with unstable ankle injury

145
Q

ATFL injury tests

A

Anterior drawer test

Talar tilt test (also CFL)

146
Q

Talar fracture classification system

A

Hawkins classification

147
Q

Hawkins XR sign (ankle)

A

Seen on AP view

Positive if subchondral lucency of talus is present at tibiotalar joint, which suggests intact vascularity and therefore decreased risk of osteonecrosis
- Positive here is good

If subchondral sclerosis, at risk of AVN

148
Q

Bohler’s angle (XR sign)

A

Two lines formed from the three superior articular surfaces of the calcaneus should create an angle between 20-40 degrees - in calcaneal fracture, <20

149
Q

Lisfranc ligament

A

Plantar ligament spanning articulation of medial cuneiform and second metatarsal base

150
Q

Thomspons/Simmonds test

A

When patient lies prone, squeezing the calf should normally cause passive plantarflexion -> absence = positive test

Indicative of Achilles tendon rupture

151
Q

Jones fracture

A

Fracture of midshaft of fifth metatarsal, from stress

152
Q

Hangman’s fracture

A

Fracture of C2 with bilateral pars fractures, due to extension

153
Q

March fracture

A

Stress fracture of distal metatarsal bone(s)

154
Q

Cobb’s angle

A

Measure of scoliosis (if ≥10 degrees)

155
Q

Frohlich syndrome

A

Hypopituitarism - delayed skeletal maturation, adiposity and hypogonadism

156
Q

Lorain syndrome

A

Hypopituitarism - child fails to grow but normal body proportions

157
Q

Albers-Schönberg disease / marble bones =

A

Osteopetrosis

158
Q

Gaucher disease is _____

A

an auto rec genetic disorder in which glucocerebroside (a sphingolipid, also known as glucosylceramide) accumulates in cells and certain organs
Most common lysosomal storage disorder

159
Q

Adson’s test / Wright’s test

A

For thoracic outlet syndrome
Adson’s: patient extends neck and turns towards affected side while breathing in deeply -> this compresses interscalene space and may cause paraesthesia and obliteration of radial pulse
Wright’s test: arms abducted and externally rotated -> reproduces Sx and pulse disappears on affected side

AHP Semester (4 decks)

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