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AHP Semester > ICU, Anaesthetics and Emergency Medicine > Flashcards

ICU, Anaesthetics and Emergency Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Thrombolysis for ischaemic stroke can be considered up to how many hours after onset of symptoms?

A

4.5hours

If exact Sx onset not known, go back to when patient was last known to be well

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2
Q

What are the criteria included in the Canadian CTHead Rules

A

1) GCS <15 2hrs post-injury
2) AGE >65yo
3) Vomiting 2+
4) Amnesia ≥30mins
5) Suspected open/ depressed/ basal skull #
6) Dangerous mechanism

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3
Q

A stroke in the ACA territory will cause_______

A

Contralateral leg weakness, personality changes (if frontal lobe injury)

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4
Q

What components make up the ABCD^2 rule for TIA risk stratification?

A

Age >60yo - 1pt

BP >140 (systolic) - 1pt

Clinical features: unilateral weakness (2pt), speech impairment (1pt)

Duration >60mins (2pts), 10-59mins (1pt)

Diabetes (1pt)

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5
Q

What are the 3 grades of TBI (as defined by GCS)?

A

Mild: GCS 13-15

Moderate: GCS 9-12

Severe: GCS <9

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6
Q

Blood (aka haemorrhage) is white on a CT head scan for ____ week/s

A

One (1) week

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7
Q

Hypocapnia causes cerebral vaso(dilation/constriction)

A

Vasoconstriction

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8
Q

What is the qSOFA score components?

A

Need 2+ of the following

  • Altered mental status
  • RR >22 / min
  • SBP <100mmHg
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9
Q

How long can CVL and PICC lines be left in

A

1 week and 6 weeks, respectively

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10
Q

What is the target ICPafter TBI?

A

<20mmHg

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11
Q

Which of the following vasopressors does NOT have any inotropic effect? Dopamine, metaraminol, noradrenaline, adrenaline

A

Metaraminol

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12
Q

What are the 5 elements in the ‘chain of survival’ with regards to resuscitation

A

1) Early recognition of arrest & activation of emergency services
2) BLS
3) Early defib
4) ALS
5) Post-arrest cares

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13
Q

What 3 measures have been shown to have survival benefit in resuscitation?

A

1) competent BLS
2) Early defib for VT/VF
3) Post-arrest cooling

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14
Q

Failure of circulation for ____ mins can lead to irreversible brain damage

A

3-4 mins

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15
Q

List 3 risk factors for aspiration under anaesthesia

A

1) GORD
2) Delayed gastric emptying
3) Unfasted patient

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16
Q

In anaesthetics, how is pre-oxygenation achieved?

A

100% O2 is delivered for 2-6minutes until end-tidal CO2 is >80

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17
Q

Which inhalational agent can be used for induction of anaesthesia? Which cannot?

A

Can - sevoflurane

Cannot - desflurane, isoflurane

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18
Q

What does TIVA stand for in anaesthetics?

A

Total intravenous anaesthesia

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19
Q

What is the normal level of ETCO2?

A

35-45mmHg

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20
Q

The waveform of ETCO2 reflects the amount of a) time or b) volume of CO2 the monitor is exposed to

A

a) time

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21
Q

List 4 factors causing hypothermia during anaesthesia

A

1) Vasodilatory effects of anaesthetic agents
2) Anaesthetic effects on hypothalamus
3) Exposure of viscera to environment
4) Reduced heat production

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22
Q

List 5 complications of hypothermia related to anaesthesia

A

1) Impaired coagulation
2) Increased risk post-op infection
3) Prolonged drug action -> slow waking
4) Confusion
5) post-op shivering & increased O2 demand

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23
Q

What is the max safe dose for lignocaine? Lignocaine + adrenaline?

A

Lignocaine alone: 3mg/kg

Lignocaine + adrenaline: 7mg/kg

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24
Q

What are the initial CNS and CVS effects of local anaesthetic toxicity?

A

CNS - circumoral tingling, dizziness, tinnitus, restlessness

CVS - tachycardia, HTN

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25
Q

What analgesic medications can be delivered via a PCA?

A

Morphine, fentanyl, oxycodone, tramadol ± ketamine

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26
Q

With a laryngoscope the posterior aspects of the glottis can be seen, but not the anterior commissure. What grade view is this?

A

Grade II

(grade I = full glottis i.e. ant + post commissures
grade II = post glottis but not ant commissure
grade III = epiglottis only
grade IV = hard palate only (glottis/ epiglottis not seen)

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27
Q

What are the aims of pre-oxygenation?

A

To create a high concentration oxygen reservoir in the functional residual capacity and delay desaturation during apnoeas during airway manipulation

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28
Q

What are the 4 types of hypoxia?

A

1) Hypoxic hypoxia
2) Anaemic hypoxia
3) Ischaemic hypoxia
4) Histotoxic hypoxia

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29
Q

A Swan-Ganz catheter is also known as _____

A

Pulmonary artery catheter

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30
Q

Hypothermia intra-operatively leads to (increased/ decreased) O2 consumption and increases the risk for ____ and ____?

A

Increased O2 consumption

Infection and post-op bleeding

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31
Q

ETCO2 is generally ____ mmHg (lower/ higher) than arterial CO2

A

2-3mmHg LOWER

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32
Q

What are the causes of hypocarbia (low ETCO2)?

A 
Hyperventilation
Hypothermia
Deep anaesthesia
Decreased CO2 production: poor perfusion
Leak from system
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33
Q

PEEP should not exceed __cm H2O. Higher settings increase the risk of ___, ____ and ____

A

20cm H20

Severe lung damage, subcutaneous emphysema and pneumothorax

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34
Q

What are the daily requirements for a) water b) sodium c) potassium d) glucose?

A

a) 25-30mL/kg/day H2O
b) 1-2mmol/kg/day Na+
c) 1mmol/kg/day K+
d) 50-100g/day glucose

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35
Q

What is the Apfel score?

A

Assessing risk of post-op nausea & vomiting (PONV). It gives 1 point for each of
- Female
- Non-smoker
- Hx of motion sickness or PONV
- Use of post-op opioids
A score of 4 = 79% risk of PONV within 24hrs

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36
Q

What are the 6 life-threatening injuries considered with trauma?

A 
ATOM-FC
Airway obstruction
Tension PTX
Open PTX
Massive haemothorax
Flail chest
Cardiac tamponade
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37
Q

What is Beck’s triad? What is it a sign of?

A

Distended neck veins + Muffled heart sounds + hypoTN

It’s a sign of cardiac tamponade

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38
Q

Opioids should be dosed by (age / weight)

A

Age

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39
Q

What is the alveolar gas equation?

A

P(A)O2 = (FiO2x(PB-PH20)) - (PaCO2/0.8)
Where PB = barometric pressure (760mmHg)
PH2) = water vapour pressure (47mmHg)
i.e. P(A)O2 = (FiO2 x 713) + (PaCO2/0.8)

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40
Q

What is the formula for minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

Normal = ~450mL/breath x 10 breaths/ min = 4500mL/min

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41
Q

What are the causes for high anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA)?

A 
'L TKR'
Lactic acidosis
Toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylates)
Ketoacidosis (diabetic, starvation)
Renal failure
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42
Q

Distinguish type 1 and type 2 respiratory failure

A

Type 1 = hypoxaemic resp failure i.e. low PaO2 (but normal PaCO2). Due to problems with O2 getting into blood e.g. low FiO2, shunt, VQ mismatch, impaired diffusion
Type2 = hypercapnic resp failure i.e. low PaO2 AND low PaCO2. Due to impaired ventilation, e.g. reduced resp drive, neuromuscular weakness, structural deformity (kyphoscoliosis), increased dead space

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43
Q

How much volume and FiO2 can be delivered via Hudson mask? High-flow nasal cannulae?

A

Hudson mask = 6-10L/min, FiO2 40-60%

HFNC = up to 70L/min, FiO2 30-90%

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44
Q

A patient presents with an acute asthma attack. They are speaking in few words, their RR is 26, HR 90 and O2 sats 93%. What is the severity of their attack?

A

Severe (only need 1 of the features)

  • in favour: speaking in words, RR>25, O2 90-94%
  • HR of 90 fits under mild/ moderate, however if any of above features are present, the attack automatically becomes severe
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45
Q

What are the components of the PSI (pneumonia severity index)?

A 
Low-risk if ALL of the following
<50yo
No malignancy, CCF, cerebrovascular, renal or hepatic impairment
Normal mental state
Normal vitals
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46
Q

What does SMART-COP stand for?

A 
Assessment of pneumonia severity &amp; likelihood of needing ICU support
SBP <90
Multilobar involvement on CXR
Albumin <35g/L
RR >25
Tachycardia >125
Confusion
O2 <93% or PaO2 <70
pH <7.35 (i.e. acidaemic)
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47
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a small PTX <2cm and patient who is clinically stable

A

No intervention - observe

Catheter aspiration is recommended if a) there are Sx or b) large PTX

48
Q

With respect to managing acute pulmonary oedema, what does the acronym ‘POND’ stand for?

A

Position: sit patient up
Oxygen: high-flow to target sats
Nitrates: GTN
Diuresis: frusemide

49
Q

Which analgesic medication should be avoided in APO?

A

Morphine

50
Q

What are the 3 criteria for ARDS?

A

1) Resp failure (PaO2/FiO2 <300) w’in 1wk of respiratory or systemic insult
2) Bilateral infiltrates on CXR
3) Increased alveolar and/or interstitial fluid, not caused by cardiac failure

51
Q

A patient with ARDS has a PaO2/FiO2 ratio or 150. What severity is this?

A

Moderate

Mild 200-300
Moderate 100-200
Severe <100

52
Q

What are the best settings for mechanical ventilation for a patient with ARDS?

A

Low tidal volumes, limited inspiratory pressures, high levels of PEEP

53
Q

What are the 3 pillars of anaesthetics?

A

1) Hypnosis/ unconsciousness
2) Analgesia
3) Muscle relaxation

54
Q

A patient with severe systemic illness that is a constant threat to life has an ASA of ___

A

4

55
Q

Smoking should be ceased at least ___ hrs before surgery

A

48 hours

56
Q

Pre-operatively, patients should fast from solids for at least ___ hrs and from clear fluids at least __ hrs in advance

A

Solids - 6hrs

Clear fluids - 2hrs

57
Q

What are the 5 key features included in a surgical safety checklist?

A

1) Patient identity: name, DOB, URN
2) Consent
3) Surgical procedure & site
4) Fasting status
5) Allergies

58
Q

In positioning a patient for induction, the ear should be aligned with the ____

A

Sternal notch

59
Q

Define MAC

A

the alveolar concentration of an agent (or agent + N2O) at 1 atmosphere absolute that prevents movement of 50% of the population in response to a standard noxious stimuli

60
Q

What is the maximum safe dose of ropivacaine?

A

3mg/kg

61
Q

How long does lignocaine last for? With adrenaline?

A

2-3 hrs.

With adrenaline, up to 8hrs

62
Q

In a regional block, the dose of local anaesthetic injected influences the

a) density of block
b) duration of block
c) number of spinal nerves affected

A

b) duration

The volume determines c)
The strength determines a)

63
Q

What is a Bier’s block?

A

Injection of local anaesthetic directly into the venous system (with application of tourniquet distally)

64
Q

When considering a nerve block for a hip operation, what are the dermatomes you want to block?

A

T12-L2

65
Q

A patient comes in with hypovolaemic shock. Their pulse rate is 110, BP 125/85, RR 25 and they have mild anxiety. What class of haemorrhage is this? What is the estimated blood loss?

A

Class II
750-1500mL blood loss

Factors in favour

  • PR 100-120
  • BP normal
  • RR 20-30
  • Mild anxiety
66
Q

In an emergency situation, what is the process of pre-oxygenation?

A

100% O2 via mask for 4 vital capacity breaths

67
Q

What is the ideal position for extubation?

A

Left lateral

68
Q

True or false: it is recommended to give an IV PPI pre-operatively to patients with symptomatic GORD undergoing anaesthesia?

A

FALSE
IV PPIs are NOT recommended
Can gie 30mL sodium 20mins prior to induction or 150mg ranitidine PO a few hours in advance

69
Q

As per the ALS algorithm, when should adrenaline be given? In what dose?

A

Non-shockable rhythm: Immediately and every 2nd cycle
Shockable rhythm: after 2nd shock then every 2nd cycle

Dose = 1mg
(either 10mL of 1:10000 or 1mL of 1:1000)

70
Q

When should amiodarone be given in an arrest? What dose?

A

After the 3rd shock of a shockable rhythm.

Dose = 300mg bolus (in 20mL 5% dextrose, given over 2min with large flush)

71
Q

What are the 4 H’s and T’s of reversible causes of an arrest

A

Hypovolaemia
Hypoxia
Hypo/hyperthermia
Hypo/hyperK+ (or other metabolic disturbance)

Tension PTX
Tamponade
Thrombosis
Toxins

72
Q

What is the dose of atropine for severe bradycardia?

A

0.5-1mg in repeated doses to max 3mg

73
Q

Troponin levels peak at a)___ post-MI and remain elevated for b)___

A

a) 6-12hrs

b) 7 days

74
Q

A patient is low-risk for ACS if they have ALL of the following factors (5): ______

A

1) No ongoing Sx
2) Normal serial Tn
3) Normal ECG
4) Sx not typical for angina
5) <40yo

If all are present, no further Ix is required & pt can be discharged once other serious pathology is excluded

75
Q

What is the Stanford classification?

A

Classifies thoracic aortic dissections as
Type A: involvement of ascending aorta
Type B: NO involvement of ascending aorta

76
Q

A patient has ?PE. They have haemoptysis, SOB and HR 115, BP 140/90. There are no signs/ Sx of DVT, there is no Hx of DVT/PE, no recent immobilization or surgery and no malignancy. They take the COCP. PE is not necessarily the primary diagnosis. What is their Well’s score and what is their subsequent management?

A

Well’s score 2.5

  • 1.5 for tachycardia
  • 1 for haemoptysis

Score ≤4 = PE unlikely -> should perform a D-dimer test

SOB, BP and COCP are not components of the Well’s score.

77
Q

The mnemonic HAD CLOTS can be used to remember the components of the PERC score. What does this stand for?

A 
Haemoptysis
Age >50yo
DVT/ PE Hx
COCP or hormone use
Leg swelling/ signs of DVT
O2 ≤95%
Tachy >100
Surgery/ trauma in past 4/52
78
Q

What are the criteria for an AKI?

A

Increase SCr >26µmol (>0.3mg/dL) in 48hrs OR >1.5X baseline OR
UO <0.5mL/kg/hr for >6hrs

79
Q

Which of these is NOT considered one of the best markers of tissue perfusion?

a) Level of consciousness
b) UO
c) lactate
d) heart rate
e) cap refill and skin temp

A

d) heart rate

The other 4 options are all good markers

80
Q

The following can all be surrogate decision makers for someone who is incapable of making a decision. Order them from first to last resort

EPoA, statutory health attorney, AHD, adult guardian

A

1) AHD
2) EPoA
3) Statutory health attorney (spouse if close, continuing relationship > adult carer > close friend or adult relationship
4) Adult guardian

81
Q

Which of the following would not (yet) prompt you to call a MET call?

a) RR 37
b) HR 120
c) BP 89/60
d) O2 92%
e) RR 4

A 
b) HR 120
Criteria for calling rapid response team
- Threatened airway
- RR <5 or >36
- PR <40 or >140
- SBP <90
- Sudden decline in LOC
- Unresponsive
- Resp/ cardiac arrest
- Repeated or extended seizures
- Significant concern regardless of above
82
Q

What is the most sensitive vital sign for impending arrest?

A

Resp rate

83
Q

What is the target BSL for a patient with sepsis?

A

8-10mmol

hypo or hyperglycaemia can worsen outcomes

84
Q

Tissues can be donated after a death in hospital or community < ____ (time)

A

<24hrs

85
Q

What tissue/ organs can be donated from living donors? (4)

A

Blood, bone marrow, stem cells, kidney

86
Q

Pancreatic or bowel tissue can be donated after (circulatory/ brain) death

A

Brain death

Organs that can be donated after circulatory death (and also brain death) are kidneys, lungs, liver and heart

87
Q

A patient triaged as cat 2 should be seen within ___ (time)

A

10 minutes

[Cat 1 immediately; cat 3 in 30mins; cat 4 in 60mins; cat 5 in 120mins]

88
Q

Anaphylaxis is likely if any of 3 criterion are met. What are these criterion?

A

1) Acute onset (mins-hrs) of skin/ mucosal involvement PLUS either resp compromise or hypoTN/ other sign of end-organ dysfunction
2) After exposure to likely allergen, 2+ of
skin/ mucosal involvement
resp compromise
reduced BP
persistent GI Sx
3) SBP <90 or >30% decrease from baseline after exposure to known allergen

89
Q

What is the recommended dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis?

A

0.3-0.5mg IM q5-15mins

90
Q

What is the most common substance involved in an intentional overdose?

A

Paracetamol

Then antidepressants, BZDs
( ± alcohol)

91
Q

What is the most common substance involved in an accidental overdose?

A

Opioids

92
Q

Hyperthermia can sometimes indicate a toxidrome. Name 3 possible toxidromes/ syndromes

A

Anticholinergic toxicity
Amphetamine toxicity
Serotonin syndrome

93
Q

In an overdose, activated charcoal should ideally be given within __ hr of ingestion and should be avoided if the patient is _____

A

Within 1hr

Avoid if the patient is drowsy/ altered level of consciousness

94
Q

A relatively common complication of NAC infusion for a paracetamol overdose is?

A

Anaphylactoid reaction (occurs in ~10%)

95
Q

What is the antidote for TCA overdose?

A

Bicarbonate

96
Q

Which of the following drugs would NOT produce an anti-cholinergic toxidrome?

a) TCAs
b) anti-histamines
c) organophosphates
d) atropine
e) Parkinson’s treatment

A

c) organophosphates
- this will produce a cholinergic toxidrome (opposite)

The other drugs listed can cause anti-cholinergic side effects

97
Q

With regard to trauma deaths, there is a trimodal distribution. Which deaths can most likely be prevented?

A

The 2nd peak: 1-6hrs after injury

Despite possibly being preventable, these deaths account for ~30% of all trauma deaths

98
Q

What is the most common cause of trauma in QLD?

A

Transport accidents (closely followed by falls)

99
Q

Which 2 imaging investigations are performed as part of the primary survey in trauma?

A

CXR and pelvic XR

100
Q

What are the 4 complications of radial artery puncture?

A

Pain
Vasospasm
Haematoma
Neurovascular compromise

101
Q

True or false: Allen’s test has good predictive value for Cx following arterial puncture

A

FALSE

Allen’s test has LITTLE predictive value for Cx following arterial puncture

102
Q

How long must firm pressure be applied to a radial artery puncture site?

A

3 minutes

103
Q

What are the indications for inserting an IDC?

A

1) Drain bladder for obstruction/ retention
2) Monitor UO
3) Collect sterile urine specimen
4) Neurogenic bladder e.g. epidural

104
Q

What are 3 signs that may suggest urethral injury from pelvic trauma and should be examined when considering inserting an IDC?

A

Blood at meatus
Scrotal haematoma
High-riding prostate

105
Q

The ___ (type of NGT) is wide-bore with 2 lumens

A

Salem sump

The clinifeed is narrow with a single lumen and used for feeding only, not drainage

106
Q

What are 4 complications of NGT insertion?

A

1) Discomfort
2) Epistaxis
3) Aspiration pneumonia (either from endobronchial insertion or impaired swallow with regurg of gastric feeds)
4) Sinusitis

107
Q

CSF opening pressure can only be measured when an LP is performed in what position?

A

Lateral

108
Q

In an LP, how much CSF should be collected?

A

10 drops each in 3 bottles i.e. 30 drops total

109
Q

What is the normal central venous pressure in ventilated patients?

A

5-10 mmHg

110
Q

What is the formula for cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and what is the target?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP
Target is 60 mmHg
(Target ICP is <20 mmHg, and MAP 65-70mmHg)

111
Q

What does LEMON stand for with regards to airway assessment?

A

Look externally (face anatomy, beard, teeth, habitus)
Evaluate 3-3-2: MO >3cm, >3cm mandible-to-hyoid, 2cm thyrohyoid distance
Mallampati
Obstruction
Neck mobility

112
Q

What are 5 causes of delayed gastric emptying

A 
Pyloric stenosis
Shock
Autonomic: fear, pain, anxiety
Late pregnancy
opiates
113
Q

What is the preferred opioid for someone with renal failure?

A

Fentanyl

114
Q

What are the contraindications (4) for guedel airway?

A

Awake patient (cause laryngospasm)
Facial/ oral trauma
Epiglottitis
Seizing

115
Q

How is a nasopharyngeal airway sized?

A

Tip of the nose to the tragus of the ear + 2.5cm

116
Q

How are ETTs sized in children? (Formula)

A

(Age/4) + 4

117
Q

Perioperatively, a stress response to significant surgery results in _________ (3 things)

A

1) Fluid retention
2) K+ loss -> Hypokalaemia
3) Dilutional hyponatraemia

Due to autonomic & hormonal changes (ADH, aldosterone, cortisone, cytokines, catecholamines)

AHP Semester (4 decks)

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