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1st Sem > Ortho > Flashcards

Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

This type of bone follows the Wolff’s Law in remodeling.
a. Cortical Bone
b. Cancellous Bone
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Cancellous Bone

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2
Q

If your cardiac output per minute is 5000 ml, how much of the cardiac output does your bone receives?
a. 100 ml to 250 ml
b. 250 ml to 500 ml
c. 500 ml to 750 ml
d. 750 ml to 1000 ml

A

b. 250 ml to 500 ml

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3
Q

A 45-year-old male sustained a femoral shaft fracture. The main vascular supply that predominates to the fractured bone is/are;
a. Metaphyseal-Epiphyseal System
b. Periosteal System
c. Nutrient Artery System
d. All are correct answer

A

b. Periosteal System

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4
Q

Given the case above, the bone blood flow will be;
a. Inside to outside
b. Centrifugal
c. Centripetal
d. All are correct answer

A

c. Centripetal

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5
Q

Type of ossification, the bone replaces a cartilage model.
a. Appositional ossification
b. Endochondral ossification
c. Intramembranous ossification
d. None of the above

A

b. Endochondral ossification

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6
Q

R.C., 25 males, sustained a right distal radius fracture. Approximately, his dietary requirement for elemental calcium is;
a. 500 mg/day
b. 1000 mg/day
c. 1500 mg/day
d. 2000 mg/day

A

c. 1500 mg/day

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7
Q

The active form of vitamin D is?
a. 25 (OH) D3
b. 24,25 (OH)2D3
c. 1,25 (OH)2D3
d. All are active form

A

c. 1,25 (OH)2D3

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8
Q

In normal bone metabolism, the following increases bone loss
a. Estrogen
b. Calcitonin
c. Growth Hormone
d. Corticosteroid

A

d. Corticosteroid

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9
Q

In the reparative stage of fracture healing, the following cannot be seen;
a. Soft callus
b. Hard callus
c. Medullary Callus
d. Fracture Hematoma

A

d. Fracture Hematoma

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10
Q

To have a net increase in bone mass, one must/must have;
a. Adequate exposure to sunlight
b. Decrease weight bearing activity
c. More osteoclasts
d. Menopause

A

a. Adequate exposure to sunlight

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11
Q

T1 Sequence in MRI is weighted towards
a. Fat
b. Water
c. Bone
d. Muscle

A

a. Fat

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12
Q

T2 sequence in MRI is weighted towards
a. Fat
b. Water
c. Bone
d. Muscle

A

b. Water

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13
Q

Imaging modality that demonstrates details of bone anatomy better than other studies;
a. X-ray
b. CT Scan
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound

A

b. CT Scan

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14
Q

Adequate X-ray should have;
a. Minimum of 2 views (AP & lateral)
b. Span the joint above and the joint below
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A & B

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15
Q

Increased radiation exposure is associated with, except;
a. Imaging larger body parts
b. Use of large C-Arm rather than mini C-Arm
c. Maximizing the distance between the surgeon and the radiation beam
d. Positioning the extremity closer to the radiation source

A

c. Maximizing the distance between the surgeon and the radiation beam

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16
Q

In MRI, T2 weighted images of CSF is;
a. Dark
b. Bright
c. Gray
d. Light gray

A

b. Bright

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17
Q

The following are ways on how to reduce radiation except;
a. Limiting the use of exposure time
b. Use of protective shielding
c. Using collimator
d. Utilizing large C-Arm

A

d. Utilizing large C-Arm

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18
Q

This is dark on T1 and bright on T2-weighted images in MRI;
a. Water
b. Acute hemorrhage
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

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19
Q

What is the test of choice for early detection of osteonecrosis?
a. X-ray
b. CT-Scan
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound

A

c. MRI

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20
Q

The following are uses of CT-Scan, except;
a. Demonstrates details of bony anatomy
b. Demonstrates joint incongruity after closed reduction
c. Useful in evaluating complex fracture patterns
d. Excellent for occult fractures

A

d. Excellent for occult fractures

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21
Q

Dietary requirement of calcium for pregnant women:
A. 1750 mg/day
B. 2000 mg/day
C. 1500 mg/day
D. 1250 mg/day

A

C. 1500 mg/day

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22
Q

The femoral shaft has what type of bone?
A. Woven
B. A and B
C. Cancellous
D. Cortical

A

D. Cortical

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23
Q

Stage of fracture repair wherein medullary callus supports the bridging callus:
A. Hematoma formation
B. Inflammation
C. Repair
D. Remodelling

A

C. Repair

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24
Q

Substance that decreases serum calcium levels:
A. PTH
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Calcitonin
D. Phosphate

A

C. Calcitonin

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25
Q

Cell mainly responsible for bone resorption:
A. Osteoclast
B. Osteon
C. Osteocyte
D. Osteoblast

A

A. Osteoclast

26
Q

T1 sequence in MRI is weighted towards:
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Water
D. Fat

A

D. Fat

27
Q

Direction of blood flow in a mature bone:
A. Centrifugal
B. Centripetal
C. None of the above
D. Both centripetal and centrifugal

A

A. Centrifugal

28
Q

Type of ossification that is found in fracture callus:
A. Endochondral
B. Appositional
C. All of the above
D. Intramembranous

A

A. Endochondral

29
Q

Calcium in the duodenum is transported by what mechanism?
A. None of the above
B. Both passive diffusion and active transport
C. Passive diffusion
D. Active transport

A

D. Active transport

30
Q

The organic component of the bone matrix is composed of what type of collagen?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type I
D. Type IV

A

C. Type I

31
Q

The inorganic component of the bone matrix composed how many percent of the dry weight of bone?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%

A

D. 60%

32
Q

Bone remodeling in response to mechanical stress:
A. Wolff’s Law
B. Young’s modulus
C. None of the above
D. Hueter-Volkman Law

A

A. Wolff’s Law

33
Q

Parathyroid hormone EXCEPT:
A. None of the Above
B. Modulates renal phosphate filtration
C. Directly activates osteoblasts
D. Secreted from the chief cells of the thyroid gland

A

D. Secreted from the chief cells of the thyroid gland

34
Q

Which of the following hormones serve to prevent bone loss by inhibiting bone resorption?
A. Both calcitonin and estrogen
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Calcitonin

A

B. Estrogen

35
Q

The cortical bone EXCEPT:
A. Stiff
B. Slow turnover rate
C. More remodeling
D. High Young’s modulus of elasticity

A

C. More remodeling

36
Q

The definition of fracture in general:
A. None of the above
B. Break in the bone
C. Break in the bone with associated soft tissue injury
D. Break in the bone with soft tissue injury and neurovascular involvement

A

C. Break in the bone with associated soft tissue injury

37
Q

The following factors will increase bone mass EXCEPT:
A. Hypercortisolism
B. Calcitonin
C. Weight bearing
D. Electricity

A

A. Hypercortisolism

38
Q

The following factors will decrease bone mass EXCEPT:
A. Aging process
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hyperthryroidism

A

Fluoride

39
Q

Normal enchondral ossification EXCEPT:
A. Longitudinal growth of the growth plate
B. Embryonic formation of flat bones
C. Embryonic formation of long bones
D. Fracture callus

A

B. Embryonic formation of flat bones

40
Q

Blood supply to the long bones is coming from:
A. Metaphyseal system
B. Nutrient artery system
C. Periosteal system
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

41
Q

You are at the ER; a multiply injured patient was brought for management. What is the rapid radiologic work up you will request?
a. Chest APL, All extremity X-Ray
b. Chest AP, Cervix Lateral, Pelvis AP
c. Thoracolumbar APL
d. Cranial CT scan

A

b. Chest AP, Cervix Lateral, Pelvis AP

42
Q

Patient who are classified in Class IV hemorrhagic shock would have the following except:
a. Heart rate less than 100 bpm
b. Negligible urine output
c. Requires fluid and blood replacement
d. Have a blood loss of more than 40%

A

a. Heart rate less than 100 bpm

43
Q

You are asked to check the GCS score, patient opens eyes to pain, with incomprehensible sounds and abnormal extension. What will be the GCS score:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

c. 6

44
Q

ER; 24/M sustained an open fracture on the right leg. Upon examination, you noticed a 1cm lacerated wound and on history the accident occurred in a highly contaminated area. You would then classify this as Gustilo Classification:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

c. Type III

45
Q

Your antibiotic drug of choice for the patient above would be:
a. Cefazolin and Aminoglycoside
b. Penicillin and Metronidazole
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B

A

c. Both A and B

46
Q

Initial management of open fracture includes the following except:
a. foreign bodies that can be easily removed should
be manually removed with sterile forceps
b. Cover the area with sterile bandage
c. Irrigate the wound with 1-2 L of saline solution
d. Wait for the X-Ray before doing closed reduction
and realignment of grossly deformed limbs or
obviously dislocated joints.

A

d. Wait for the X-Ray before doing closed reduction and realignment of grossly deformed limbs or obviously dislocated joints.

47
Q

In Acute Compartment Syndrome, all are true except;
a. Pain out of proportion to the clinical situation
b. Resolution of symptoms with rest
c. Paralysis of muscle group is a late sign
d. Fasciotomy wound must never be closed primarily

A

b. Resolution of symptoms with rest

48
Q

Contents of the anterior compartment of the thigh includes the following, except:
a. Biceps femoris
b. Vastus medialis
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Sartorius

A

a. Biceps femoris

49
Q

R.B., 50/M sustained an incomplete SCI, on PE the patient has contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. The patient has?
a. Anterior cord syndrome
b. Posterior cord syndrome
c. Brown-Sequard syndrome
d. Central cord syndrome

A

c. Brown-Sequard syndrome

50
Q

Your answer above would have?
a. Good prognosis
b. Poor prognosis
c. Best prognosis
d. Fair prognosis

A

c. Best prognosis

51
Q

The following techniques help to ensure a patient airway, except:
a. Gentle suction of the airway to remove blood
b. Head tilt/chin lift
c. Intubation
d. Application of high flow oxygen

A

b. Head tilt/chin lift

52
Q

The major life threat to identify with regards to circulation:
a. Septic shock
b. Neurogenic shock
c. Hemorrhagic shock
d. Hemodynamic shock

A

c. Hemorrhagic shock

53
Q

Blood transfusion in trauma patient is requires if blood loss is
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 30%

A

d. 30%

54
Q

Lactate level which indicates adequate resuscitation:
a. Less than 2.5mg/dL
b. 2.5mg/dL-3.0mg/dL
c. 3.0mg/dL-3.5mg/dL
d. More than 3.5mg/dL

A

a. Less than 2.5mg/dL

55
Q

True of damage control orthopedics, except:
a. Staging the definitive care of the patient
b. Repair all fractures on the day of admission
c. Treat only potentially life-threatening injuries
d. Acute stabilization of fracture is achieved primarily with external fixation

A

b. Repair all fractures on the day of admission

56
Q

Pregnant patient at more than 20wks gestation who
sustained injury should be in:
a. Prone position
b. Right lateral decubitus
c. Supine position
d. Left lateral decubitus

A

d. Left lateral decubitus

57
Q

Objectives of debridement is/are, except:
a. Removal of foreign material
b. Removal of nonviable tissues
c. Allow identification of the zone of injury
d. Allow bacterial contamination

A

d. Allow bacterial contamination

58
Q

The goal of skeletal immobilization is/are, except:
a. Delay use of the limb
b. Facilitate fracture union
c. Restore strength and alignment
d. Allow access to the wound

A

a. Delay use of the limb

59
Q

Conditions that increase compartment volume is/are except:
a. Soft tissue injury
b. Burns
c. Osteotomy
d. Fracture

A

b. Burns

60
Q

The leg has four compartment, this/these is/are, except:
a. Anterior
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Posterior

A

b. Medial

1st Sem (6 decks)

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