Orthdontics Flashcards

1
Q

prevalence of hypodontia

A

approx 6%

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2
Q

prevalence of hypodontia in primary dentition

A

0.9%

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3
Q

hypodontia - most commonly affected teeth

A

upper lateral incisors - most common
also
- lower incisors
- upper 5s
- lower 5s

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4
Q

hypodontia - potential problems

A

spacing
drifting
over-eruption
aesthetic impairment
functional problems

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5
Q

hypodontia - special investigations

A

study models
planning models
radiographs
photographs
CBCT

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6
Q

ideal abutment for a RBB to replace a missing lateral incisor and why?

A

Canine
- root length
- crown dimensions
- less shine-through

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7
Q

syndromes linked to hypodontia

A

cleft lip and palate
ectodermal dysplasia

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8
Q

MDT specialists that may be involved in hypodontia cases

A

orthodontics
paediatrics
oral surgery
restorative
OMFS

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9
Q

Definition of AP skeletal class 1

A

maxilla is 2-3mm in front of the mandible

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10
Q

gives 2 ways of assessing the AP skeletal base

A

visual assessment
palpate skeletal bases

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11
Q

how can the skeletal base be assessed in a vertical plane? give the average values

A

FMPA
- 27 degrees +/-4
LAfH:TAFH
- 55%

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12
Q

What are the occlusal features of a sucking habit?

A

proclination of upper incisors
retorclination of lower incisors
localised anterior open bite or incomplete overbite
narrow upper arch
- +/- unilateral posterior crossbite

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13
Q

Special investigations that can be done to assess the position of an unerupted maxillary canine

A

OPT and anterior maxillary occlusal
2x periapicals
- one centred on canine region
- one centred on upper central incisor
- parallax technique to localise canine
CBCT

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14
Q

ectopic canine incidence

A

1 to 2% in Caucasian population

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15
Q

risks of leaving an ectopic canine unerupted

A

resorption of roots of adjacent teeth
- 40% risk of lateral incisor root resorption
resorption of canine crown
- 14% risk
ankylosis of unerupted canine
eventual loss of primary canine and complex restorative solutions may be required in future
cystic change of canine (rare)

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16
Q

Ectopic canine - treatment options

A

accept malcolussion
consider interceptive extraction of the C
surgical exposure and orthodontic alignment
surgical removal of ectopic canine
autotransplantation

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17
Q

special investigations for assessing an unerupted maxillary incisor

A

anterior occlusal maxilla or pericapicals
- +/- OPT
CBCT

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18
Q

potential factors leading to an unerupted maxillary incisor

A

trauma to primary tooth causing dilaceration of permanent tooth
early loss of primary tooth allowing adjacent teeth to drift resulting in a crowding = prevention of eruption

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19
Q

unerupted upper central incisor - treatment options

A

accept malocclusion (not advised)
bring central incisor into line of arch
- URA or fixed appliance to make space for tooth
- surgical exposure - often closed exposure
surgically remove central incisor

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20
Q

Class 2 div 1 malocclusion - give BSI definition

A
  • the lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors
  • there is an increased overjet
  • the upper central incisors are proclined or of average inclination
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21
Q

class 2 div 1 incisor relationship prevalence

A

15-20%

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22
Q

Reasons for treating a class 2 div 1

A

aesthetic concerns
dental health concerns
- prominent incisors at risk from trauma especially if incompetent lips
- >9mm overjet twice as likely to suffer trauma
- >9mm overjet IOTN (dhc) = 5a

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23
Q

Class 2 div 1 dental features

A

increased overjet
overbite varies
can see good alignment, crowding or spacing
habitually parted lips may lead to drying of gingiva and exacerbation of any pre-existing gingivitis

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24
Q

management options for class 2 div 1 malocclusion

A

accept
attempt growth modification
simple tipping of teeth (URA)
camouflage
orthognathic surgery

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25
Q

types of functional appliance for class 2 div 1

A

removable
tooth borne
- twin block
- activator/bionator
soft tissue borne
- Frankel (FR II)

fixed
- Herbst

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26
Q

functional appliances - effect in class 2 div 1

A

mostly dento-alveolar changes
- distal movement upper dentition
mesial movement lower dentition
- retroclination of upper incisors
- proclination of lower incisors

minor degree of skeletal changes
- RCT’s indicate that degree of maxillary restraint and mandibular growth is usually small - 1-2mm
- significant variation in response

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27
Q

early functional appliance treatment - potential benefits

A

improve appearance earlier
- potential psychological benefit
- reduce risk of trauma
- often better compliance with appliance wear

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28
Q

potential disadvantages of early use of a functional appliance

A

early skeletal effects not maintained in long term
overall treatment time increased - 2 phase treatment
- early functional appliance plus retention
- fixed appliances in early permanent dentition
research shows little if any difference in results between those treated early and those who waited until in permanent dentition

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29
Q

orthognathic surgery indications

A

growth complete
severe skeletal discrepancy in A/P or vertical direction

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30
Q

Class 3 incisor relationship BSI definition

A

lower incisors edges occlude anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper central incisors
overjet is reduced or reversed

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31
Q

Class 3 incisor relationship - incidence

A

uk 3-7%
higher incidence in Asia

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32
Q

Class iii aetiology

A

strong genetic link
- Habsburg family
environmental factors
- cleft lip and palate
acromegaly

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33
Q

Class 3 dental features

A

tendency to reverse overjet
class 3 molar relationship (not always)
reduced overbite
- anterior open bite may be present
crossbites
- anterior
- buccal
alignment
- mandible often aligned or spaced
- maxilla often crowded
dentoalveolar compensation
- proclined upper incisors
- retroclined lower incisors
tendency for displacement on closing

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34
Q

Reasons for treating a class 3

A

aesthetics
- dental
- profile concerns
dental health reasons
- attrition
- gingival recession
- mandibular displacement
function
- speech
- mastication

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35
Q

Factors which affect the difficulty of treating a class 3 malocclusion

A

number of teeth in anterior cross bite
skeletal element in aetiology
the degree of ap discrepancy
presence of an anterior open bite

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36
Q

Why does facial growth make treating a class 3 malocclusion more difficult?

A

tends to be unfavourable
- mandibular growth continues for longer
- potential for class 3 to become worse

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37
Q

class 3 growth modification appliances - give examples

A

functional appliances
- chin cup
- reverse twin block
- Frankel III
protraction headgear +/- rapid maxillary expansion
bollard implants (late mixed and permanent dentition)

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38
Q

Orthodontic camouflage for class 3 - indications

A

growth stopped
mild to moderate class 3
- ANB >0 degrees
average or increased overbite
able to reach edge to edge incisor relationship
little or no dentoalveolar compensation

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39
Q

class 3 orthodontic camouflage extraction pattern

A

extract further back in upper arch
extract further forward in lower arch
classic pattern
upper 5s, lower 4s
not always possible as dental health may dictate extraction pattern

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40
Q

GDP role in treatment for class 3

A

identify class iii malocclusion
refer to hospital service or specialist practitioner
URA treatment
- anterior crossbite correction

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41
Q

give the BSI definition for a Class II division II incisor relationship

A

lower incisors occlude posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors
the upper incisors are retroclined
the overjet is reduced but can also be increased

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42
Q

class 2 div 2 incidence

A

5-18%

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43
Q

class 2 div 2 dental features

A

retrolination of upper central incisors
retroclined lower incisors
upper 2s often crowded
- may be normal or prolcined depending on position relative to lip line
reduced arch length
- exacerbates crowding
lateral incisors = poor cingulum
lower incisors may occlude with upper incisors or palatal mucosa
deep overbite
class 2 buccal segments
overjet usually reduced

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44
Q

incidence of developmental dental anomalies in class 2 div 2 patients

A

50% cases have a form of congenital dental anomaly
33% have impacted canine

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45
Q

reasons for treating class 2 div 2

A

aesthetic concerns
dental health concerns
- traumatic overbite
- IOTN DHC 4f

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46
Q

Examples of functional appliances for class 2 div 2

A

modified twin block
springs or screw
upper sectional fixed appliance

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47
Q

Aim of fixed appliances in class 2 div 2

A

overbite reduction
correction of inter incisal angle
- torque

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48
Q

Orthodontics - how may it differ in adults compared to children (factors to consider)

A

lack of growth
- adults non growing
- growth modification not possible
- overbite correction more difficult
- mid palatal suture closed
periodontal disease
missing/heavily restored teeth
physiological factors
- decreased cell turnover, initial movement may be slower
adult motivation

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49
Q

Why do adults seek orthodontic treatment?

A

improve dental appearance
- refused treatment as a child
- lack of earlier opportunities
- unhappy with result of earlier treatment e.g. relapse

adjunctive
- facilitate restorative treatment
- after periodontal drift
- part of surgical correction of jaw discrepancy

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50
Q

benefits of orthodontics

A

improvement in

appearance
- dental
- facial
function
dental health

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51
Q

MOCDO acronym stands for

A

Missing teeth
Overjet
crossbites
Displacement of contact point
Overbites

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52
Q

impacted teeth - potential consequences

A

can cause resorption
supernumerary teeth can prevent normal eruption
can be associated with cyst formation

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53
Q

overjet >6mm - potential consequence

A

risk of trauma to upper incisors increased
- worse with incompetent lips

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54
Q

Anterior crossbite - consequence

A

loss of periodontal support
tooth wear

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55
Q

posterior crossbite - consequence

A

significant displacement may lead to asymmetry
- must be corrected early

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56
Q

deep traumatic overbite - consequences

A

can cause gingival stripping
loss of periodontal support

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57
Q

Risks of orthodontic treatment

A

main ones
decalcification
root resorption
relapse
soft tissue trauma

others
recession
loss of periodontal support
enamel fracture and tooth wear
loss of vitality
allergy
poor/failed treatment
headgear injuries

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58
Q

how to prevent decalcification

A

good case selection
- motivated patient
- good OH pre treatment
- low caries risk
oral hygiene
diet advice
fluoride

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59
Q

Oral hygiene instruction for ortho patients should include:

A

before start and during
- toothbrushing - target areas
- interdental brushing

  • brushing minimum twice per day
  • target gingival margins and around each bracket
  • disclosing tablets
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60
Q

diet advice for ortho patient

A

encourage a low cariogenic diet
sugar amount and frequency
- avoid snacks between meal
- avoid fizzy drinks etc
- sports drinks
- lollipops etc

sugar free gum
- stimulates salivary buffers

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61
Q

define the term ‘relapse’ in relation to orthodontic treatment

A

the return of the features of the original malocclusion following correction

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62
Q

which teeth and cases are particularly prone to relapse following orthodontic treatment?

A

lower incisors
crowding
rotations
instanding laterals

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63
Q

downsides of fixed retainers

A

prone to plaque and calculus build up
can break without patient noticing
requires excellent OH
requires more care/long term maintenance

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64
Q

What special investigations can be undertaken following an orthodontic assessment?

A
  • OPT
  • Vitality tests
  • Study models
  • Photographs
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65
Q

Orthodontic assessment - things to check for lower arch

A
  • degree of crowding
  • presence of rotations
  • inclination of canines
  • angulation of incisors to mandibular plane
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66
Q

Orthodontic assessment - things to check for upper arch

A
  • degree of crowding
  • presence of rotations
  • inclination of canines
  • angulation of incisors to Frankfort plane
67
Q

What score is used to assess the treatment need for a patient in orthodontics?

68
Q

What is the SNA?

A

-sella-nasion A point angle
-relates the maxilla to anterior cranial base
avg value 81 +/- 3 degrees

69
Q

What is the SNB?

A

-Sella-nasion B point angle
-relates the mandible to the anterior cranial base
avg value 78 +/- 3 degrees

70
Q

What is the ANB

A
  • A-point-nasion B-point angle
  • relates the mandible to maxilla
    avg value 3 degrees +/- 2
71
Q

What are the typical cephalometrics of a class II occlusion?

A
  • SNA usually average
  • SNB usually decreased
  • ANB> 5 degrees
72
Q

outline the typical cephalometrics of a class III occlusion

A
  • expect SNA to be decreased
  • SNB often average
  • ANB <1 degrees or negative
73
Q

What are the borders for the upper and lower anterior face heights?

A

Upper anterior face height
- brow ridge to base of nose

Lower anterior face height
- base of nose to inferior aspect of chin

74
Q

What are the planes looked at when assessing the vertical jaw relationship?

A

Frankfort plane
- lower orbital rim to superior border of external auditory meatus

Mandibular plane
- lower border of mandible

75
Q

What are the typical features of a short facial type?

A
  • LAFH to TAFH <55%
  • FMPA < 23 degrees
  • deep overbite tendency
  • tendency to parallelism of jaws
76
Q

What is the prevalence of malocclusion?

77
Q

What is meant by a ‘local’ cause of malocclusion?

A

a localised problem or abnormality within either arch, usually confined to one, two or several teeth producing a malocclusion.
- tend to get worse with time

78
Q

Give some examples of local causes of malocclusion

A
  • variation in tooth number
  • variation in tooth size or form
  • abnormalities of tooth position
  • local abnormalities of soft tissues
  • local pathology
79
Q

What is a supernumerary tooth?

A
  • a tooth or tooth-like entity which is additional to the normal series
  • most common in anterior maxilla
  • more common in males
80
Q

what is the prevalence of a supernumerary tooth?

A
  • 1% in primary dentition
  • 2% in permanent dentition
81
Q

What is an ectopic tooth?

A

A tooth that is not located at the dental arch

82
Q

How to do you check for an ectopic maxillary canine?

A
  • check for palpable buccal canine bulge from age 9 onwards
83
Q

Factors causing a variation in tooth number

A
  • supernumerary teeth
  • hypodontia
  • retained primary teeth
  • early loss of primary teeth
  • unscheduled loss of permanent teeth
84
Q

Why might a primary tooth be retained?

A

absent successor
ectopic or dilacerated successor
ankylosed primary molars
dentally delayed in terms of development
pathology/supernumerary

85
Q

early loss of primary teeth - possible causes

A

trauma
periapical pathology
caries
resorption by successor

86
Q

Balancing extraction - what does this mean?

A
  • extracting a tooth from the opposite side of the same arch
  • in order to minimise midline shift
87
Q

compensating extraction - what does this mean?

A
  • extracting a tooth from the same side of the opposing arch
  • in order to maintain occlusal relationship
88
Q

early loss of canines - management

A
  • consider balancing extraction
  • early loss in crowded arch can give centre line shift
  • some mesial drift of buccal segments
89
Q

Factors influencing impact of loss of 6s

A

age at loss
degree of crowding
malocclusion

90
Q

unscheduled loss of upper permeant central incisors - management

A
  • ideally maintain space
  • re implant
  • simple denture
    definitive prosthesis to deal with space long term
91
Q

What are the types of orthodontic tooth movement?

A
  • tipping
  • bodily movement
  • extrusion
  • intrusion
  • rotation
  • torque
92
Q

What effects do excessive orthodontic forces have on a tooth?

A
  • pain
  • necrosis
  • root resorption
  • anchorage loss
  • possible loss of tooth vitality
93
Q

What factors affect the response a tooth may have to an orthodontic force?

A
  • magnitude
  • duration
  • age
  • anatomy
94
Q

types of orthodontic appliances

A
  • removable (URA)
  • functionals
  • fixed
95
Q

what are the dentoalveolar changes from use of twin block functional appliances?

A
  • mesial migration of lower teeth
  • distal migration of upper teeth
  • retroclination of upper teeth
  • proclination of lower teeth
96
Q

ARAB - what does this acronym stand for?

A

Active component
Retention
Anchorage
Baseplate

97
Q

Types of forces which could displace a URA

A
  • gravity
  • occlusal
  • masticatory
  • active component
98
Q

Anchorage - define

A

the resistance to unwanted tooth movement

99
Q

(URA precription ) Retentive component for anterior teeth + gauge of wire

A

Southend clap, 0.7mm HSSW

100
Q

retentive component used for posterior teeth + gauge of wire

A

Adams claps, 0.7mm HSSW

101
Q

Baseplate is made out of…

A

self cure PMMA

102
Q

Baseplate modification to treat an overbite

A

Flat anterior bite plane, Overjet + 3mm

103
Q

Advantages of removable appliances

A
  • tipping of teeth
  • excellent anchorage
  • generally cheaper than fixed
  • shorter chair side time required
  • OH easier to maintain
  • non-destructive to tooth surface
  • less specialised training required to manage
  • can be easily adapted for overbite reduction
  • can achieve block movements
104
Q

disadvantages of removable appliances

A
  • less precise control of tooth movement - only tipping
  • can be easily removed by patient
  • only 1-2 teeth can be moved at one time
  • specialist technical staff required to construct appliances
  • rotations can be difficult to correct
105
Q

information to give patient following delivery of a URA

A

appliance will feel big and bulky
- will get used to it, perfectly normal
may cause initial salivation
- will pass in 24 hours
may impinge on speech
- practice reading aloud
to be worn 24/7 including meal times and sleep
remove after every meal and clean with a soft brush
remove and store in protective container when participating in contact or active sports
avoid hard or sticky foods - be wary with hot food and drinks
missing appointments and non-compliance will significantly increase treatment time
emergency contact details

106
Q

Write a prescription for a URA to expand the upper arch

A

Active component - midline palatal screw

retention - 16 + 26: Adam’s clasps: 0.7 HSSW
14 + 24; Adam’s clasps; 0.7mm HSSW

anchorage - reciprocal anchorage

baseplate - self cure PMMA

107
Q

what would you use to reduce a 6mm overjet in a URA?

A

22, 21, 11, 12; Roberts retractor; 0.5mm HSSW + 0.5mm ID tubing
stops; 13 + 23 mesial stops; 0.7mm (flattened) HSSW

108
Q

What active component would you use to retract a buccally placed canine?

A

Buccal canine retractor; 0.5mm HSSW and 0.5mm ID tubing

109
Q

causes of unerupted central incisors

A

supernumeraries
trauma to primary tooth
- dilaceration to permanent tooth
other pathology or developmental anomaly
congenital absence - rare

110
Q

what is meant by the term ‘dilaceration?

A

An abnormal bend in the root or crown of a tooth, caused by trauma or developmental disturbances

111
Q

first molar extraction - most ideal time to extract

A
  • 7s bifurcation calcifying
  • 8s present
  • mesial angulation of lower permanent molar
  • class 1/reduced overbite
  • moderate lower crowding
  • mild/moderate upper crowding
112
Q

anterior cross bite - things to assess clinically

A

displacement
mobility of lower incisor
tooth wear
gingival recession

113
Q

Give examples of habit breaker appliances

A

URA with palatal goal posts
Fixed appliance with tongue rake

114
Q

Infra occluding teeth aetiology

A

ankylosis of primary tooth
surrounding alveolar bone continues to grow
primary tooth gets left behind

115
Q

8 signs pt is wearing URA

A

wearing on entering
speech with appliance in
proficient handling
good fit
worn appearance of acrylic
indentations on palatal mucosa
signs of tooth movement
active component passive
absence of excess salivation

116
Q

How is cleft lip and palate classified?

A

LAHSHAL
Lip
Alveolus
Hard Palate
Soft palate

Start from classifying from right
- use a dash for any part that is unaffected

117
Q

Cleft lip and palate aetiology

A

genetic
- syndromes
- family history

environmental
- social deprivation
- smoking
- alcohol
- anti-epileptics

118
Q

What MDT specialities may be involved in cleft cases

A

Speech
Hearing and airway
Cardiac
ENT
dental team
CNS
psychology

119
Q

Cleft lip and palate patient journey

A

3 months = lip closure
6-12 months = palate closure
8-10 years = alveolar bone graft
12-15 years = definitive orthodontics
18-20 years = orthognathic surgery

120
Q

Why does a cleft patient need to be at least 8 years old before carrying out alveolar bone grafting?

A

if done earlier - risk of damaging tooth buds in alveolus or creating a fistula

121
Q

Cleft lip and palate dental implications

A

missing teeth
- most commonly lateral incisor
impacted teeth
crowding
growth
- 20% have skeletal class III
caries

122
Q

Lateral Cephalohgrams - uses

A

gross inspection
- anatomy/pathology
assess dent-skeletal relationships
assess soft tissue relationships to underlying hard tissues
monitoring facial growth
prognosis and treatment planning
predict future growth
assess changes due to treatment and growth

123
Q

Lateral cephalogram indications

A

to aid diagnosis
pretreteamnet record
monitoring progress
research project

124
Q

Limitations of lateral cephalograms

A

radiographic projection errors
- magnification
- distortion
errors within measuring system
errors in landmark identification
- quality of image
- operator procedure
- landmark definition and location

125
Q

What is interceptive orthodontics?

A

any procedure that will reduce or eliminate the severity of a developing malocclusion

126
Q

primary dentition - occlusal features

A

incisors more upright
spaced - presence of anthropoid spaces and may present with generalised spacing
tooth wear
- incisors after a period of time may tend towards edge to edge

127
Q

Additional space is required to accommodate the larger teeth of the permanent dentition. How is the space gained?

A
  • increase in inter canine width through lateral growth of the jaws
  • upper incisors erupting onto a wider arc
  • primary canines moving back into the anthropoid spaces (mandible)
  • the leeway space
128
Q

leeway space in the upper arch
((primary canine + first + second molar) - (permanent canine+ first premolar and second premolar))=

A

1 to 1.5mm

129
Q

leeway space in lower arch
((primary canine + first molar + second molar) - (permanent canine + first premolar + second premolar))

A

2 to 2.5mm

130
Q

general rules for extracting a poor prognosis first permanent molars

A

if extracting lower, extract upper
don’t balance with sound tooth
don’t balance if well aligned or paced
if extracting upper, lower does not need to be extracted

131
Q

extraction of first permanent molar - most ideal result is gained when…

A

7s bifurcation calcifying
8s present
moderate lower crowding
mild/moderate upper crowding
best age typically 8-9 years

132
Q

infra occluding tooth management if successor is present

A

monitor 6-12 months
extract if primary tooth below inter proximal contact point
consider extraction if root formation of successor is near completion
maintain space if tooth extracted

133
Q

risks of doing nothing to an infra occluding tooth, if successor is present

A

permanent successor could become more ectopic
infra occlusion worsens with tipping of adjacent teeth
- primary tooth becomes inaccessible for extraction
caries
periodontal disease

134
Q

management of an infra occluding tooth - if permanent successor is absent

A

depends on
- degree of crowding
- degree of infra-occlusion
- malocclusion
retain primary if in good condition and consider onlay
extract if below interproximal contact point
- maintain space for prosthesis
- close space
- or reduce space

135
Q

Growth modification in Class III is most successful when:

A

skeletal I or only mild class III
average or reduced face height
patient age 8-10

(must be worn 14+ hours a day)

136
Q

Primary tooth eruption sequence

A

a-b-d-c-e
lowers before uppers
6 months - 2.5 years

137
Q

primary central incisors usually erupt between

A

6-7 months

138
Q

primary lateral incisors usually erupt between…

A

7-8 months

139
Q

primary canines usually erupt between…

A

18-20 months

140
Q

primary first molars usually erupt between….

A

12-15 months

141
Q

primary second molars usually erupt between….

A

24-36 months

142
Q

How much spacing is required in the primary dentition to guarantee no crowding?

143
Q

What percentage of 6 year olds have a diastema?

144
Q

what percentage of 12 year olds have a diastema?

145
Q

diastemas will typically close if they are narrower than…

146
Q

impaction of first permanent molar - management options

A

if patient <7 years wait 6 months
- 90% of cases self-correct
orthodontic separator
attempt to distilise first molar
extract E
distal disking of ‘e’

147
Q

Describe Andrew’s 6 keys

A

Class 1 molar relationship
correct crown angulation
- long axis of the teeth have a slight mesial inclination except for lower incisors
correct crown inclination
- crowns of the canines back to molars have a lingual inclination
no rotations
no spaces
flat occlusal planes or slight curve of spee

148
Q

benefits of fixed appliances

A

3d control
complex tooth movements
control of root
less dependent on compliance

149
Q

downsides of fixed appliances

A

requires excellent oral hygiene
risk of iatrogenic damage
poor intrinsic anchorage

150
Q

components of fixed appliances

A

bracket/tube
band
arch wire
auxiliaries
anchorage components
force generating components

151
Q

orthodontic brackets can be made of…

A

metal
- stainless steel
- CoCr
- Ti
- Au
polymers
ceramics

152
Q

How are brackets and tubes bonded to teeth?

A

composite via acid etch technique

153
Q

how are molar bands bonded to teeth?

A

glass ionomer

154
Q

Archwires can be made of

A

stainless steel
nickel titanium
cobalt chromium
beta-titanium
composite/glass

155
Q

properties of nickel titanium arch wire

A

flexible
light continuous force
shape memory
- returns to original shape
- cannot bend
higher friction than stainless steel

156
Q

properties of stainless steel arch wire

A

working arch wire to slide teeth
- low friction
formable
- arch wire bends
- loops

157
Q

give an example of force generating components in fixed appliances

A

sliding mechanics
- Elastic power chain
- NiTi coils
- intra-oral elastics
- active ligature
teeth move by utilising the energy stored in the elastic spring

158
Q

what do intra oral elastics for class 3 do?

A

retrocline lower incisors
procline upper incisors
mesial movement of upper teeth
distal movement of lower teeth
extrusion of upper molars

159
Q

what do intra oral elastics for class 2 do?

A

Retrocline upper incisors
procline lower incisors
extrusion of lower molars
distal movement of upper teeth
mesial movement of lower teeth

160
Q

What are the different types of anchorage?

A

simple
compound
reciprocal

161
Q

Components which can be used for anchorage in fixed appliances

A

temporary anchorage devces
- non osseointergrating mini screw
- inter-radicular TAD
- palatal TAD
cortical plates
- cortical anchorage
- maintains intermolar width
nance palatal arch

inter maxillary anchorage
- Class III elastics
- Class II elastics

162
Q

malocclusion features with high relapse potential

A

diastema
rotations
palatally ectopic canines
proclination of lower incisors
anterior open bite
instanding upper laterals

163
Q

types of removable retainer

A

pressure formed
Hawley

164
Q

How can enamel wear occur from fixed appliances?

A

from opposing brackets
higher risk with ceramic brackets