Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CS INT > Orho > Flashcards

Orho Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Intracapsular hip fracture management</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>Extracapsular hip fracture management</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>Reverse oblique fracture</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>Colles fracture</p>

A

<p>1. Transverse fracture of the radius<br></br>

2. 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint<br></br>
3. Dorsal displacement and angulation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>Smiths fracture</p>

A

<p>Garden spade deformity</p>

<p>Vollar angulation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>Bennet's fracture</p>

A

<p>Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint</p>

<p>Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>Monteggia fracture</p>

A

<p>Fracture of proximal 3rd of ulna + radial head dislocation</p>

<p>Outstretched hand with forced pronation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>Galeazzi fracture</p>

A

<p>Distal 3rd fracture of radius with radioulnar joint dislocation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>Barton's fracture</p>

A

<p>Distal radius fracture (Colles'/Smith's) with associated radiocarpal dislocation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>Anterior cruciate ligament mech of injury</p>

A

<p>Twisting force on a bend knee</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>Posterior cruciate ligament mech of injury</p>

A

<p>Hyperextension</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Medial collateral ligament mech of injury</p>

A

<p>Lateral force to the knee</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>Presentation of a meniscal tear</p>

A

<p>rotational sports injury</p>

<p>Acute pain, delayed swelling</p>

<p>Joint locking (pt may develop ways of 'unlocking' but it is not possible to do it passively)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>Le Forte fractures</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>Nasal fracture mx</p>

A

<p>Rx epitaxis</p>

<p>If CSF rhinorrhoea-> abx</p>

<p>Allow bruising/oedema settle, consider manupulation of the deformity (within 10 days)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>Gustillo-Anderson fracture classification use</p>

A

<p>open fractures classification</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>Gustillo-Anderson classification</p>

A

<p>1. low energy wound <1cm</p>

<p>2. >1cm with mod soft tissue damage</p>

<p>3. Extensive soft tissue damage:</p>

<p>3A- adequate soft tissue coverage</p>

<p>3B- Inadequate soft tissue coverage</p>

<p>3C- arterial injury</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>Gustillo-Anderson Grade 3B mx</p>

A

<p>Initially: debridement, stabilisation and external fixation</p>

<p>Skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction on a scheduled ortho-plastics list within 72 hours</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Indication for urgent operation on an open fracture</p>

A

<p>Marine/sewage contamination</p>

<p>Vascular compromise</p>

<p>Polytrauma</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>Salter Harris</p>

A

<p>S</p>

<p>A</p>

<p>L</p>

<p>T</p>

<p>E</p>

<p>R</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Intra growth plate fractures management</p>

A

<p>Stable Salter Harris 1: Conservative</p>

<p>Everything else: surgical reduction +/- fixation</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>Pott's fracture</p>

A

<p>Bimalleolar ankle fracture</p>

<p>Forced foot eversion</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>Holstein Lewis Fracture</p>

A

<p>Distal humerous fracture involving radial nerve</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Weber ankle classification</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>Ankle fracture mx</p>

A

<p>Weber A- Mobilise with ankle boot</p>

<p>Weber C- Nail and plate</p>

<p>Weber B- if unstable same as C</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Grade 1collateral ligament injury</p>

A

<p>Grade 1: negative laxity test.</p>

<p>Minor tearing of ligament</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>Grade 2 collateral ligament injury</p>

A

<p>Ligament laxity at 30 degree flexion</p>

<p>Stable when knee extended</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>Grade 3collateral ligament injury</p>

A

<p>Complete laxity and instability of the joint</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>Mx of collateral ligament injury</p>

A

<p>Grade 1: physio + analgaesia</p>

<p>Grade 2: splinting and casting for 4-6 weeks</p>

<p>Grade 3: surgical reconstruction</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>Gritti stoke amputation</p>

A

<p>Through knee amputation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>Symes amputation</p>

A

<p>ankle amputation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>Osteoprosis mx</p>

A

<p>1st: bisphosphonate + Vit D and Calcium</p>

<p>2nd: Raloxifene, Stronium</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>Gardner's classification</p>

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>Bankart leision</p>

A

<p>Suspect in recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation</p>

<p>Avulsion of the anterior glenoid labrum with an anterior shoulder dislocation</p>

<p>Pocket at the front of the glenoid forms that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it.</p>

<p></p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Mx of a minimally displaced proximal humeral fracture</p>

A

<p>If minimally displaced conservative:</p>

<p>- Immobolisation in a polysling and progressive mobilistation</p>

<p>- Pendular exercises at 14 days</p>

<p>- Active abduction from 4-6 weeks</p>

36
Q

<p>Anteriorly dislocated shoulder mechanism</p>

A

<p>Abduction external rotation</p>

37
Q

<p>Posterior shoulder dislocation xray finding</p>

A

<p>Light bulb</p>

<p>Less common than anterior</p>

38
Q

<p>Hill Sach lesion</p>

A

<p>Chondral impaction on posteriosuperior humeral head from contact with gleonoid rim. Can be large enough to lock shoulder, requiring open reduction</p>

39
Q

<p>Angle between femoral neck and shaft</p>

A

<p>130 in men</p>

<p>110 in women</p>

40
Q

<p>McMurrey test</p>

A

<p>If positive: meniscal tear</p>

<p></p>

41
Q

<p>Anatomical neck of humerus fracture mx</p>

A

<p>High risk of avascular necrosis</p>

<p>Hemiarthroplasty</p>

42
Q

<p>Kocher's criteria for septic arthritis in children</p>

A

<p>WIFE<br></br>
Wcc >12</p>

<p>Inability to wt bear</p>

<p>Fever</p>

<p>ESR>40</p>

43
Q

<p>Septic arthritis mx</p>

A

<p>Surgical drainage</p>

<p>IV abx</p>

44
Q

<p>Layers of periosteum</p>

A

<p>Fibrous: fibroblasts</p>

<p>Cambium: osteoblasts/chondroblasts</p>

<p></p>

45
Q

<p>What attatches periosteum to bone</p>

A

<p>Collagenous fibres called Sharpey's fibre</p>

46
Q

<p>Erbs palsy</p>

A

<p>Upper brachial plexus injury</p>

<p>C5-6</p>

<p>Waitor's tip</p>

47
Q

<p>Signature fracture</p>

A

<p>aka depressed skull fracture</p>

48
Q

<p>Scaphoid blood supply</p>

A

<p>From the distal non-articular end,</p>

<p>Branches of radial artery: dorsal ridge scaphoid branch (supplies 80% of the blood) and volar scaphoid branch (20%)</p>

<p>It is a uni-direction blood flow</p>

49
Q

<p>Tibial plateau schatzker's classification</p>

A
50
Q

<p>Mech of tibial plateau fractures</p>

A

<p>Knee is forced into varus or valgus, but fractures occur before ligament ruptures</p>

<p>Varus injury affects medial plateau and valgus affects lateral plateau</p>

51
Q

<p>Gout aspirate</p>

A

<p>Negative bifirnges</p>

<p>Needle shaped crystals</p>

52
Q

<p>Pseudogout aspirate</p>

A

<p>Positive birfiringes</p>

<p>Rhomboid crystals</p>

53
Q

<p>Hemi-arthroplasty appraoch</p>

A

<p>anterolateral approach (modified hardinged)</p>

<p></p>

54
Q

<p>Total arthroplasty appraoch</p>

A

<p>posterior</p>

55
Q

<p>Posterior hip dislocation mech of injury</p>

A

<p>RTA</p>

<p>Hipe against dashboard</p>

56
Q

<p>Tibial shaft fracture rx in children</p>

A

<p>If growth plate fused: intramedullary nail</p>

<p>If growth plate not fused: external fixation</p>

57
Q

<p>Grade 1 collateral ligament injury and mx</p>

A

<p>Minor tear</p>

<p>Neg instability test</p>

<p>Cons mx</p>

58
Q

<p>Grade 2 collateral lig injury</p>

A

<p>Lig laxity (when knee 30 degree flexion)</p>

<p>Knee stable when extended</p>

<p>Splinting/casting for 4-6 ws</p>

59
Q

<p>Grade 3 collateral lig injury</p>

A

<p>Lig completely torn</p>

<p>Joint instability</p>

<p>Surgical reconstruction</p>

60
Q

<p>Radiological features of OA</p>

A

<p>Joint space narrowing</p>

<p>Subchondral sclerosis</p>

<p>Subchondral cysts</p>

<p>Osteophytes</p>

61
Q

<p>Compartment syndrome in which compartment if pain on passive plantar flexion</p>

A

<p>Anterior compartment</p>

<p>Stretching the extensor pollucis longus (by flexing the other way)</p>

62
Q

<p>Kanavel cardinal signs</p>

A

<p>1. tender</p>

<p>2. fixed flexion</p>

<p>3. swelling (sausage finger)</p>

<p>4. pain on passive extension</p>

<p>flexor sheeth infection</p>

63
Q

<p>Maisonneuve fracture</p>

A

<p>Proximal fibula fracture + sprained ankle</p>

64
Q

<p>Most common type of salter Harris</p>

A

<p>Type 2 (75%)</p>

65
Q

<p>Dorsal scapular nerve damage presentation</p>

A

<p>Weakened scapular retraction due to rhomboids and levator scapula being affected</p>

66
Q

<p>Zones of flexor tendon</p>

A

<p>I- between DIP crease and middle phalanx</p>

<p>II- between zone I and distal palmar crease</p>

<p>III- between distal palmar crease and distal carpal tunnel margin</p>

<p>Zone IV- over carpal tunnel</p>

<p>Zone V - forearm and wrist up to priximal carpal tunnel</p>

67
Q

<p>Absolute indications for primary amputation of tibia</p>

A

<p>Uncontrollable haemorrhage from open tibial injury</p>

<p>Crush injury exceeding a warm ischaemic period of 6 hrs</p>

68
Q

<p>Possible indications for primary amputation</p>

A

<p>Avascular limbs with warm ischaemic time of 4-6hrs</p>

<p>Segmental muscle loss of more than 2 coompartments</p>

<p>Segmental bone loss of more than 1/3 of the length of tibia</p>

69
Q

<p>Below knee amputation length</p>

A

<p>15cm of tibia ideal, 8 cm minimum for below knee prosthesis ti fit</p>

70
Q

<p>Mx of Garden I and II #</p>

A

<p>Cannulated screw fixation</p>

71
Q

<p>Mx of grade III and IV Gardner #</p>

A

<p>Hemiarthroplasty, or total</p>

72
Q

<p>Mx shoulder dislocation</p>

A

<p>Kocher's or hippocratic manoevres</p>

73
Q

<p>Anterior vs posterior shoulder dislocation, which more common</p>

A

<p>90% anterior</p>

<p>10 % posterior</p>

<p></p>

74
Q

<p>Cause of posterior shoulder dislocation</p>

A

<p>epileptic fits</p>

75
Q

<p>Bankart and Hill Sachs lesions on x-ray</p>

A

<p>Complications of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation</p>

76
Q

<p>Problems with blood supply in scaphoid fractures</p>

A

<p>% union rates from top to bottom post fractures: the more distal the fracture, the less chance of it healing, due to uni-directional blood supply</p>

<p></p>

77
Q

<p>Kocher shoulder reduction method</p>

A
78
Q

<p>Hippocratic shoulder reduction</p>

A
79
Q

<p>Distal radius fractures</p>

A

<p>If stable: haematoma block or Biers block + reduction</p>

<p>If unstable: ORIF</p>

80
Q

<p>Unstable distal radius fracture predictors?</p>

A

<p>Dorsal tilt of >20 degrees</p>

<p>Communited fracture</p>

<p>Injury to ulnar styloid</p>

<p>Intra-articular</p>

81
Q

<p>Age cut off for a DEXA scan</p>

A

<p>Above 75, no need just vitd D, Ca, and Bisphosphonates</p>

<p>Below 75: DEXA first</p>

82
Q

<p>Mirel scoring system def</p>

A

<p>Assesses risk of fractures from mets to bone</p>

83
Q

<p>Mets to bones fracture mx</p>

A

<p>Mirel score:</p>

<p>9 or more: prophylactic fixation</p>

<p>8: consider</p>

<p>7 or less: non op mx</p>

84
Q

<p>Mirel scoring system components</p>

A

<p>Site</p>

<p>Appearance</p>

<p>Width</p>

<p>Pain</p>

85
Q

<p>Why get always get xray before aspiration of knee</p>

A

<p>To r/o effusion secondary to malignancy as otherwise risk seeding</p>

86
Q

<p>CI to knee aspiration</p>

A

<p>presence of prosthetic</p>

CS INT (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions