Organization of the Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Business Liability Insurance

A

Insurance that protects the company and/or business owner in the event of a formal lawsuit or other third party claim

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2
Q

Capital Asset

A

Property of any kind held by an assessee, whether connected with their business or profession or not. It includes all kinds of property, movable or immovable, tangible or intangible, fixed or circulating

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3
Q

Depreciation

A

Systematic allocation of the cost of a tangible asset over time.

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4
Q

Hardware

A

The physical equipment used in a computer system

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5
Q

Hardware / Software Support

A

Assistance for technical problems with electronic devices or computer software applications. The support team is composed of individuals that are familiar with the ins and outs of a device and/or software application.

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6
Q

Housekeeping

A

Operations such as record-keeping or maintenance in an organization, or a computer that makes work possible but does not directly constitute its performance.

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7
Q

Inspection

A

Careful examination or scrutiny, possibly by such agencies as DEA, OSHA, local fire dept, etc

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8
Q

Insurance Agent

A

A person employed to sell insurance policies

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9
Q

Product Warranty

A

A guarantee that a manufacturer or similar party makes regarding the condition of its product.

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10
Q

Service Warranty

A

a guarantee or promise which provides assurance by one party to the other party that specific facts or conditions are true or will happen.

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11
Q

Warranty Period

A

A defined time frame that a product or service is guaranteed.

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12
Q

Equipment Budget

A

A budget that includes maintenance of existing equipment and purchase cost of new equipment.

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13
Q

False
Cash is typically the smartest, most economical way to purchase

A

True / False
When purchasing equipment, leasing is typically the smartest, most economical way to purchase

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14
Q

167 uses to break even
$88 - $22 = $66 Profit
$11,000 / $66 = 167 uses

A

Consider the following to calculate a Break Even Analysis for a piece of equipment:
Equipment cost: $11,000
Cost to produce service: $22
Client Cost for service: $88

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15
Q

Consent Form

A

A form signed by a client prior to a medical procedure to confirm that he or she agrees to the procedure and is aware of any risks that might be involved.

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16
Q

Medical Record Audit

A

Methodical review and examination of practice records to assess accuracy and completeness.

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17
Q

Medical Records

A

Written reports by vets on the animals he or she treats

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18
Q

Medical Terminology

A

Language that is used to accurately describe the patient’s body and associated components, conditions, processes and procedures in a science-based manner

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19
Q

Paperless / Paper light

A

A term or phrase used to describe a practice that no longer uses physical medical charts, and relies primarily on electronic medical records.

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20
Q

POVMIR Problem Oriented Vet Medical Record

A

A vet medical record model designed to organize patient info by the presenting problem. The record includes the patient database, problem list, plan of care, and progress notes in an accessible format.

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21
Q

Procedure Logs

A

Documents used to ensure that tasks have been completed in a specific manner

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22
Q

Record Transfer

A

The transfer of the legal and physical custody of permanent records

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23
Q

Required Content

A

Every state has a vet practice Act that defines the required content in each patient’s medical records.

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24
Q

Standards

A

Statements of what a practice believes in and recommends for its patients.

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25
Q

SOAP Subjective/Objective/Assessment/Plan

A

A systematic method used when writing out medical records that includes: Subjective, objective, assessment, and plan for patient care.

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26
Q

Waiver

A

A form that is signed by the owner/agent of a pet stating that they decline to accept the vets recommendations or advice.

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27
Q

all of the above

A

What are some Common examples of license board violations in vet med?
a. Lack of complete patient and client identification
b. Lack of complete system by system description with annotated exam notes
c. Lack of tentative diagnosis and or lack of prognosis
d. Lack of treatment specified and especially lack of clients informed consent or waiver or denial of recommendations
e. Illegible entries and alterations or deletions of record after a reasonable contemporaneous period

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28
Q

True

A

True / False
If a tx or diagnosis is not documented it is presumed to not have happened

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29
Q

False
Medical record violations are part of the large majority of investigations by the state licensing boards
Although a client complaint is rarely about records, it is the records that the board will investigate to rule on the complaint

A

True / False
Veterinary negligence violations are part of the large majority of investigations by the state licensing boards

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30
Q

True

A

True / False
Even if the vet is acquitted of a client’s complaint, they could still be cited for medical record violations if they do not meet the minimum standards

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31
Q

True

A

True / False
Illegible medical records are the same as no medical records

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32
Q

POMR - Problem Oriented Medical Records

A

The most common medical record format.

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33
Q

POMR - Problem Oriented Medical Records

A

This medical record format includes:
- Defined Database
- Problem List / Master List
- The Plan
- The Progress Section which includes SOAP

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34
Q

Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan

A

What does SOAP stand for?

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35
Q

c. Assessment

A

the conclusion reached from the data collected. Multiple or tentative diagnoses can be documented here with the use of rule-ins and rule-outs
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

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36
Q

a. Subjective

A

most critical info for support staff. These details include the reason for the visit, hx and client observations
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

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37
Q

d. Plan

A

developed according to the assessment and includes a tx, sx, medication, intended diagnostics, or intended communication with the owner.
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

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38
Q

b. Objective

A

info collected via physical exam, diagnostics, and interpretation. This section is factual
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

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39
Q

SOMR - Source Oriented Medical Records

A

A medical record method where data is entered in the medical records and then grouped by the information source and then organized chronologically by date of patient encounter.

40
Q

SOMR - Source Oriented Medical Records

A

Which medical record method incudes information such as:
Client oral hx
Physical exam findings
Imaging studies
Lab results

41
Q

Combination of SOMR and POMR

A

the most effective way to organize the medical record from the private practice perspective. Includes:
Major problem list
Vaccination hx
Exam uses the SOAP format with major problems entered using the POMR source oriented format.

42
Q

Backup

A

The procedure for making extra copies of data in case the original is lost or damaged

43
Q

Bluetooth

A

A standard for the short-range wireless interconnection of cellular phones, computers, and other electronic devices

44
Q

Client Portals

A

An electronic gateway to a collection of digital files, services, and information accessible over the internet through a web browser

45
Q

Desktop

A

A computer where the central processing unit sits either on the desk or under it; not considered portable

46
Q

Firewall

A

A system (hardware, software or a combination) on your local intranet network that is designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from the network

47
Q

Integrating Systems

A

The process of bringing together the component subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together as a system

48
Q

Internet Accessibility

A

Refers to the inclusive practice of removing barriers that prevent interaction with, or access to websites

49
Q

Local Area Network (LAN)

A

A computer network that links devices within a buiding or group of adjacent buildings.

50
Q

PCI Compliance

A

The Payment Card Inducstry Data Security Standard is a set of requirements designed to ensure that ALL companies that process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment.

51
Q

Secure Login

A

A secure login page utilizes a Secure Sockets Layer to encrypt the user name and password before passing them to the mail server so that anything that might be intercepted are in an encrypted format that will be unreadable

52
Q

Security Standards

A

A set of administrative, physical and technical actions to protect the confidentiality, availability and integrity of information or data

53
Q

Server

A

A computer on the network that manages network resources, and provides functionality for other computers on the network

54
Q

Software

A

Programs or applications that run on computers

55
Q

BARK Business Assessment Report Kard

A

A strategic planning process designed to evaluate vet practice

56
Q

Five-Force Analysis

A

A strategic planning activity that organizes the practice’s evaluation of the external environment and its opportunities and threats

57
Q

Implementation

A

To put into effect. Strategic Planning can only succeed with implementation of the plan

58
Q

PEST Analysis

A

A framework using four factors to help scan the external macro environment in which the practice operates; Political, Economic, Sociocultural and Technological

59
Q

SMART Goals

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound.

60
Q

Strategy

A

A plan or action to achieve a specific end, typically within a long time frame (usually more than a year).

61
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

A tool used that analyzes the practice’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats when making a plan.

62
Q

Tactic

A

A plan or action to achieve a specific end, typically within a short time frame (usually less than a year, but occasionally spanning a few years).

63
Q

Value Chain Analysis

A

Analysis tool for strategic planning and goal setting that describes a series of activities, with each stage adding value to the final product or service outcome.

64
Q

Value Proposition

A

Description of the value that a product, service, or process will provide to the pet owner, hospital, and staff

65
Q

VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

A

A management process tool that assists in identifying and targeting measurable performance goals in operational quadrants; client perspective, patient perspective, learning and growth perspective and financial perspective

66
Q

d. VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

A

A management process tool that assists in identifying and targeting measurable performance goals in operational quadrants; client perspective, patient perspective, learning and growth perspective and financial perspective
a. Five-Force Analysis
b. PEST Analysis
c. Value Chain Analysis
d. VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

67
Q

c. Value Chain Analysis

A

Analysis tool for strategic planning and goal setting that describes a series of activities, with each stage adding value to the final product or service outcome.
a. Five-Force Analysis
b. PEST Analysis
c. Value Chain Analysis
d. VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

68
Q

b. PEST Analysis

A

A framework using four factors to help scan the external macro environment in which the practice operates; Political, Economic, Sociocultural and Technological
a. Five-Force Analysis
b. PEST Analysis
c. Value Chain Analysis
d. VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

69
Q

a. Five-Force Analysis

A

A strategic planning activity that organizes the practice’s evaluation of the external environment and its opportunities and threats
a. Five-Force Analysis
b. PEST Analysis
c. Value Chain Analysis
d. VPS Veterinary Practice Scorecard

70
Q

a. Introductory
b. Growth
d. Maturity
e. Decline

A

What are the four Business Life Cycle Phases?
a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Stagnant
d. Maturity
e. Decline
f. Closure

71
Q

a. Introductory

A

What stage of the business cycle involves vision, innovation, and energy. Typically before doors are open for business
a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

72
Q

b. Growth

A

What stage of the business cycle involves Efficiency, discipline, and talent development are critical
a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

73
Q

c. Maturity

A

What stage of the business cycle involves manage risks, problem solve, search for continuous opportunity for growth
a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

74
Q

d. Decline

A

What stage of the business cycle involves decreased demand for services. Revisiting the strategic plan for revitalizing the practice is vital
a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

75
Q

a. Formulation
b. Development
d. Implementation
f. Evaluation

A

What are the 4 phases of strategic planning?
a. Formulation
b. Development
c. Growth
d. Implementation
e. Revision
f. Evaluation

76
Q

a. Formulation

A

What phase of strategic planning involves the development of Mission, Vision, Values, SWOT Analysis, and Gap Analysis
a. Formulation
b. Development
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation

77
Q

b. Development

A

What phase of strategic planning involves considering your team members, clients, patients, and budget?
a. Formulation
b. Development
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation

78
Q

c. Implementation

A

What phase of strategic planning involves a plan of action, allocating resources, incorporates “systems thinking”?
a. Formulation
b. Development
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation

79
Q

d. Evaluation

A

What phase of strategic planning involves evaluating the success of the objectives, a balance scorecard to illustrate the state of the practice?
a. Formulation
b. Development
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation

80
Q

Organizational Design

A

this is the methodology that identifies aspects of workflow, procedures, roles and systems and aligns them to fit current business realities and goals.

81
Q

Learning Organization

A

This type of organization is characterized by the ability to adapt to change and respond quickly to environmental/consumer changes

82
Q

All of the above

A

A running capitol inventory list should contain what information about the equipment?
a. Equipment name
b. Manufacturer
c. Model/serial number
d. Purchase date, amount paid, and purchase location

83
Q

500 invoiced uses to break-even.

A

Using the metrics below; what is the break-even number for a potential Laser machine purchase;
Purchase price $25,000
Client cost $65
Technician time to perform the service $15

84
Q

d. $335.62

A

The practice purchased a digital radiology unit for $35,000. Shipping charges were $2,525. Installation and training costs were $2,750. The practice is planning on the equipment serving them for a minimum of 10 years. Using the formula for calculating equipment expense for profit center use, what is the estimated monthly expense you can subtract from the profit center?
a. $731.25
b. $602.50
c. $4,027
d. $335.62

85
Q

True

A

True / False
In the case of a written mistake, correction fluid cannot be used on any medical record, release or authorization form. A correction should consist of a one line strike through with the author’s initials.

86
Q

all of the above

A

Name examples of license board violations regarding medical records.
a. Lack of complete patient and client identification.
b. Lack of complete system-by-system description with annotated exam notes.
c. Lack of tentative diagnosis.
d. Lack of prognosis.
e. Lack of treatment specified and especially lack of clients waiver or denial of recommendations for a specific treatment or procedure.
f. Illegible entries.
g. Alterations or deletions of record after a reasonable contemporaneous period.

87
Q

True

A

True / False
An incomplete, illegible record can be considered an admission of professional incompetence and imply that the care provided was sub-standard.

88
Q

True

A

True / False
Although a client complaint is rarely about records, it is the records that the board will investigate to rule on the complaint.

89
Q

False

A

True / False
In the medical record, only abnormal results are recommended to be documented in the patient medical record.

90
Q

e. Name of manufacture

A

Medication documentation does not need to include
a. name of medication
b. strength
c. dose given
d. route administered.
e. Name of manufacture

91
Q

True

A

True / False
In reference to disease transmission; fleas, ticks and mosquitos are considered vectors.

92
Q

Resistance to Learning

A

Lack of follow through from management, “Push” form of learning verses “Pull”, and negative peer pressure from team members who have plateaued, are all common reasons for what?

93
Q

c. Two
Possibly one of the most important text messaging rules to follow is to keep mass text messages to a minimum. If the practice sends more than two text messages per month to clients, the practice is in danger of being considered an annoying source of spam.

A

What is the maximum number of mass text messages that a practice should send to clients per month to avoid the messages being considered spam?
a. Ten
b. Four
c. Two
d. Five

94
Q

Drive Times

A

In regards to identifying your practices “trade area” there are two common calculations: Radius Rings, and Drive Times. Which calculation is considered best?

95
Q

C=R+A+FT
Compliance Standards
Recommendation
Acceptance
Follow-Through

A

The AAHA compliance study The Path to High Quality Care, showed that most vets over estimate client compliance by at least 25% and that the level of care they provide their patients is not as high as they thought it was. From the results of this study, AAHA came up with the CRAFT formula for compliance. The formula demonstrates that vets control three of the four components of compliance. Define the CRAFT formula for compliance