Human Resources Flashcards
1
Q
Competency to do a certain job, AKA a talent. Can be physical or mental
A
Aptitude
2
Q
A process of looking up past records (ex criinal, financial, commercial) on an individual or business
A
Background Screening
3
Q
indirect and non-cash compensation to employee
A
Benefits
4
Q
working partnership between manager and employee to provide structure, guidance and support to employee
A
Coaching
5
Q
An estimate of salary / wage expenses for a set period of time
A
Compensation Budget
6
Q
Restricting the dissemination of information
A
Confidentiality
7
Q
Process in which business decisions are analyzed. Benefits of situation/action are added up then deduct the costs associated with it.
A
Cost Benefit Analysis
8
Q
The condition of being composed of different things
A
Diversity
9
Q
A type of skill or intelligence that involves the ability to perceive, assess and positively influence one’s own and other people’s emotions
A
Emotional Intelligence (EI)
10
Q
A complaint / notice of employee dissatisfaction regarding pay, job requirements, work conditions or alleged violation of a collective bargaining agreement.
A
Employee Grievance
11
Q
Employee personnel file that includes application, documents to determine promotion, compensation, termination or disciplinary action.
A
Employee Records
12
Q
The ability to retain employees and reduce staff turn-over ([# retained / # positions] x 100)
A
Employee Retention
13
Q
The number or percentage of workers who leave and are replaced by new staff
A
Employee Turnover
14
Q
A metric used for comparing practices based on a full time schedule of 40 hr/wk
A
Full-Time Equivalent (FTE)
15
Q
The tendency for an impression created in one area to influence opinion in another area
A
Horns and Halo Effect
16
Q
Skills of people that can produce goods and services such as employment practices, organizational development, compensation and benefits and employee relations
A
Human Resources
17
Q
A conversation where questions are asked and answers are given
A
Interview
18
Q
Formal meeting where one or more persons questions, consults, evaluates another person in context of hiring
A
Interview Process
19
Q
Questions used during a formal meeting to evaluate another persons ability to do a job
A
Interview Questions
20
Q
Written summary listing elements such as tasks, duties, responsibilities of a particular job
A
Job Description
21
Q
Informal relationship where a more experienced individual offers guidance / career advice to a less experienced colleague
A
Mentoring
22
Q
Before a negative decision has been made for denial of employment, a letter is sent to the candidate informing of the coming decision.
A
Pre-Adverse Action
23
Q
A denial of employment or any employment decision that adversely affects any current or prospective employee.
A
Adverse Action
24
Q
A group of people with a common characteristic who are legally protected from employment discrimination on the basis of that characteristic.
A
Protected Class Awareness
25
Contacting previous employers of a job applicant to determine job history
Reference Checks
26
Raters tendency to allow more recent incidents (good/bad) of an employees behavior to carry too much weight in the evaluation performance over an entire rating period. (performance over last month is used to do a 1 year evaluation.)
Regency Error
27
A persons range of skills or abilities
Skill Sets
28
Interview process where 2 or more current employees participate
Team Interviews
29
Teaching skill sets to employees
Training
30
Having an applicant prove their job skills by performing them along side future co-workers. Also an opportunity to ensure they are a good fit.
Working Interview
31
Informal relationship where a more experienced individual offers guidance/career advice to a less experienced colleague
a. Coaching
b. Mentoring
c. Human Resources
d. Training
Mentoring
32
A raters tendency to allow more recent incidents (good or bad) of an employees behavior to carry too much weight in the evaluation of performance over an entire rating period.
a. Horns & Halos Effect
b. Influence
c. Regency Error
d. Performance Bias
Regency Error
33
Having applicant prove their job skills by performing them along side future co-workers. Also an opportunity to ensure they are a good fit
a. Working Interview
b. Team Interview
c. Interview Process
d. Interview Questions
e. Interview
Working Interview
34
The act/process of using words, sounds, sign, behaviors to express/exchange info or to express your ideas, thoughts, feelings etc to someone else
Communication
35
On going training of staff through refresher courses, journals, and texts, conferences, educational programs and self study cources
Continuing Education
36
Belief systems of the practice. The cultural values that guide team members work for the practice
Core Values
37
Training that covers several tasks within a dept or multiple departments within an organization
Cross Training
38
Process of ensuring that an organization has complied with preventative measures; is in a state of readiness to contain the effects of a forecasted disastrous event to minimize injury, life loss, damage to property and can provide a rescue
Emergency Preparedness
39
An area of training or knowledge that is absent in an individual, dept or company. The purpose to identify is to fill in those gaps with appropriate training
Knowledge Gaps
40
The way(s) in which an individual prefers and is most successful at learning. Visual, auditory, kinesthetic, tactile and analytical
Learning Styles
41
The method of leadership that an administrator usually employs when running a business
Management Style
42
A statement or purpose by which a practice intends to serve its stakeholders
Mission Statement
43
The planned and executed process of welcoming, orienting and training a new employee
Onboarding
44
Teaching skill sets to employees
Training
45
Statement that defines and clarifies the direction the organization needs to move
Vision Statement
46
Statement that defines and clarifies the direction the organization needs to move
a. Mission Statement
b. Vision Statement
c. Core Values
Vision Statement
47
A statement or purpose by which a practice intends to serve its stakeholders
a. Mission Statement
b. Vision Statement
c. Core Values
Mission Statement
48
Belief systems of the practice. The cultural values that guide team members work for the practice
a. Mission Statement
b. Vision Statement
c. Core Values
Core Values
49
The action of going regularly to or being present in the workplace
Attendance
50
Reserve appointment time for 2 different clients at the same time
Double Book
51
A time of reduced or inactivity
Down-Time
52
willingness to change or compromise
Flexibility
53
Schedule an appt for the future prior to client leaving current appt. A strategic compliance and organizational tool
Forward Booking
54
Any scheduling system where the Dr has access to more than one exam room
High Density Scheduling
55
Act of communicating with a client to define a specific time for them to visit the hospital
Patient Scheduling
56
A DVM that works for a practice on a temporary basis
Relief Vet
57
Refers to how many support staff are on duty compared to the number of DVMs on duty at a time
Support Staff / DVM Ratio
58
A set of detailed methods, procedures and routines created to carry out a specific activity
Systems
59
Request for time periods when you are not required to work
Time off Requests
60
Specific times scheduled with an outside party related to products and supplies for the business
Vendor Appointments
61
Scheduling an appt for the future prior to client leaving current appt. A strategic compliance and organizational tool
a. High Density Scheduling
b. Patient Scheduling
c. Forward Booking
d. Double Book
Forward Booking
62
Reserve appt time for 2 different clients at the same time
a. High Density Scheduling
b. Patient Scheduling
c. Forward Booking
d. Double Book
Double Book
63
Any scheduling system where the Dr has access to more than one exam room
a. High Density Scheduling
b. Patient Scheduling
c. Forward Booking
d. Double Book
High Density Scheduling
64
Act of communicating with a client to define a specific time for them to visit the hospital
a. High Density Scheduling
b. Patient Scheduling
c. Forward Booking
d. Double Book
Patient Scheduling
65
To give power to authorize staff members. To give team members the ability and permission to complete tasks. Act of encouraging and authorizing workers to take initiatives to improve operations, reduce costs, improve quality and quantity of service.
Empower
66
Assuming responsibility for ones actions
Accountability
67
The latest date or time a task should be completed
Deadlines
68
Authorizing subordinates to make decisions
Delegate
69
The result of achievement toward which an effort is directed
Expectations / Goals
70
Determining the order in which to deal with tasks in order of importance
Prioritizing
71
Any modification or adjustment to a job or work environment that will enable a qualified applicant or employee with a disability to participate in the application process or to perform their job
Reasonable Accommodation
72
Knowing what results are important and focusing resources to achieve them
Results Oriented
73
A systematic way to record items that need to be completed
To Do Lists
74
The progression of steps that comprises a work process. A repeated pattern of activity
Workflow
75
Specific tasks frequently assigned or accepted at meetings
Action Items
76
A list of meeting topics to be reviewed
Agenda
77
The action of marking one's pleasure at an important event or occasion by engaging in enjoyable social activity
Celebrations
78
Influencing or having an effect on each other
Interactive
79
The art of guiding people in a manner that commands their respect, confidence and their wholehearted cooperation
Leadership
80
Written/recorded documentation used to inform attendees or non-attendees what was discussed at the meeting. Items include: Attendees, agenda, decisions, action items, due dates
Minutes
81
Process of stimulating people to actions to accomplish goals
Motivation
82
The action of taking part in something
Participation
83
The changing of ones behavior to assume a role - usually done in training procedures
Role Playing
84
The act of planning and facilitating a meeting
Staff meeting facilitation
85
The use of different types of interventions that are aimed at enhancing social relations and clarifying team members roles, as well as solving tasks and interpersonal problems that affect team functionality
Team Building
86
A system / process that employees receive confidential and anonymous feedback from their peers. Includes Manager, peers, direct reports
360 Degree Evaluations
87
Interview between employer and departing employee to determine why employee is leaving employment regardless of circumstances
Exit Interview
88
what the Employee or employer anticipate on receiving from the professional relationship. Employer may have performance expectations, Employee has wages for time worked expectations.
Expectations
89
A desred result that a person or system envisions, plans and commits to achieve. A personal or organizational end point in some sort of assumed development.
Goals
90
A survey given to employees where the intent is meant to determine the contentment or satisfaction with their position or specific task
Job Satisfaction Survey
91
The evaluation of creative work or performance by other people in the same field in order to maintain or enhance the quality of work or performance in that field
Peer Evaluations
92
A system used to determine and report how well an employee has performed during a period of time
Performance Evaluation
93
A plan aimed in improving an employee performance and or behavior. Use a this to identify a performance problem and ways to improve.
Performance Improvement Plan (PIP)
94
The assessment/review of an employees pay to determine if they should receive a raise.
Wage Review
95
A system / process that employees receive confidential and anonymous feedback from their peers. Includes Manager, peers, direct reports
a. 360 Degree Evaluation
b. Job Satisfaction Survey
c. Peer Evaluation
d. Performance Evaluation
360 Degree Evaluation
96
A survey given to employees where the intent is meant to determine the contentment or satisfaction with their position or specific task
a. 360 Degree Evaluation
b. Job Satisfaction Survey
c. Peer Evaluation
d. Performance Evaluation
Job Satisfaction Survey
97
The evaluation of creative work or performance by other people in the same field in order to maintain or enhance the quality of work or performance in that field
a. 360 Degree Evaluation
b. Job Satisfaction Survey
c. Peer Evaluation
d. Performance Evaluation
Peer Evaluation
98
A system used to determine and report how well an employee has performed during a period of time
a. 360 Degree Evaluation
b. Job Satisfaction Survey
c. Peer Evaluation
d. Performance Evaluation
Performance Evaluation
99
The growth of a candidate that would be expected, an increase in the impact they may be capable of over time. Need to know candidates goals, desires, figure plans. This helps the hospital grow as well.
a. Impact
b. Potential Growth
c. Skill Set
d. Horns and Halo Effect
Potential Growth
100
A measure of results achieved in the past by candidate and likelihood of continuing at new practice. Includes both positive and negative. Think Repeating behaviors.
a. Impact
b. Potential Growth
c. Skill Set
d. Horns and Halo Effect
Impact
101
A person's range of skills or abilities
a. Training
b. Fit
c. Emotional Intelligence
d. Skill Set
e. Aptitude
Skill Set
102
Competency to do a certain job, AKA talent. Can be physical or mental
a. Training
b. Fit
c. Emotional Intelligence
d. Skill Set
e. Aptitude
Aptitude
103
working partnership between manager and employee to provide structure, guidance and support to employee
a. Coaching
b. Mentoring
c. Training
d. Working Interview
Coaching
104
Process in which business decisions are analyzed. Benefits of the situation / action are added up then deduct the costs associated with it.
a. Compensation Budget
b. Cost Benefit Analysis
c. Human Resources
d. Pre-Adverse Action
Cost Benefit Analysis
105
Raters tendency to allow more recent incidents - good or bad - of an employee's behavior to carry too much weight in the evaluation performance over an entire rating period. (performance over last month is used to rate a 1 year evaluation)
a. Horns and Halo Effect
b. Potential Growth
c. Regency Error
d. Adverse Action
Regency Error
106
Written summary listing elements such as tasks, duties, responsibilities of a particular job
a. Job Description
b. Employee Records
c. Interview Questions
d. Skill Sets
Job Description
107
A process which to rate each competency for each candidate so all are compared consistently and fairly. A systematic way of evaluating each candidate.
Rating Scale for Interview Process
108
Type of income that is generated by Veterinarians
Active Income
109
Type of income produced by staff members
Passive Income
110
DVM's should bring in ___% of revenue and the remaining ___% should be brought in by the support staff.
50% and 50%
111
What is the general staff to DVM ratio recommended?
4.2 to 1
112
True / False
It is ok to only call references on candidates you are contemplating on hiring.
False, you must treat every candidate the exact same
113
The following questions are legal to ask a candidate during the interview process: (multiple choice)
a. Are you currently employed?
b. Why do you want to leave your current position?
c. What is your maiden name?
d. Have your wages ever been garnished?
e. What is your salary requirement?
f. Are you able to work a weekend schedule?
g. What holidays do you observe?
a. Are you currently employed?
b. Why do you want to leave your current position?
e. What is your salary requirement?
f. Are you able to work a weekend schedule?
114
What questions are NOT legal to ask a candidate during an interview process?
a. What was the least enjoyable aspect of your last job?
b. When did you graduate from high school?
c. What clubs and societies do you belong to?
d. If you joined our team, what abilities would you bring?
e. Have you ever been arrested?
f. Do you prefer to be addressed as Ms, Miss, or Mrs?
b. When did you graduate from high school?
c. What clubs and societies do you belong to?
e. Have you ever been arrested?
f. Do you prefer to be addressed as Ms, Miss, or Mrs?
115
Can you ask a job applicant if they are 18 years of age or older?
Yes, but you cannot ask how old they are unless they are under 18.
116
Which question is legal to ask a job candidate:
a. Are you capable of performing the essential functions of the position with or without reasonable accommodation?
b. Do you have a disability that would prevent you from performing this job?
c. Both
d. Neither
a. Are you capable of performing the essential functions of the position with or without reasonable accommodation?
117
True / False
If your practice requires staff to work weekends, it is ok to ask the job applicant if they are not able to work any weekends due to religious beliefs.
False. If you need to know if a person can work weekends, ask: if hired, are you available to work Saturdays or Sundays?
118
True / False
It is ok to ask a job applicant how long they have been a resident of this state or city?
True
119
Which question(s) are legal to ask a job applicant;
a. Are you a citizen of the United States?
b. Of what country are you a citizen
c. If you're not a citizen of the US, do you intend to become a citizen of the US?
d. When did your parents acquire citizenship?
e. none of the above
a. Are you a citizen of the United States?
c. If you're not a citizen of the US, do you intend to become a citizen of the US?
120
Which questions(s) are legal to ask a job applicant?
a. Do you possess a valid driver's license?
b. Did you receive a discharge form the military other than honorable discharge?
c. What type of duties did you perform while in the military
d. May we attach your photograph to your application for reference?
e. none of the above.
a. Do you possess a valid driver's license
c. What type of duties did you perform while in the military
121
The planned and executed process of welcoming, orienting and training a new employee.
Onboarding
122
After hiring a new staff member, when should you do the following tasks?
- Send welcome letter, 1st day outline, schedule, contact info at hospital, where to ark, practice website, intranet info, dress code, employee manual
- Assign trainers, discuss strategy and training schedule
- Inform all staff of new employee, name, position, start date
- Assign a mentor
- Inform them of What to bring on 1st day; I9 ID, direct deposit form, credentials if appropriate
Things to do prior to new hires 1st day on job
123
What are the 4 C's of successful onboarding?
a. Caring, Creating, Coping, Coaching
b. Compliance, Clarification, Culture, Connection
c. Compliance, Coaching, Communication, Complete
d. Candidates, Collection, Clarification, Cross Train
b. Compliance, Clarification, Culture, Connection
124
Which of the four C's of successful onboarding is defined by:
Educating the new hire on the practices policies and protocols, day to day operations, legal regulations, learns rules of the trade
a. Compliance
b. Clarification
c. Culture
d. Connection
a. Compliance
125
Which of the four C's of successful onboarding is defined by:
Specific to the new hire, helps them understand her role as a team member and as an individual. Sets clear expectations
a. Compliance
b. Clarification
c. Culture
d. Connection
b. Clarification
126
Which of the four C's of successful onboarding is defined by:
Helps understand the practices norms, what is typical / atypical in this practice. Includes unspoken rules, how this practice team dynamic functions
a. Compliance
b. Clarification
c. Culture
d. Connection
c. Culture
127
Which of the four C's of successful onboarding is defined by:
Forming connections and networks that strengthens the bond the new hire feels towards the practice. Involves social integration, feeling accepted and respected.
a. Compliance
b. Clarification
c. Culture
d. Connection
d. Connection
128
How do you facilitate a new hire into your practice with EASE?
Encouragement, Align, Solve, End
129
When facilitating a new hire into your practice with EASE, which of these represents Encouragement?
a. increase confidence, making the new hire feel more capable, then may take on more responsibilities.
b. Coordinate team members with the new hire so they feel supported and everyone is on the same page. Involve stakeholders in the onboarding process so there is buy in
c. Watch for potential problems and resolve them before they escalate. Do not allow conflict to progress and get out of control. Intervene when necessary
d. Stop distraction, help the new hire focus on what matters most in the moment. Help to decipher what is important and stay on track.
a. Encouragement will increase confidence, making the new hire feel more capable, then may take on more responsibilities. Encourage new hires to have a voice, own their role empower them to ask questions and come up with solutions
130
When facilitating a new hire into your practice with EASE, which of these represents Align?
a. increase confidence, making the new hire feel more capable, then may take on more responsibilities.
b. Coordinate team members with the new hire so they feel supported and everyone is on the same page. Involve stakeholders in the onboarding process so there is buy in
c. Watch for potential problems and resolve them before they escalate. Do not allow conflict to progress and get out of control. Intervene when necessary
d. Stop distraction, help the new hire focus on what matters most in the moment. Help to decipher what is important and stay on track.
b. Align / Coordinate team members with the new hire so they feel supported and everyone is on the same page. Involve stakeholders in the onboarding process so there is buy in
131
When facilitating a new hire into your practice with EASE, which of these represents Solve?
a. increase confidence, making the new hire feel more capable, then may take on more responsibilities.
b. Coordinate team members with the new hire so they feel supported and everyone is on the same page. Involve stakeholders in the onboarding process so there is buy in
c. Watch for potential problems and resolve them before they escalate. Do not allow conflict to progress and get out of control. Intervene when necessary
d. Stop distraction, help the new hire focus on what matters most in the moment. Help to decipher what is important and stay on track.
c. Watch for potential problems and resolve them before they escalate. Do not allow conflict to progress and get out of control. Intervene when necessary
132
When facilitating a new hire into your practice with EASE, which of these represents End?
a. increase confidence, making the new hire feel more capable, then may take on more responsibilities.
b. Coordinate team members with the new hire so they feel supported and everyone is on the same page. Involve stakeholders in the onboarding process so there is buy in
c. Watch for potential problems and resolve them before they escalate. Do not allow conflict to progress and get out of control. Intervene when necessary
d. Stop distraction, help the new hire focus on what matters most in the moment. Help to decipher what is important and stay on track.
d. End / Stop distraction, help the new hire focus on what matters most in the moment. Help to decipher what is important and stay on track.
133
What paperwork should the manager go over with the new hire on the first day?
I9, tax forms, DD, employment agreement. Review job description, confidentiality agreement, clarify duties, training materials, policy and procedure handbook, OSHA review / safety book, wages, benefits, performance review schedule, phase training list
134
When should Safety Training Take place with a new hire?
a. prior to starting first day
b. First day on the job
c. Within the first 3 days of work
d. Within the first 7-10 business days
b. First day on the job
135
New hire should have immediate awareness and training to which of the following
a. Location of 1st aid kit, eyewash station and exits
b. Location of all PPE and instructions on proper use
c. Location of all mandatory posters
d. Location of hospital safety manual
e. Copies of all applicable OSHA standards
f. Be informed of all hazards in the workplace and be trained to safely perform all job duties.
all of the above
136
An outline of the progressive steps in the training for a specific position within a practice
Phase Training
137
A Reasonable hospital investment is ___% of hospital revenue for training
a. 1-2%
b. 2-3%
c. 3-4%
d. 3-5%
a. 1-2%
138
What are the Three most common reasons staff leave a practice;
a. Lack of positive feedback
b. Lack of training opportunities
c. Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice
d. Wages are insufficient
e. Lost interest in the field
f. Conflict with team members
g. culture of the practice
a. Lack of positive feedback
b. Lack of training opportunities
c. Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice
139
This help the team provide standardized / consistent quality medical care, provide a clear communication of expectations and how one will be held accountable, provides guidance for prioritizing tasks, leveraging team members to be timely and deficient.
SOPs, Standard Operating Procedures
140
communicate expectations to the team , explain how they will be held accountable and consequences for failure to meet expectations. This should not only come up once a year on staff evals, it should be continuous.
Performance Standards
141
Encourage input from the team by providing a psychologically safe culture for them which allows constructive confrontation and open discussions. Encourage brainstorm sessions. Trust is not just a word, it’s a cultural priority.
Engage and Empower
142
Appreciate a person and value their input and efforts. Rewards are not one size fits all. Know what motivates each person
Recognize and Reward -
143
The focus of each team member on what they want to achieve professionally. Discuss career goals and see how business can help.
Personal Focus
144
What are some ways to enhance team productivity?
a. Shared purpose
b. Tools to do the job
c. SOPs
d. Performance Standards
e. Engage and Empower
f. Recognize and Reward
g. Physical Fitness
h. Personal Focus
i. Team Focus
all of the above
145
The mission and values of the practice help define the core competencies that should be expected of employees. Examples of core competencies:
a. Customer focus
b. Technical skills
c. Accountability
d. Change management
e. Mentoring
f. Team work
g. Leadership
h. Business skills
i. Self awareness
all of the above
146
A staff members individual plan for self development that is approved by management to ensure it is aligned with organizations goals
Employee Individual Development Plan
147
How often should you developer an Employee Individual Development Plan?
a. Once a month
b. Once per quarter
c. Once a year
d. During disciplinary action
c. Once a year
148
True / False
As long as an Employee Individual Development Plan supports the staff member, it does not need to meet any needs of the practice.
False
Should support the staff member but also meet needs of hospital
149
Employee Individual Development Plans are built on the theory of
a. Career advancement
b. Positive Reinforcement
c. Positive Corrective Action
d. Disciplinary Corrective Action
b. Positive Reinforcement
150
Effective appointment schedule has 2 goals
1. Eliminate Client Wait time
2. Maximize efficiency of doctors, support staff and facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures.
3. Meet all needs of clients and patients
4. Scheduling as many appointments in a day as possible
1. Eliminate Client Wait time
2. Maximize efficiency of doctors, support staff and facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures.
151
A method where appts are scheduled in 10 min increments as needed for type of appt - this method is becoming very popular.
Ten Minute Flex
152
A scheduling method where Anytime a dr has access to more than 1 exam room at a time
High Density Scheduling
153
What are the two Bonding Philosophies regarding clients?
a. Bond clients to their pets
b. Bond clients to the practice
c. Bond clients to customer service
d. Bond clients to the doctor
b. Bond clients to the practice
d. Bond clients to the doctor
154
Bonding Rate - measures the client bonding rate per dr
New drs should be around ___% bonding rate
Seasoned drs should be around ___% bonding rate
25% and 70%
155
Percentage of available Appts slots scheduled during a specific period of time
Fill Rate
Most clinics calculate fill rates by shift and by vets per quarter. Then adjust as needed. Used to schedule and leverage staff.
156
True / False
You do not need to keep a record of a Time Off Request once the employee has returned from said time off.
False
Keep written time off requests and approvals in employee file for same length of time as all payroll records and time cards
157
Which of these represent presenteeism?
a. Workaholic - often works OT, picks up extra shifts usually to avoid personal problems, tend to be less productive due to being overworked
b. Person refuses to take a sick day. They are less effective due to illness, talk to other staff and to clients about being sick.
c. Person who shows up to work but is sent home because their work performance is poor due to fatigue, illness, stress, etc.
d. Person who is at work but "hides" to avoid work or pretends to be busy throughout the day
a. Workaholic - often works OT, picks up extra shifts usually to avoid personal problems, tend to be less productive due to being overworked
b. Person refuses to take a sick day. They are less effective due to illness, talk to other staff and to clients about being sick.
158
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is when the staff, their shift and duties rotate
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
a. Rotating
159
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is when their schedule is mixed between fixed and rotating, ie; same shifts during the week, rotate weekend
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
b. Hybrid
160
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is when Staff, shift and duties are same week after week
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
c. Fixed
161
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is based on staff members skill set and needs of practice. The better their skill set the better flexibility / options. This ensure all typical tasks can be completed by staff on hand instead of a ‘body count’
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
d. Skill Based
162
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is when staff works in more than 1 are of the hospital in same day
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
e. Split
163
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is working where there is a larger break than just lunch, ie; 8-12 break 4-8
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
f. Split Shift
164
Regarding Staff Scheduling options, which of the following is when staff is scheduled one day at a time as needed by hospital, ie; on-call and relieve vet/tech.
a. Rotating
b. Hybrid
c. Fixed
d. Skill Based
e. Split
f. Split Shift
g. Per Diem
g. Per Diem
165
An employee that is exempt from minimum wage law and OT regulations of Fair Labor Standards Act.
Exempt staff
Salaried employees
166
staff members covered by FLSA minimum wage and OT laws.
Non-Exempt Staff
Hourly employees
167
What are the 2 keys to a successful vet practice?
a. Delegation
b. Encouragement
c. Empowerment
d. Leadership
e. Mentorship
f. Coaching
a. Delegation
c. Empowerment
168
Authorizing subordinates to make certain decisions.
Delegation
Delegation increases time, decreases stress and allows work/life balance. Shows team members they are capable and builds confidence.
169
to give power to authorize staff members. Give team members the ability and permission to complete tasks. Act of encouraging and authorizing workers to take initiative to improve operations, reduce costs, improve quality and quantity of service.
Empower
170
When Delegating, you should use what system?
a. SWOT
b. SMART
c. EASE
d. MENTOR
b. SMART
171
What is the SMART system?
Specific
Measurable
Agreed
Realistic
Time Bound
172
What part of the SMART system is Defining the task, why it’s important, expected outcome
Specific
173
What part of the SMART system is how it can be measured in terms of progress and completion
Measurable
174
What part of the SMART system is Both parties agree on importance and how goal will be achieved, resources needed - training, equipment
Agreed
175
What part of the SMART system is goals and progress are realistic with time constraints
Realistic
176
What part of the SMART system is How and when results will be expected. Create check in points to prevent micromanaging and to communicate.
Time-bound
177
assigning/scheduling the # of support staff needed to enable drs to perform as efficiently as possible. Provides Peak Performance.
Staff Leveraging
178
The average clinic cost is $___/minute to be open.
a. $2.00
b. $7.50
c. $10.00
d. 15.00
e. 18.75
c. $10
179
Training an employee with several different tasks in 1 department or in multiple departments in the practice
Cross Training
180
What are some Advantages to having team meetings?
a.Raises practice benchmarks
b. Provides total quality management
c. Increased profits and improved compliance
d. Increases team member communication and problem solving
e. Contributes to a positive culture
all of the above
181
True / False
If a team meeting is held during lunch and the practice or a third party provides the food, the staff does not have to be paid.
False
Employees must be paid for their time if they attend team meetings, food is optional
182
True / False
Once a team meeting agenda is completed and posted, staff should not be allowed to add to it so the meeting can stay on track.
False
Encourage team members to contribute to topics
Staff are allowed to add to agenda
183
The assessment/review of an employee’s pay to determine if they should receive a raise.
Wage Review
184
Performance Reviews should
a. Be developed from Job Description
b. Review performance expectations
c. Review and relate to clinics mission, vision and values
d. Address team members accomplishments
e. contain Peer and self reviews in direct relation to team members job
f. Discuss and clarify goals, tasks, responsibilities
g. Performance feedback
h. Focus should be on future
i. Discuss and performance issues
All of the above
185
True / False
There should be no negative surprise during a performance review
True
186
True / False
Staff performance reviews are a great time to discuss wages and give raises
False
Recommend to not tie reviews with raises unless it’s trial/training period
187
True / False
During a performance review you should Let the employee come up with own goals/solutions to issues
True
188
True / False
Since each staff member is unique, you should tailor your performance review accordingly
False
Conduct all reviews similarly to avoid discrimination accusations
189
peer review by co-workers, managers and direct reports. Employee’s receive confidential and anonymous feedback. Should give useful info on how employee is perceived by others
360 review
190
team members give a subjective view of their own work performance within a certain time frame.
Self Review
191
This is an Assessment of an employee’s true job satisfaction
Job Satisfaction Survey
192
True / False
Employees should receive Regular informal feedback from supervisor, not just once a year during evaluations.
True
193
True / False
During Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems, Supervisor should identify and discuss the problem with the employee, and suggest a course of action for a solutions/improvement and The employee should have input in the plan and suggest changes
True
194
True / False
Formal reviews should not be used to discuss on-going performance problems
True
195
True / False
Once an employee has reached the top of their pay range, you no longer need to perform staff evaluations.
False
everyone needs feedback on their job
196
True / False
Managers are in the best position to accurately assess staff, therefore their input in evaluations are most important.
False
Most managers do not have the time/ability to spend the time to do this
197
True / False
If the transgression (issue)) was too minor to bring up in the moment, it should not be on the performance review
True
198
a form of settlement negotiation facilitated by a 3rd party
Arbitration
199
A set of rules outlining social norms, and rules and responsibilities of, or proper practices for an individual or organization
Code of Conduct
200
A process of resolving a dispute or disagreement
Conflict Resolution
201
Any unwanted or undesirable conduct that puts down, shows hostility or an aversion to another person. It can come from coworkers, employers or clients
Harassment
202
When conduct by anyone in the workplace has the purpose of creating a hostile, intimidating or offensive work enviro.
Hostile Work Environment
203
Researching, collecting and evaluating info with the intent of confirming the facts or truth of the situation. Ie: violation of OSHA procedure, hostile work enviro, low inventory counts
Investigation
204
To intervene between people in a dispute in order to bring out an agreement or reconciliation
Mediate
205
Intervention in a dispute in order to resolve it; arbitration
Mediation
206
A strategic discussion that resolves an issue in a way that both parties find acceptable. Each party tries to persuade the other to their point of view.
Negotiation
207
The process and management of resolving a dispute or disagreement
Conflict Management
208
True / False
When there is conflict between staff members, the situation can become worse when management tries to intervene.n
False
Team members welcome management intervening with team conflicts
209
What are the Four step method for successful intervention of conflict in the workplace
a. Confront the behavior
b. Hold a team meeting with all staff to discuss the behavior
c. Talk it out with only the parties involved
d. Have staff write out all their issues and have the other person read each others letter
e. Hold team members responsible for solutions
f. Management should come up with the solution to the conflict, staff member will be disciplined if they don't abide to it
g. Follow up and Feedback after 1-2 days, then weekly, then phase out
h. Only meet with the staff if conflict remains, allow them time to figure it out.
a. Confront the behavior
c. Talk it out with only the parties involved
e. Hold team members responsible for solutions
g. Follow up and Feedback after 1-2 days, then weekly, then phase out
210
Occurs when an employee resigned as a result of an employer creating a hostile work enviro.
Constructive Discharge
211
Process of communicating with employees to improve unacceptable behavior/performance and setting standards and consequences for not meeting these standards.
Corrective Action
212
Material that provides official info or evidence that serves as a record.
Documentation
213
The legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights that are owed to a person
Due Process
214
The manager's door is open to every employee. It is to encourage open communication, feedback and discussion about any manner of importance to an employee.
Open Door Policy
215
a discipline model used by schools, parents and workplaces that focuses on the positive points of behavior, based on the idea there are no bad individuals, just good and bad behavior.
Positive Discipline
216
the process of using increasingly severe steps or measures when an employee fails to correct a problem after being given a reasonable opportunity to do so.
Progressive Discipline
217
Pay and or benefits an employee receives when they leave employment at a company
Severance Package
218
Placing an employee, for disciplinary reasons, temporarily off duty. Usually a part of progressive disciplinary action
Suspension
219
Refers to some states' final paycheck laws that define a specific time frame for when a departing employee must receive their final paycheck.
Termination Pay Schedule
220
Without a paid job but available to work
Unemployed
221
A claim in breach of contract or in tort for the ending of an employment contract by an employer, for some unlawful reason.
Wrongful discharge
222
True / False
For the verbal warning of a disciplinary procedure, the warning should be documented in the employee file, dated with only the signature of the manager
True
223
True / False
Termination Procedures must clearly be stated and followed to protect the practice against unemployment claims and discrimination.
True
224
form of employment in which the employee can only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason.
Just Cause Employment Relationship
Some states may make employers compensate an employee without just cause to terminate.
225
form of employment where the employee is serving the employer at the will of both parties. Allows employers to terminate an employee with or without cause.
At Will Employment
226
Which are Exceptions to At-Will Employment
Collective bargaining agreements, labor contracts
a. Contracts that indicate a definite period of employment
b. Dismissal based on race, color, sex, religion, national origin - all prohibited by Title VII Civil Rights Act
c. Dismissal based on pregnancy - prohibited by pregnancy Discrimination Act
d. Dismissal by age - over 40 - prohibited by Age Discrimination Employment Act
e. Dismissal because employee refuses to work in an unsafe work environment or exercises right under OSHA
f. Dismissal because employee filed bankruptcy - Prohibited by Bankruptcy Reform Act
g. Dismissal due to Jury Duty - Federal Law
all of the above
227
True / False
If an employee is performing poorly due to a short-term life stressor, they should be told they would be terminated if it weren’t for that. If no improvement after stressor, they can be terminated or re-evaluated at that time
True
228
True / False
If a practice is experiencing financial issues, they cannot terminate or lay off a staff member.
False
Practice finances call for elimination of position = laid off, NOT fired
229
The following represent what type of disciplinary action?
Dishonesty and unethical behavior
Criminal activity at work - stealing/embezzlement, outside work drug use
Improper use of PPE
Falsification of hospital records
Insubordination
Willful violation of an established policy
Violation of an anti-harassment or equal employment opportunity policy
Time card violation
Sleeping on duty
Inappropriate computer use - gambling
Grounds for Immediate Termination
230
When terminating an employe and they have health insurance through the practice, who should you contact?
a. Practice Attorney
b. Practice Accountant
c. COBRA
d. Employees physician
c. COBRA
231
If you must terminate an employee, when is the best time to do so?
a. Call them prior to their scheduled shift that day
b. Right after they clock in
c. During their lunch break
d. At the end of the day
e. On the last day of the pay week
d. At the end of the day
232
True / False
You should Terminate privately with same sex witness, not a peer or lateral position
True
233
True / False
you May not ask employee to sign a release to not sue over termination
False
You May ask employee to sign a release to not sue over termination. May be in correlation to a severance package
234
True / False
When acting as a job reference for a past employee, it is Ok to say “no comment” unless you know of violence/illegal behavior
True
235
True / False
When acting as a job reference for a past employee, you are not under obligation to inform the potential new employer if the employee has propensity for violence or illegal behavior
False
Avoid negligent referral by omitting pertinent info if employee has propensity for violence or illegal behavior
236
US federal statute designed to expand access to health care insurance, decrease rising costs and focus on wellness and prevention
Affordable Care Act (ACA)
237
The period of time an employee is eligible for benefits
Benefits Waiting Period
238
Allows for continuation of group health insurance to covered employees who leave their employment under certain circumstances
COBRA Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
239
What does COBRA stand for?
Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
240
A gift or payment to a common fund or collection
Contribution
241
A process in which an organization reviews and measures their employee benefits as a competitive factor for attracting employees
Employee Benefits Review
242
The ability of an organization to retain employees and reduce staff turn-over
Employee Retention
243
What is the formula for calculating Employee Retention?
of positions retained / # of positions in practice x 100
244
The legal status and classification of someone in employment as either an employee or working on their own account (self - employed)
Employment Status
245
The limit to the amount of money one can deduct from their salary to place in a retirement account
Maximum Contribution
246
A period in which a health insurance company or HMO is statutorily required to accept applicants without regard to health history
Open Enrollment
247
A change in your life that can make you eligible for a special enrollment period, usually to enroll in health coverage
Qualified Event
248
Everything the practice provides in exchange for working. Includes wages, PTO, CE, medical benefits, etc.
Total compensation
249
True / False
Benefits are required by law for employers of 10 or more employees
False
Benefits are not required by law but they help attract and maintain team members
250
What is the most expensive staff benefit for a practice to offer its employees?
a. Retirement Fund
b. Health Insurance
c. Pet Discount
d. Dues and Licenses
e. Uniforms
b. Health Insurance
251
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following:
Reimbursed for visits
Go to any doctor - no network
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
a. Fee for Service
252
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following:
Patient visit dr within network
Must visit own dr before referral can be made
Most strict of managed plans.
They may decline coverage if a patient goes to an outside provider.
Network primary dr is also known as a Gatekeeper Physician
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
b. HMO Health Maintenance Organization
253
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following:Blend of fee for service and HMO.
There is a network of Doctors you can go outside but it’s more costly to do so
You do not have a gatekeeper physician
You can go to a specialist without permission of your primary Dr
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
c. PPO Preferred Provider Organization
254
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following: Tax savings plan for both employers and employees. Allows employees to pay their portion of the premium or other contribution before taxes are deducted. Saves the employer in payroll taxes
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
e. Section 125 Plan
255
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following: they have a network you stick to to be covered
You do not have a Gatekeeper Dr to see a specialist
Outside of network Drs are very costly
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
d. POS Point of Service plan
256
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following: An account to be used in conjunction with a high deductible health plan. Account can be used to pay medical expenses, services, and supplies. This plan is owned by the employee
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
f. HSA Health Savings Plan
257
Which type of Health Care Coverage states the following: Employees pay for health related costs pre taxed.
Covers things not covered under your health insurance for health and dental, including co-pay, deductible, non covered items like glasses
These plans are owned by the practice/employer
a. Fee for Service
b. HMO
c. PPO
d. POS
e. Section 125 Plans
f. HSA
g. FSA
FSA Flexible Savings Account
258
True / False
Under the PPACA - Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2010 law, an employer must provide health insurance to their employees regardless of how many staff members they have
False
If under 50 employees, employee must obtain insurance on their own if not provided by employer
259
True / False
Caps for HSA and FSA's are regulated by the PPACA - Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2010 law
True
260
Who regulates Retirement Plans?
a. FLSA
b. EEOC
c. ERISA
d. DOL
c. ERISA Employee Retirement Income Security Act
261
Who enforces ERISA - Employee Retirement Income Security Act?
a. FLSA
b. EEOC
c. DOL
d. Congress
e. House of Senate
c. DOL US Department of Labor
262
What type of retirement plan is Established by employers to allow eligible employees to contribute pre-tax dollars to the plan
Employer is required to make dollar for dollar or percentage contribution to the plan
Relatively simple to administer and costs are low
Employees sets aside dollars or percent of pay each paycheck
a. Simple IRA (sIRA)
b. 401k
c. SEPs
d. Investment Bonds
a. Simple IRA (sIRA) - Short Incentive Match Plan for Employees Individual Retirement Plan
263
What type of retirement plan Allows employees to contribute to retirement plan pre-tax
Employers NOT required to contribute
Able to create a profit-sharing component to employees
Employees determine amount to contribute
There are sets limits/max allowed yearly
Generally requires an administrator to handle the plan and can be costly
a. Simple IRA (sIRA)
b. 401k
c. SEPs
d. Investment Bonds
b. 401k
264
What type of retirement plan is Similar to profit sharing
Funded by tax deductible employer contributions
Employees cannot contribute
a. Simple IRA (sIRA)
b. 401k
c. SEPs
d. Investment Bonds
c. SEPs - Simplified Employee Pension Plans
265
True / False
PTO is subject to overtime
False
OT is NOT paid for PTO
266
More than ___% discount on staff pet services are considered a fringe benefit and must be taxed - reported on payroll
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
c. 20%
267
What percentage of gross revenue should be budgeted towards staff CE?
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 4%
d. 5%
d. 5%
268
True / False
If you require CE, the practice is required by federal law to pay for time incurred at CE for all non-exempt employees. Applicable to OT pay
Absolutely True
269
A policy maintained to protect employee against an injury or illness that results in time of work without pay
Disability Insurance
270
the waiting period before disability insurance benefits kick-in
Elimination period
271
The time frame the Disability insurance benefits are paid, measured in time or age
Benefit Period
272
Disability Policy cannot be canceled or experience an increase in premium
Non-cancelable/Guaranteed Renewable
273
Disability insurance that states if person is partially disabled, benefits are based on percentage of income lost
Residual coverage
274
Disability insurance benefits that increase with inflation automatically. Policy only offered during time of non-disability
Automatic Benefit Indexing
275
premiums are waived after a certain amount of time of collecting disability insurance benefits (usually 90 days)
Waiver of Premiums
276
provides for purchasing increased disability insurance coverage without proof of insurability
Future Insurance Options (riders)
277
pays out disability insurance benefits until previous earning potential is realized. Dr is reimbursed for their losses until their income returns to a predetermined percentage of pre-disability earnings
Total Recovery Clause
278
allows for increases in monthly disability insurance benefits during periods of disabilities sufficient to keep pace with cost of living
Cost of Living Option
279
a detailed breakdown of the value of the total compensation and benefits package. Includes
salary/hourly wage, bonuses, SS, Medicare contributions, health ins, liability insurance, disability insurance, holiday pay, vaca/sick time, retirement, pet health care discount, uniforms, dues, licenses.
Employee Total Compensation/Benefits statement
280
Systematic inspection of records for accuracy and compliance. Typically done for medical record, financial records, tax records, safety records
Audits
281
Limited to persons authorized to use information; documents, etc
Confidential
282
The use of various workplace surveillance to gather info about the activities and locations of staff members
Employee surveillance
283
Provides safeguards of invasion of personal privacy through misuse of records by the US federal agency
Privacy Act 1974
284
A person who exposes any kind of info or activity that is deemed illegal, dishonest, or not correct within an organization that is either private or public
Whistleblowing
285
True/False
Current Labor and immigration statutes require employers to retain proof of eligibility to work in the US
True
286
What Federal and State laws regulate employers to keep records of employee selection, promotion, demotion, reduction in force and termination
Anti-discrimination
287
Where should the I-9 form be filed?
I-9 forms should Not be in with employee file, can be stored in 1 file that includes all staff forms
288
What are the different Personnel Files each employee should have?
1. Payroll / Compensation and Benefits
2. Personnel Key Events
3. Medical
4. Confidential
289
Which Employee Record should contain the following information:
employee full name, address, SS#
If a minor - DOB
Work schedule, pay, earnings records, wage deductions
Benefit records
Timeclock record for each pay period
a. Compensation / Benefits
b. Personnel Key Events
c. Confidential
d. Medical
a. Compensation / Benefits - Payroll file
290
Which Employee Record should contain the following information:
Application, resume, interview notes, background check
Job description
Offer of employment letter
Performance evaluations, education, training
Disciplinary documents
Various fed and state mandated forms except I9
Copies of degrees, certificates, diplomas
Contracts, agreements, non-compete agreement
Employee action forms such as wage change, position, department
a. Compensation / Benefits
b. Personnel Key Events
c. Confidential
d. Medical
Personnel Key Events file
291
Which Employee Record should contain the following information:
Leave of absence and Attendance forms (Except FMLA)
Employee record form showing date of hire, hire on salary, raises, promotions, demotions Emergency contact and other employment details
Background verification form
CE Forms
Record of skill evaluation completion
Records of attendance
Job related tests related to hire (NOT medical)
a. Compensation / Benefits
b. Personnel Key Events
c. Confidential
d. Medical
b. Personnel Key Events
292
Which Employee Record should contain the following information:Pre-employment drug screen test
employment PE Exam results
FMLA Documentation
Return-to work releases
Documents regarding disability and accommodations thereof
Workers comp docs
Insurance claims doc
Physician notes.
a. Compensation / Benefits
b. Personnel Key Events
c. Confidential
d. Medical
d. Medical
293
Which Employee Record should contain the following information: Any document that cannot be legally used to make a decision in hiring, firing, promotion, demotion or any other employee decision
Documents that contain any information regarding an employees gender, race, religion, veteran status, disability or national origin
Garnishment orders or credit reports
Investigative docs for any criminal action unless the case has been concluded
a. Compensation / Benefits
b. Personnel Key Events
c. Confidential
d. Medical
c. Confidential File
294
True / False
It is at the discretion of the practice owner what the employee can review from their own personnel files
True
Employer can control what employee can review, when and where they can be viewed
295
True / False
It is Recommended to have a release signed by employee to give info for future inquiries ie; employment and wage verifications.
True
296
True / False
The employees direct supervisor may have access to non-job related docs so long as it has been recorded in their personnel files.
False
The employees direct supervisor may have access on a need to know basis, but they should not have access to non-job related docs
297
What is the retention time for the following file(s):
basic employee info such as I9, job ads, training opportunities, request for accommodation for disability, hiring records, results from tests, employment actions; hire, separations, re-hire, demotion, lay-off, etc. Refusal to hire, work permits
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 30 years
a. 3 years (Personnel Key Events File)
298
What is the retention time for the following file(s):
Tax records, DOB, payroll records - SS#, pay rate, pension payments, payroll deductions, Overtime
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 30 years
b. 4 years (Compensation / Benefits / Payroll file)
299
What is the retention time for the following file(s):
job related injury or illness
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 30 years
c. 5 years - Selected Medical
300
What is the retention time for the following file(s):
Medical exam findings, toxic exposure records, blood borne pathogen exposure records
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 30 years
d. 30 years - Selected Medical
301
According to FMLA, Fair Labor Standards Act FLSA, the time limit for filing a claim can be up to ___ year(s) for a willful violation, therefore files pertaining to these laws should be kept for a minimum of ___year(s).
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
b. 3 years
302
According to Title VII of 1964 Civil Rights Act, Americans with Disabilities Act ADA, and Age Discrimination in Employment Act ADEA, record retention is ___ year(s) from term date
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
a. 1 year
303
To give power or authority to; Authorize, esp by legal means or official means
Empowerment
304
Those functions that the individual that holds the position must be able to perform unaided, or with the assistance of reasonable accommodation
Essential Functions
305
What the employee and employer anticipate receiving from the professional relationship. An employer may have performance expectations. An Employee has the expectation of wages for time worked.
Expectations
306
Tasks and responsibilities one must perform on a job
Job Duties
307
The consequences of being involved in something determined by law
Legal Implications
308
Specific set of systems or principles that guide the decision making process
Policy -
309
A fixed step by step sequence of activities or course of action, with start and end points, that must be followed in the same order to correctly perform a task.
Procedure
310
These are competencies required of the position or could be learned through training ie: IVC placement, administering vaccines
Hard Skills
311
These are competencies that cannot be taught and are generally developed in individuals as they mature. Ie; strong work ethic, leadership abilities.
Soft Skills
312
All job descriptions should contain the following:
a. Position Title
b. Work place safety hazards
c. Summary of position
d. List of duties and responsibilities
e. Benefits
a. Position Title
c. Summary of position
d. List of duties and responsibilities
313
True / False
All employees are expected to perform work in the best interest of the practice even if it requires them to perform duties not listed in their job description
True
314
True / False
Job descriptions are required by law.
False
Job descriptions are not required by law. But, they can be helpful in avoiding lawsuits, discrimination allegations and some unemployment claims
315
True / False
If a candidate is unable to perform the essential duties within job descriptions with reasonable accommodations, they can be deemed unqualified
True
316
In a case where a candidate is well qualified but due to a disability, may need special accommodations to fulfill the role. Would the practice be required to make these reasonable qualifications
Most likely, yes.
317
Engaged employees are usually seeking more than new tasks, they want more:
a. Money
b. Time off
c. Direction
d. Responsibility
d. Responsibility
318
What are the 3 manuals every hospital must have?
1. Employee Manual
2. Hospital operations and procedures Manual
3. Safety - OSHA
319
True / False
A court may consider a manual to be a contractual agreement, even when a signed contract does not exist
True
320
Which manual do these items belong in?
Practice Mission, Vision and Values
Laws of Importance: ADA, EEOC, FMLA, Sexual Harassment Policy, Pregnancy Safety and Confidentiality
Define FT vs PT
Employment Policies; Appearance, dress code, code of conduct, social media policy, drug free workplace
Compensation; OT, personnel records, payroll schedule
Benefits offered
Noncompete agreement
a. Employee Manual
b. Hospital Operations and Procedures Manual
c. Safety Manual
a. Employee Manual
321
Which manual do these items belong in?
Jury duty
Training procedures
Safety
Termination
Signature page
What should employees know about your hospital
Expected conduct from employees
Rules to follow
a. Employee Manual
b. Hospital Operations and Procedures Manual
c. Safety Manual
a. Employee Manual
322
Which manual do these items belong in?
detailed manual that describes the specific processes and systems that a company uses to produce goods and provide services
An authoritative guide as to how things are done at the practice
Contain items such as; where to find things, how and when to perform certain tasks and duties, what to to in the event of an emergency
Checklists to improve and maintain patient care, customer service, work safety and other standards
Service as a single point of reference for all important company information
a. Employee Manual
b. Hospital Operations and Procedures Manual
c. Safety Manual
b. Hospital Operations and Procedures Manual
323
Which manual do these items belong in?
a written plan on how they comply with OSHA Hazard Communication Standard
the “Right to Know” Law. Which states the employee has the right to know and be informed of any and all potential workplace hazards in order to make a decision about what risks are acceptable to them
a. Employee Manual
b. Hospital Operations and Procedures Manual
c. Safety Manual
c. Safety Manual
324
True / False
If a procedure is not performed in your practice, like chemo, it does not need be listed in the Safety manual
False
Even if a procedure is not performed in your practice, like chemo, it should still be listed in the manual with a disclaimer that the procedure is not performed in your facility
325
A specific amount set aside per employee to be spent on CE expenses
CE Allowance
326
A measure used in CE programs that are earned upon completion of that program
CE Credit
327
A written policy, typically in Employee Handbook/Manual, that includes, but not limited to, details on what courses are acceptable, expenses that will and will not be reimbursed, and the process for scheduling
CE Policy
328
a written policy that outlines what forms to use, when to submit them, the need to retain all receipts and when the reimbursement will be made
Expense reimbursement Policy
329
CE Provided by or within the organization
In-House CE
330
Making the commitment, completing the paperwork and payment for a CE class, webinar, conference, or other form of delivery for CE
Registration
331
A program that develops and applies uniform standards related to providers and programs of CE in Vet med
Registry of Approved Continuing Education - RACE
332
True / False
The practice can write off staff license fees at the end of year taxes
True
333
Federal Retention Laws for applicant documents such as resumes and employment applications should be kept for 1 year unless the applicant is over ___ years old, then it is recommended to keep records for 2 years.
a. 21 years
b. 40 years
c. 50 years
d. 62 years
b. 40 years
334
True / False
In order to conduct a working interview, the candidate must be on the practices payroll and earn at least minimum wage
True
335
In order to conduct a working interview, the candidate must be eligible to work in the US and covered under workers compensation
True
336
This is the measure of results the candidate has achieved in the past and is likely to achieve in the future.
Impact
337
the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience.
Potential
338
What tool is used to compare candidates equally and consistently, especially if there are multiple members of the management team interviewing candidates for the same position.
A rating scale
339
True / False
Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful with hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make it to the final hiring pool to choose from
A. False – Background checks should only be made after a contingent employment offer has been made.
340
The ____________ and ______________ of the practice help define the core competencies that should be expected of employees.
Mission and Values
341
In the 70/20/10 Learning and Development Model; define the elements involved.
70% of learning within an organization should come from on the job training.
20% from coaching and mentoring.
10% from actual courses, lectures, and formal training
342
When it comes to staff scheduling __________ is one of the most desired employee benefits; therefore it is an important component in staff morale, productivity and retention
a. Responsibility
b. Flexibility
c. Time off
d. Split Scheduling
b. Flexibility
343
Ultimately the _____________ is responsible for the efficiency, function and flow of the practice.
a. the owner
b. the manager
c. leadership team
d. department heads
b. Manager
344
Veterinary Staff Ratio, Veterinary Production, Team Member Production, and Staff Payroll Percentages are 4 of the Key Factors involved in considering when to hire, what is the 5th Key Factor?
a. Percent of gross profit increase per quarter.
b. Liabilities as a percent of gross.
c. Square footage of building per DVM.
d. Hospital work flow.
d. Hospital work flow.
345
_________ refers to the degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure.
a. Validity
b. Tenability
c. Reliability
a. Validity
346
A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?
a. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.
b. To advise a candidate they will not be hired due to details revealed in the pre-employment background check.
c. To request further detail/clarification on the candidate from the background investigation company when considering not hiring a candidate due to details on the initial background check.
a. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.
347
When it comes to enhancing employee productivity, which of the below answers is NOT one of the suggestions?
a. Engage and Empower.
b. Personal Focus.
c. Accountability and Acceptance
d. Performance Standards
c. Accountability and Acceptance
348
When it comes to Individual Development Plans; what are the three main details that should be addressed?
a. Coaching, Training, Accountability.
b. Coaching, Training, Career Development
c. Development, Training, Career Management.
c. Development, Training, Career Management.
349
On-board with EASE stands for Encouragement, Align, Solve, and ________.
a. Elevate.
b. End.
c. Endorse.
d. Embrace.
b. End
350
A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered?
a. Ten Minute Flex
b. High Density
c. Concurrent
b. High Density
351
Regarding the practice client schedule; what is the definition of an emergency?
a. Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client.
b. When the patient is triaged and determined to take priority over other patients.
c. Where the client arrives without an appointment for a legitimate patient concern.
a. Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client.
352
Your practice has decided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice, what are the risks associated with that Bonding Philosophy (multiple Choice)?
a. The clients may not like all the doctors
b. Lack of continuity of patient care.
c. Doctors find it an unrewarding way to practice.
a. The clients may not like all the doctors
b. Lack of continuity of patient care.
353
When empowering a team member, it is important to define the task/tasks with clarity. Which part of the SMART System will do that?
a. Specific
b. Agreed
c. Realistic
a. Specific
354
When it comes to management of daily work assignments ______________ and ___________ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice.
a. Delegation and Instruction.
b. Delegation and Empowerment.
c. Delegation and Responsibility.
b. Delegation and Empowerment.
355
The Benefits of Cross-Training include (Multiple choice);
a. Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice, grows.
b. When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
c. Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.
a. Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice, grows.
b. When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
c. Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.
356
True or False
Staff meetings are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products, but they rarely show a financial return on investment.
False – Well done staff meetings raise practice benchmarks, thereby providing for total quality management, increased profits and improved compliance with staff recommendations and client acceptance.
357
What are some ways to engage team members at a staff meeting? (Multiple choice)?
a. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
b. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
c. Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
d. Learning games or ice breaker exercises
a. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
b. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
c. Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
d. Learning games or ice breaker exercises
358
True/ False
Training meetings should be 20 – 40 minutes long for attendees to remain engaged.
False
359
Employee Performance Reviews should include (multiple choice);
a. Conversations about wage and compensation structure.
b. Clarity about goals and direction
c. Addressing team member accomplishments
d. Address concerns over policy and procedures
b. Clarity about goals and direction
c. Addressing team member accomplishments
d. Address concerns over policy and procedures
360
One potential employee performance review pitfall is _____________.
a. Managements pre-conceived ideas or expectations.
b. Measuring the trivial.
c. Not giving the employee all the time they need to discuss their concerns.
b. Measuring the trivial.
361
Which element below is NOT included in the A B C D E F Formula?
a. Accountability
b. Decision Confirmed
c. Consequences
a. Accountability
362
Avoidance of the other person(s), personal attacks, hurtful gossip, barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice?
a. Vague guidelines/policies regarding conflict resolution.
b. Symptoms of conflict within the practice.
c. Lack of accountability and leadership.
b. Symptoms of conflict within the practice.
363
What are the top 3 that cause conflict in the workplace environment?
a. Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication.
b. Lack of diversity, lack of training, lack of accountability.
c. Lack of communication, lack of training, lack of accountability.
a. Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication.
364
After meeting with two team members who are experiencing conflict and you have told them that you have confidence in them to find a solution, how much time do you give them before you meet again to hear their solution?
a. One week.
b. One or two days.
c. By the end of the day.
b. One or two days.
365
In what type of employment relationship can an employee only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason (some examples are misconduct, negligence or theft)?
a. Justified action.
b. Just grounds.
c. Just cause.
c. Just cause.
366
Do not misrepresent the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employee’s propensity for violence, or illegal behavior in order to avoid liability claims of _______________.
a. Negligent referral.
b. Derelict referral.
c. Adverse referral.
a. Negligent referral.
367
True / False
An employment contract that details a specific length of employment is an exception to At Will employment.
True
368
It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and __________________ can help facilitate this
a. Agendas
b. Managers
c. Facilitators
d. Timers
a. Agendas
369
Employee performance reviews should be developed from the
a. Handbook
b. Job Description
c. Perspective of employee
b. Job Description
370
What are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review?
a. Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes.
b. Teach all employees to identify, deploy and develop their strengths.
c. Align all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying and developing employee strengths.
d. Design and build each role to create world class performers in the role.
all of the above
371
The most successful employee performance review programs typically combine what four elements?
a. Regular informal feedback from supervisors.
b. Performance goals that are set by the employee and the supervisor.
c. Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems.
d. Formal reviews that document the “Big Picture”.
All
372
Which plans are a blend of Fee For Service and HMO medical plans. They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network.
a. Point of service plan.
b. Managed care plan.
c. Preferred provider organization plan.
c.PPO Preferred Provider Organizaion
373
Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer;
a. Health Savings Account
b. Flexible Spending Account.
b. Flexible Spending Account.
374
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty.
a. 20 full time employees.
b. 50 full time employees
c. 50 total (part time/full time) employees.
b. 50 full time employees
375
Why are employee medical documents stored separately from their main personnel file?
a. While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records.
b. The ADA and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately.
c. Both A & B
d. Neither A or B
c. Both A and B
376
Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed;
a. With the payroll records.
b. With the main employment records.
c. Either location is acceptable.
d. Neither location is acceptable.
d. Neither location is acceptable.
377
Which entity or entities require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately (Multiple Choice).
a. The Internal Revenue Code
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
d. All the above.
a. The Internal Revenue Code
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
378
At the core of any safety plan or manual is the _____________ law.
a. OSHA Act
b. Workplace Safety and Health
c. Right to Know
c. Right to Know
379
True / False
A section on Chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary Health Safety Manual regardless of whether that practice performs chemotherapy.
a. True
380
One way to begin to create an Operations and Procedure Manual is to refer to the _________ of the practice.
a. Job descriptions.
b. Tasks check lists.
c. Health safety manual.
a. Job descriptions.
381
Which statement is NOT tru regarding the Americans with Disabilities Act?
a. It dose not permit employers to ask employees about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability
b. It applies to employers who have 15 or more employees
c. It prohibits the discrimination against any qualified person with a disability
d. It covers employees who require a position to be created for them to stay employed
d. It covers employees who require a position to be created for them to stay employed
Title I of the ADA prohibits employers covered under the Act from discriminating against any qualified person with a disability in relation to practically every aspect of the employment relationship. Under the ADA, an employer may not ask employees about the existence, nature or severity of a disability.The las applies to employers who have 15 or more employees
382
When it comes to the decision to offer retail goods as a revenue center, the decision will depend entirely on three key characteristics fo the practice. Those characteristics are Image, Space, and what else?
a. Budget
b. Vision
c. Brand
d. Market Segmentation
b. Vision
383
When team members suspect that a co-worker has problems with drugs or alcohol and choose to become involved in encouraging a lifestyle change, an intervention is the first step. What are the four steps of drug intervention?
a. Thorough planning, private setting, pre-planned boundaries, specific timeframe
b. Involve an addiction professional, be specific, create a goal and a results documented timeline, maintain professional boundaries
c. Time the intervention for when the addict is not impaired, be specific, state the consequences, listen
d. Have more than one supervisor/manager present, have pre-determined scripts to avoid personal tangents, hold the intervention in a confidential manner and location, have management seated closest to the doorway
c. Time the intervention fro when the addict is not impaired, be specific, stated the consequences, listen
384
What factors are considered in determining accrued sick time policies?
a. The number of sick days taken per year by employees and if sick time rolls over to the next year
b. the length of service before accrual begins and the accrual rate
c. If unused sick time is paid out after termination or resignation and the accrual rate
d. If employees are covered by FMLS and the number of hours worked per week
b. the length of service before accrual begins and the accrual rate
385
What is customer Experience Management (CEM)
a. A plan for reputation management in the marketing strategy
b. A planned survey process for client satisfaction
c. A process of gathering data about client preferences
d. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable
d. A process of creating an experience that is positive and memorable
386
Individual Development Plans are documents created by
a. The employee with input of their managers
b. The employee's direct supervisor and the practice manager
c. The employee for use as a goal setting agreement with management
d. The employee's direct supervisor or the practice manager when the employee's performance is unacceptable and performance goals must be clarified and timelines for improvement must be agreed upon
a. The employee with input of their managers
387
When is conducting a background check on an applicant permissible?
a. When the applicant has signed the application for employment
b. When the applicant has been hired
c. When the applicant has given explicit permission
d. When the applicant has submitted an application
c. When the applicant has given explicit permission
388
How frequently should staff meeting be held?
a. Weekly as time permits
b. Whenever there is a problem to address
c. On a regular basis
d. Once a month for general interest meetings
c. On a regular basis
389
What are the 12 C's of Team Building?
Clear Expectations
Context
Commitment
Competence
Character
Control
Collaboration
Communication
Creative Innovation
Consequences
Coordination
Cultural Change
390
David Pink defines motivation as "the desire to do things because they matter". However, three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?
1. Autonomy
2. Mastery
3. Purpose
391
Whether an individual is classified as an employee or an independent contractor is an important factor in determining the responsibilities of your practice under a variety of acts and regulations, and one of those is the Fair Labor and Standards Act. One test the FLSA may use in determining an employee from an independent contractor is called the Economic Realities Test. This test turns on whether the individual is economically dependent on the business for which it renders service.
What six factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the Economic-Realities Test under the FLSA?
1. The degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual's work performance
2. The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used
3. The individual's opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill
4. The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weigh toward employee status
5. The permanence of the relationship
6. The extent to which the worker's services are an integral part of the practice.
392
In regards to changing organizational culture; there are five key steps in making a culture change within a practice. What are those five steps, and of those five steps, which step states (among other things) that "the bottom line is that if a leader wants to create a different culture within the hospital, the leader has to go first"?
Define the culture
Align behaviors with the desired culture
Commit to the change
Support the Shift
Grow the Team
Commit to the Change contains the statement that to create a different culture the leader has to go first.
