Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Flashcards
1
Q
The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi:
a. Phenol number
b. Phenol coefficient
c. Phenol value
d. None of the above
A
b. Phenol coefficient
2
Q
The generic name of Nizoral:
a. Meconazole
b. Clotrimazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Potassium sorbate
A
c. Ketoconazole
3
Q
Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
a. Mafenide
b. Silver sulfadiazine
c. both a and b
d. none of the preceeding
A
c. both a and b
4
Q
The following are preservatives except:
a. undecylenic acid
b. Methyl paraben
c. benzoic acid
d. potassium sorbate
A
a. undecylenic acid
5
Q
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
a. clotrimazole
b. miconazole
c. co-trimoxazole
d. cotrimazine
A
c. co-trimoxazole
6
Q
A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
a. Griseofulvin
b. Nystatin
c. Salicylic acid
d. Econazole
A
b. Nystatin
7
Q
Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Oxacillin
d. Ampicillin
A
a. Penicillin G
8
Q
First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
a. salicylic acid
b. Griseofulvin
c. Norfloxacin
d. Nalidixic acid
A
d. Nalidixic acid
9
Q
A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin
b. Pipemedic acid
c. Methenamine
d. none of the above
A
a. Norfloxacin
10
Q
Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol
b. Rifampin
c. Isoniazid
d. Streptomycin
A
d. Streptomycin
11
Q
These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
a. Tinidazole
b. Chloroquine
c. Etofamide
d. Metronidazole
A
b. Chloroquine
12
Q
A fourth generation cephalosphorins:
a. Cefaloxin
b. Cefepime
c. Cefamandole
d. Cefuroxime
A
b. Cefepime
13
Q
This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
a. Zidovudine
b. Chloroquine
c. Acyclovir
d. Metronidazole
A
c. Acyclovir
14
Q
The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Lincomycin
c. Penicillin
d. Cephalosporins
A
a. Chloramphenicol
15
Q
The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Lincomycin
d. Clindamycin
A
d. Clindamycin
16
Q
The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics
b. chemotherapy
c. organic chemistry
d. biochemistry
A
b. chemotherapy
17
Q
Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant
b. fungicides
c. antiseptics
d. systemic anti-infectives
A
c. antiseptics
18
Q
A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Povidone-Iodine
b. Strong I2 solution
c. Iodine Tincture
d. I2 in KI solution
A
a. Povidone-Iodine
19
Q
The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride
A
d. Benzalkonium chloride
20
Q
Mechanism of action of quinolones:
a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals
A
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase
21
Q
Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
a. quinolines
b. biguanides
c. beta-lactams
d. quinolones
A
b. biguanides
22
Q
7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
a. clindamycin
b. roxithromycin
c. spectinomycin
d. ilotycin
A
a. clindamycin
23
Q
The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine
b. quinine
c. amodiaquine
d. cycloguanil
A
d. cycloguanil
24
Q
Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine
b. mefloquine
c. atabrine
d. daraprim
A
b. mefloquine
25
An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin
b. pentamidine
c. efflornithine
d. stibophen
b. pentamidine
26
Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin
b. azithromycin
c. lincomycin
d. ilotycin
a. clarithromycin
27
A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
a. Kantrex
b. Amikin
c. Garamycin
d. Nebcin
b. Amikin (Amikacin)
28
Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
a. ribavirin
b. rimantadine
c. gancyclovir
d. foscarnet
b. rimantadine
29
More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
a. levo
b. dextro
c. cis isomer
d. trans isomer
a. levo
30
These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim
b. sulfones
c. quinolones
d. none of the above
b. sulfones
31
Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake
d. decreased glucose uptake
32
This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
a. silvadene
b. sulfamylon
c. whitfield
d. vandol
b. sulfamylon
33
Drug of choice for filarial infections:
a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen
c. diethylcarbamazine
34
Active form of the sulfonamide:
a. non-ionized
b. ionized
c. amphoteric
d. oxo ring
b. ionized
35
Use of crotamiton:
a. pediculicide
b. scabicide
c.anthelmintic
d. antibacterial
b. scabicide
36
Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms
c. decreased glucose uptake
37
A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical
b. Gas-X
c. Apokinon
d. Adifax
d. Adifax
38
An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid
39
The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient
d, higher to lower concentration gradient
40
These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents
b. astringents
c. anti-motility
d. oresols
b. astringents
41
This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
a. meclizine
b. hyoscine
c. dimenhydrinate
d. celestamine
c. dimenhydrinate
42
The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
a. tolbutamide
b. haloperidol
c. nitroglycerine
d. DDT
a. tolbutamide
43
Fertility vitamins:
a. retinoic acid
b. riboflavin
c. alpha tocopherol
d. biotin
c. alpha tocopherol (Vitamin E)
44
Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
a. calcitonin
b. vitamin D2
c. vitamin D3
d. caltrate
c. Vitamin D3
45
A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
a. trichloroacetic acid
b. acetaldehyde
c. carbapenem ring
d. phenacetone
a. trichloroacetic acid
46
A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
a. lidocaine
b. sulfonamide
c. sulfonamide
d. thiamine
a. lidocaine
47
A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
a. Retin-A
b. Tegison
c. Accutane
d. Oilatum
b. Tegison
48
Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor
49
The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary
a. primary
50
Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
a. penicillenic acid
b. penicilloic acid
c. penicilloate Cl
d. pinecillic acid
a. penicillenic acid
51
Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride
b. glutarol
c. hexachlorophene
d. carbamoyl phosphate
b. glutarol
52
Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas
b. acid stability
c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria d. penicillinase resistance
b. acid stability
53
Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas b. acid stability
c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria d. penicillinase resistance
d. penicillinase resistance
54
A glycopeptide antibiotic:
a. beta-lactam
b. vancomycin
c. polymyxin
d. probenecid
b. vancomycin
55
A tumor is benign if:
a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
56
1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
a. 100,000 cancer cells
b. 1 billion cancer cells
c. 1 million cancer cells
d. none of the above
b. 1 billion cancer cells
57
The following are mucolytics, except:
a. bromhexine
b. acetylcysteine
c. caramiphen
d. none of the above
c. caramiphen
58
The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally
b. intravenously
c. via inhalation
d. rectally
c. via inhalation
59
A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen
b. depo-provera
c. flutamide
d. goserelin
b. depo-provera
60
Drug of choice for absence seizures:
a. carbamazepine
b. ethosuximide
c. phenytoin
d. primidone
b. ethosuximide
61
An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
a. aspartame
b. PCP
c. BHT
d. EDTA
c. BHT
62
Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B
b. aluminum reagent
c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
d. dimethylglyoxime
a. rhodomine B
63
Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide
b. tyloxapol
c. guaiafenesin
d. emetine
c. guaiafenesin
64
Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine
b. phenylethylamine
65
Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. halothane
b. enflurance
c. nitrous oxide
d. methoxyflurane
d. methoxyflurane
66
The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
a. Codeine
b. Avamigran
c. Litec
d. Inderal
b. Avamigran
67
Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
a. ketamine
b. thiopental
c. enflurane
d. none of the above
c. enflurane
68
Propionic acid derivative:
a. paracetamol
b. dipyrone
c. piroxicam
d. naproxen
d. naproxen
69
An example of iodophor:
a. iodine tincture
b. povidone-iodine
c. Lugol’s solution
d. all of the above
b. povidone-iodine
70
Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone
b. benzyl alcohol
c. phenylalcohol
d. carvacrol
b. benzyl alcohol
71
A characteristic of cancer cells:
a. lack of normal growth controls b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase
c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
d. None of the above
a. lack of normal growth controls
72
Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
a. polychlorinated biphenyls b. acesulfame
c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
d. none of the above
a. polychlorinated biphenyls
73
Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats
b. compound lipids
c. eicosanoids
d. all of the above
c. eicosanoids
74
Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a. imide
b. amide
c. amine
d. aniline
c. amine
75
Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
a. oral hypoglycemics
b. diuretics
c. anti-inflammatory
d. spasmolytic
a. oral hypoglycemics
76
A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
a. tocopherol
b. retinol
c. ergosterol
d. retinal
d. retinal
77
Paracetamol is a/an:
a. salicylate
b. pyrazolone
c. aniline derivative
d. azocine derivative
c. aniline derivative
78
All of the following are progestins except:
a. norethindrone
b. testosterone
c. ethynodiol diacetate
d. progesterone
b. testosterone
79
Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
a. codeine
b. methadone
c. heroin
d. pentazocine
c. heroin
80
The functional group in pyridoxine is:
a. alcohol
b. amine
c. carboxylic acid
d. ketone
a. alcohol
81
Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
a. enols
b. esters
c. ethers
d. amines
a. enols
82
MAO is classified as a/an:
a. protein inhibitor
b. complexing agent
c. enzyme
d. hormone
c. enzyme
83
When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant b. demelanizing agent
c. oil soluble antioxidant
d. emulsifying agent
c. oil soluble antioxidant
84
Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
a. nasal decongestants
b. analgesic
c. vasoconstrictor
d. bronchodilator
d. bronchodilator
85
Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
a. lidocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. bupivacaine
a. lidocaine
86
All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
a. erythromycin
b. oleandomycin
c. vancomycin
d. spiramycin
c. vancomycin
87
Ativan has this generic name:
a. triazolam
b. lorazepam
c. flurazepam
d. tranexamic acid
b. lorazepam
88
Plasil is:
a. acyclovir
b. metoclopramide
c. diclofenac sodium
d. tranexamic acid
b. metoclopramide
89
The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
a. methyl salicylate
b. acetyl chloride
c. salicylic acid
d. salicylamide
c. salicylic acid
90
Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
a. short acting
b. intermediate acting
c. long acting
d. ultra short acting
d. ultra short acting
91
Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?
a. enzymes
b. porphyrins
c. proteins
d. lipids
d. lipids
92
The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility b. renal excretion
c. plasma binding
d. method of administration
a. lipid solubility
93
The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
a. nalorphine
b. naloxone
c. levallorphan
d. meperidine
b. naloxone
94
Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
a. derived from mushroom b. a parasympathetic drug
c. histamine analog
d. ergot derivative
d. ergot derivative
95
Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. acetic acid
b. salicylic acid
c. oxalic acid
d. citric acid
b. salicylic acid
96
Diamox has a generic name of:
a. allopurinol
b. acetazolamide
c. dimethylxanthine
d. theophylline
b. acetazolamide
97
Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. dilantin
b. codeine
c. meperidine
d. naloxone
c. meperidine
98
Cevitamic acid is:
a. folic acid
b. ascorbic acid
c. nicotinic acid
d. glacial acetic acid
b. ascorbic acid
99
Chloroquine is the generic name of:
a. atabrine
b. artane
c. aralen
d. akineton
c. aralen
100
Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
a. penicillins
b. cephalosphorins
c. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides
d. aminoglycosides
101
Epinephrine is also known as:
a. tocopherol
b. adrenaline
c. emetine
d. levarterenol
b. adrenaline
102
1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
a. caffeine
b. theobromine
c. theophylline
d. aminophylline
c. theophylline
103
Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V
b. methicillin
c. carbenicillin
d. oxacillin
c. carbenicillin
104
Zantac is:
a. cimetidine
b. famotidine
c. ranitidine
d. nizatidine
c. ranitidine
105
Cytotec is:
a. sucralfate
b. misoprostol
c. omeprazole
d. pirenzepine
b. misoprostol
106
Ma huang is a/an:
a. imidazole alkaloid
b. alkaloidal amine
c. purine
d. steroidal alkaloid
b. alkaloidal amine
107
Procaine is a/an:
a. amine
b. ester
c. alcohol
d. ketone
b. ester
108
The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:
a. amine
b. alcohol
c. ester
d. ether
d. ether
109
Aureomycin is:
a. kanamycin
b. erythromycin
c. chlortetracycline
d. oxytetracycline
c. chlortetracycline
110
Bonamine is:
a. meclizine
b. dramamine
c. scopolamine
d. aspirin
a. meclizine
111
Polyene antibiotics include:
I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
c. I and II
112
Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine
b. theophylline
c. theobromine
d. all of the above
a. caffeine
113
polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a. starch
b. insulin
c. dextrose
d. dextran
d. dextran
114
The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a. an androgen and a progestin b. an estrogen and progestin
c. an androgen and an estrogen
d. FSH and LH
b. an estrogen and progestin
115
Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
a. wax
b. silicone
c. sulfur
d. ketone
b. silicone
116
An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a. acetic acid
b. lactic acid
c. tartaric acid
d. citric acid
c. tartaric acid
117
This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines
b. codeine
c. apomorphine
d. Demerol
d. Demerol
118
Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a. cinnamon oil
b. bitter almond oil
c. corn oil
d. rose oil
b. bitter almond oil
119
The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:
a. benzene ring
b. B-lactam ring
c. thiazole ring
d. phenothiazone
b. B-lactam ring
120
Retin-A is:
a. allantoin
b. adapalene
c. tretinoin
d. benzoyl peroxide
c. tretinoin
121
Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
a. amobarbital
b. Phenobarbital
c. pentobarbital
d. secobarbital
a. amobarbital
122
Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast b. collagen formation
c. reduction of inflammation
d. epithelial proliferation
collagen formation
123
CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
a. Methacarbamol, USP
b. Carisoprodol, USP
c. Baclofen
d. Buspirone
e. Meprobamate
d. Buspirone
124
The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel
b. Herplex
c. Acyclovir
d. Vidarabine
c. Acyclovir
125
The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes:
a. primaquine
b. pyrimethamine
c. quinacrine
d. chloroquine
a. primaquine
