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PACOP 4 (Green) Module 1 > Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry > Flashcards

Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi:
a. Phenol number
b. Phenol coefficient
c. Phenol value
d. None of the above

A

b. Phenol coefficient

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2
Q

The generic name of Nizoral:
a. Meconazole
b. Clotrimazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Potassium sorbate

A

c. Ketoconazole

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3
Q

Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
a. Mafenide
b. Silver sulfadiazine
c. both a and b
d. none of the preceeding

A

c. both a and b

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4
Q

The following are preservatives except:
a. undecylenic acid
b. Methyl paraben
c. benzoic acid
d. potassium sorbate

A

a. undecylenic acid

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5
Q

The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
a. clotrimazole
b. miconazole
c. co-trimoxazole
d. cotrimazine

A

c. co-trimoxazole

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6
Q

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
a. Griseofulvin
b. Nystatin
c. Salicylic acid
d. Econazole

A

b. Nystatin

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7
Q

Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Oxacillin
d. Ampicillin

A

a. Penicillin G

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8
Q

First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
a. salicylic acid
b. Griseofulvin
c. Norfloxacin
d. Nalidixic acid

A

d. Nalidixic acid

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9
Q

A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin
b. Pipemedic acid
c. Methenamine
d. none of the above

A

a. Norfloxacin

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10
Q

Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol
b. Rifampin
c. Isoniazid
d. Streptomycin

A

d. Streptomycin

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11
Q

These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
a. Tinidazole
b. Chloroquine
c. Etofamide
d. Metronidazole

A

b. Chloroquine

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12
Q

A fourth generation cephalosphorins:
a. Cefaloxin
b. Cefepime
c. Cefamandole
d. Cefuroxime

A

b. Cefepime

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13
Q

This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
a. Zidovudine
b. Chloroquine
c. Acyclovir
d. Metronidazole

A

c. Acyclovir

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14
Q

The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Lincomycin
c. Penicillin
d. Cephalosporins

A

a. Chloramphenicol

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15
Q

The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Lincomycin
d. Clindamycin

A

d. Clindamycin

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16
Q

The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics
b. chemotherapy
c. organic chemistry
d. biochemistry

A

b. chemotherapy

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17
Q

Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant
b. fungicides
c. antiseptics
d. systemic anti-infectives

A

c. antiseptics

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18
Q

A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Povidone-Iodine
b. Strong I2 solution
c. Iodine Tincture
d. I2 in KI solution

A

a. Povidone-Iodine

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19
Q

The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride

A

d. Benzalkonium chloride

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20
Q

Mechanism of action of quinolones:
a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals

A

b. inhibition of DNA gyrase

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21
Q

Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
a. quinolines
b. biguanides
c. beta-lactams
d. quinolones

A

b. biguanides

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22
Q

7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
a. clindamycin
b. roxithromycin
c. spectinomycin
d. ilotycin

A

a. clindamycin

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23
Q

The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine
b. quinine
c. amodiaquine
d. cycloguanil

A

d. cycloguanil

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24
Q

Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine
b. mefloquine
c. atabrine
d. daraprim

A

b. mefloquine

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25
Q

An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin
b. pentamidine
c. efflornithine
d. stibophen

A

b. pentamidine

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26
Q

Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin
b. azithromycin
c. lincomycin
d. ilotycin

A

a. clarithromycin

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27
Q

A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
a. Kantrex
b. Amikin
c. Garamycin
d. Nebcin

A

b. Amikin (Amikacin)

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28
Q

Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
a. ribavirin
b. rimantadine
c. gancyclovir
d. foscarnet

A

b. rimantadine

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29
Q

More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
a. levo
b. dextro
c. cis isomer
d. trans isomer

A

a. levo

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30
Q

These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim
b. sulfones
c. quinolones
d. none of the above

A

b. sulfones

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31
Q

Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake

A

d. decreased glucose uptake

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32
Q

This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
a. silvadene
b. sulfamylon
c. whitfield
d. vandol

A

b. sulfamylon

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33
Q

Drug of choice for filarial infections:
a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen

A

c. diethylcarbamazine

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34
Q

Active form of the sulfonamide:
a. non-ionized
b. ionized
c. amphoteric
d. oxo ring

A

b. ionized

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35
Q

Use of crotamiton:
a. pediculicide
b. scabicide
c.anthelmintic
d. antibacterial

A

b. scabicide

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36
Q

Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms

A

c. decreased glucose uptake

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37
Q

A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical
b. Gas-X
c. Apokinon
d. Adifax

A

d. Adifax

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38
Q

An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

A

b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid

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39
Q

The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

A

d, higher to lower concentration gradient

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40
Q

These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents
b. astringents
c. anti-motility
d. oresols

A

b. astringents

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41
Q

This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
a. meclizine
b. hyoscine
c. dimenhydrinate
d. celestamine

A

c. dimenhydrinate

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42
Q

The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
a. tolbutamide
b. haloperidol
c. nitroglycerine
d. DDT

A

a. tolbutamide

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43
Q

Fertility vitamins:
a. retinoic acid
b. riboflavin
c. alpha tocopherol
d. biotin

A

c. alpha tocopherol (Vitamin E)

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44
Q

Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
a. calcitonin
b. vitamin D2
c. vitamin D3
d. caltrate

A

c. Vitamin D3

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45
Q

A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
a. trichloroacetic acid
b. acetaldehyde
c. carbapenem ring
d. phenacetone

A

a. trichloroacetic acid

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46
Q

A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
a. lidocaine
b. sulfonamide
c. sulfonamide
d. thiamine

A

a. lidocaine

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47
Q

A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
a. Retin-A
b. Tegison
c. Accutane
d. Oilatum

A

b. Tegison

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48
Q

Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

A

b. ability to bind on a specific receptor

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49
Q

The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

A

a. primary

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50
Q

Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
a. penicillenic acid
b. penicilloic acid
c. penicilloate Cl
d. pinecillic acid

A

a. penicillenic acid

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51
Q

Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride
b. glutarol
c. hexachlorophene
d. carbamoyl phosphate

A

b. glutarol

52
Q

Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas
b. acid stability
c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria d. penicillinase resistance

A

b. acid stability

53
Q

Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas b. acid stability
c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria d. penicillinase resistance

A

d. penicillinase resistance

54
Q

A glycopeptide antibiotic:
a. beta-lactam
b. vancomycin
c. polymyxin
d. probenecid

A

b. vancomycin

55
Q

A tumor is benign if:
a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures

A

c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur

56
Q

1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
a. 100,000 cancer cells
b. 1 billion cancer cells
c. 1 million cancer cells
d. none of the above

A

b. 1 billion cancer cells

57
Q

The following are mucolytics, except:
a. bromhexine
b. acetylcysteine
c. caramiphen
d. none of the above

A

c. caramiphen

58
Q

The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally
b. intravenously
c. via inhalation
d. rectally

A

c. via inhalation

59
Q

A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen
b. depo-provera
c. flutamide
d. goserelin

A

b. depo-provera

60
Q

Drug of choice for absence seizures:
a. carbamazepine
b. ethosuximide
c. phenytoin
d. primidone

A

b. ethosuximide

61
Q

An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
a. aspartame
b. PCP
c. BHT
d. EDTA

A

c. BHT

62
Q

Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B
b. aluminum reagent
c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
d. dimethylglyoxime

A

a. rhodomine B

63
Q

Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide
b. tyloxapol
c. guaiafenesin
d. emetine

A

c. guaiafenesin

64
Q

Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine

A

b. phenylethylamine

65
Q

Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. halothane
b. enflurance
c. nitrous oxide
d. methoxyflurane

A

d. methoxyflurane

66
Q

The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
a. Codeine
b. Avamigran
c. Litec
d. Inderal

A

b. Avamigran

67
Q

Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
a. ketamine
b. thiopental
c. enflurane
d. none of the above

A

c. enflurane

68
Q

Propionic acid derivative:
a. paracetamol
b. dipyrone
c. piroxicam
d. naproxen

A

d. naproxen

69
Q

An example of iodophor:
a. iodine tincture
b. povidone-iodine
c. Lugol’s solution
d. all of the above

A

b. povidone-iodine

70
Q

Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone
b. benzyl alcohol
c. phenylalcohol
d. carvacrol

A

b. benzyl alcohol

71
Q

A characteristic of cancer cells:
a. lack of normal growth controls b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase
c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
d. None of the above

A

a. lack of normal growth controls

72
Q

Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
a. polychlorinated biphenyls b. acesulfame
c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
d. none of the above

A

a. polychlorinated biphenyls

73
Q

Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats
b. compound lipids
c. eicosanoids
d. all of the above

A

c. eicosanoids

74
Q

Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a. imide
b. amide
c. amine
d. aniline

A

c. amine

75
Q

Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
a. oral hypoglycemics
b. diuretics
c. anti-inflammatory
d. spasmolytic

A

a. oral hypoglycemics

76
Q

A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
a. tocopherol
b. retinol
c. ergosterol
d. retinal

A

d. retinal

77
Q

Paracetamol is a/an:
a. salicylate
b. pyrazolone
c. aniline derivative
d. azocine derivative

A

c. aniline derivative

78
Q

All of the following are progestins except:
a. norethindrone
b. testosterone
c. ethynodiol diacetate
d. progesterone

A

b. testosterone

79
Q

Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
a. codeine
b. methadone
c. heroin
d. pentazocine

A

c. heroin

80
Q

The functional group in pyridoxine is:
a. alcohol
b. amine
c. carboxylic acid
d. ketone

A

a. alcohol

81
Q

Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
a. enols
b. esters
c. ethers
d. amines

A

a. enols

82
Q

MAO is classified as a/an:
a. protein inhibitor
b. complexing agent
c. enzyme
d. hormone

A

c. enzyme

83
Q

When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant b. demelanizing agent
c. oil soluble antioxidant
d. emulsifying agent

A

c. oil soluble antioxidant

84
Q

Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
a. nasal decongestants
b. analgesic
c. vasoconstrictor
d. bronchodilator

A

d. bronchodilator

85
Q

Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
a. lidocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. bupivacaine

A

a. lidocaine

86
Q

All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
a. erythromycin
b. oleandomycin
c. vancomycin
d. spiramycin

A

c. vancomycin

87
Q

Ativan has this generic name:
a. triazolam
b. lorazepam
c. flurazepam
d. tranexamic acid

A

b. lorazepam

88
Q

Plasil is:
a. acyclovir
b. metoclopramide
c. diclofenac sodium
d. tranexamic acid

A

b. metoclopramide

89
Q

The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
a. methyl salicylate
b. acetyl chloride
c. salicylic acid
d. salicylamide

A

c. salicylic acid

90
Q

Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
a. short acting
b. intermediate acting
c. long acting
d. ultra short acting

A

d. ultra short acting

91
Q

Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?
a. enzymes
b. porphyrins
c. proteins
d. lipids

A

d. lipids

92
Q

The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility b. renal excretion
c. plasma binding
d. method of administration

A

a. lipid solubility

93
Q

The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
a. nalorphine
b. naloxone
c. levallorphan
d. meperidine

A

b. naloxone

94
Q

Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
a. derived from mushroom b. a parasympathetic drug
c. histamine analog
d. ergot derivative

A

d. ergot derivative

95
Q

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. acetic acid
b. salicylic acid
c. oxalic acid
d. citric acid

A

b. salicylic acid

96
Q

Diamox has a generic name of:
a. allopurinol
b. acetazolamide
c. dimethylxanthine
d. theophylline

A

b. acetazolamide

97
Q

Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. dilantin
b. codeine
c. meperidine
d. naloxone

A

c. meperidine

98
Q

Cevitamic acid is:
a. folic acid
b. ascorbic acid
c. nicotinic acid
d. glacial acetic acid

A

b. ascorbic acid

99
Q

Chloroquine is the generic name of:
a. atabrine
b. artane
c. aralen
d. akineton

A

c. aralen

100
Q

Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
a. penicillins
b. cephalosphorins
c. macrolides
d. aminoglycosides

A

d. aminoglycosides

101
Q

Epinephrine is also known as:
a. tocopherol
b. adrenaline
c. emetine
d. levarterenol

A

b. adrenaline

102
Q

1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
a. caffeine
b. theobromine
c. theophylline
d. aminophylline

A

c. theophylline

103
Q

Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V
b. methicillin
c. carbenicillin
d. oxacillin

A

c. carbenicillin

104
Q

Zantac is:
a. cimetidine
b. famotidine
c. ranitidine
d. nizatidine

A

c. ranitidine

105
Q

Cytotec is:
a. sucralfate
b. misoprostol
c. omeprazole
d. pirenzepine

A

b. misoprostol

106
Q

Ma huang is a/an:
a. imidazole alkaloid
b. alkaloidal amine
c. purine
d. steroidal alkaloid

A

b. alkaloidal amine

107
Q

Procaine is a/an:
a. amine
b. ester
c. alcohol
d. ketone

A

b. ester

108
Q

The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:
a. amine
b. alcohol
c. ester
d. ether

A

d. ether

109
Q

Aureomycin is:
a. kanamycin
b. erythromycin
c. chlortetracycline
d. oxytetracycline

A

c. chlortetracycline

110
Q

Bonamine is:
a. meclizine
b. dramamine
c. scopolamine
d. aspirin

A

a. meclizine

111
Q

Polyene antibiotics include:
I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III

A

c. I and II

112
Q

Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine
b. theophylline
c. theobromine
d. all of the above

A

a. caffeine

113
Q

polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a. starch
b. insulin
c. dextrose
d. dextran

A

d. dextran

114
Q

The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a. an androgen and a progestin b. an estrogen and progestin
c. an androgen and an estrogen
d. FSH and LH

A

b. an estrogen and progestin

115
Q

Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
a. wax
b. silicone
c. sulfur
d. ketone

A

b. silicone

116
Q

An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a. acetic acid
b. lactic acid
c. tartaric acid
d. citric acid

A

c. tartaric acid

117
Q

This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines
b. codeine
c. apomorphine
d. Demerol

A

d. Demerol

118
Q

Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a. cinnamon oil
b. bitter almond oil
c. corn oil
d. rose oil

A

b. bitter almond oil

119
Q

The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:
a. benzene ring
b. B-lactam ring
c. thiazole ring
d. phenothiazone

A

b. B-lactam ring

120
Q

Retin-A is:
a. allantoin
b. adapalene
c. tretinoin
d. benzoyl peroxide

A

c. tretinoin

121
Q

Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
a. amobarbital
b. Phenobarbital
c. pentobarbital
d. secobarbital

A

a. amobarbital

122
Q

Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast b. collagen formation
c. reduction of inflammation
d. epithelial proliferation

A

collagen formation

123
Q

CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
a. Methacarbamol, USP
b. Carisoprodol, USP
c. Baclofen
d. Buspirone
e. Meprobamate

A

d. Buspirone

124
Q

The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel
b. Herplex
c. Acyclovir
d. Vidarabine

A

c. Acyclovir

125
Q

The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes:
a. primaquine
b. pyrimethamine
c. quinacrine
d. chloroquine

A

a. primaquine

PACOP 4 (Green) Module 1 (2 decks)

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