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CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN > ORGANIC CHEMISRTRY REVIEWER > Flashcards

ORGANIC CHEMISRTRY REVIEWER Flashcards

1
Q

Chromatography is the process for identification, purification, and separation of components of a mixture based on the basis of

A. Difference in their boiling point
B. Difference in their melting point
C. Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phase
D. Difference in their solubility

A

C. Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phase

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2
Q

Chromatography involves two mutually

A. Immiscible phases
B. Miscible phases
C. Soluble phases
D. None of the mentioned

A

A. Immiscible phases

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3
Q

There is no need of support if packed into a column when the stationary phase is

A. Gas
B. Liquid
C. Solid
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. Solid

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4
Q

Which of the following is not stationary phase?

A. Liquid-liquid chromatography
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Gas-solid chromatography
D. Solid-solid chromatography

A

D. Solid-solid chromatography

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5
Q

Liquid chromatography is a technique for separating

A. Ions that are not dissolved in a solvent
B. Ions that are dissolved in a solvent
C. Ions that are dissolved in a solute
D. All of the mentioned

A

B. Ions that are dissolved in a solvent

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6
Q

In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on

A. Molecular geometry and size
B. Molecular composition
C. Molecular phase
D. Molecular formula

A

A. Molecular geometry and size

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7
Q

The gas-solid chromatography is _________ chromatography as per basic principle involved.

A. Exclusion
B. Ion-exchange
C. Adsorption
D. Absorption

A

C. Adsorption

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8
Q

A proper solvent that is passed through the column for elution so that separated components can be collected is called

A. Adsorbent
B. Buffer solution
C. Mobile phase
D. None of the mentioned

A

B. Buffer solution

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9
Q

The relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the

A. Rate of movement of solvent
B. Rate of disappearance of solvent
C. Rate of movement of solute
D. Rate of disappearance of solute

A

C. Rate of movement of solute

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10
Q

If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute

A. boiling point
B. melting point
C. solubility
D. volatility

A

D. volatility

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11
Q

Column chromatography is based on the principle of

A. ion-exchange
B. exclusion principle
C. differential adsorption
D. absorption

A

C. differential adsorption

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12
Q

Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing adsorption tendencies

A. Cellulose&raquo_space; starch&raquo_space; calcium carbonate&raquo_space; alumina
B. Cellulose&raquo_space; starch&raquo_space; alumina&raquo_space; charcoal
C. Charcoal&raquo_space; cellulose&raquo_space; starch&raquo_space; alumina
D. Calcium carbonate&raquo_space; alumina&raquo_space; starch&raquo_space; Cellulose

A

A. Cellulose&raquo_space; starch&raquo_space; calcium carbonate&raquo_space; alumina

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13
Q

What is the factor responsible for the separation in column chromatography?

A. Polarity solvent
B. Polarity differences between the solutes
C. Polarity indifferences between the solvent
D. Polarity indifferences between the solutes

A

B. Polarity differences between the solutes

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14
Q

Select the correct statement from the following options.

A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
D. All of the mentioned

A

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

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15
Q

The correct order of increasing strength of adsorption is

A. Alkanes&raquo_space; Esters&raquo_space; Aldehydes&raquo_space; Phenols&raquo_space; Ketones
B. Aldehydes&raquo_space; Phenols&raquo_space; Ketones&raquo_space; Esters&raquo_space; Alkanes
C. Aldehydes&raquo_space; Ketones&raquo_space; Esters&raquo_space; Alkanes&raquo_space; Phenols
D. Alkanes&raquo_space; Esters&raquo_space; Ketones&raquo_space; Aldehydes&raquo_space; Phenols

A

D. Alkanes&raquo_space; Esters&raquo_space; Ketones&raquo_space; Aldehydes&raquo_space; Phenols

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16
Q

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of

A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

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17
Q

The elution power of a solvent is determined by

A. its over polarity
B. the polarity of the stationary phase
C. the nature of the sample components
D. all of the mentioned

A

D. all of the mentioned

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18
Q

Which of the following is separated through column chromatography?

A. Chlorophyll and carotenoids
B. Inorganic cations or complexes
C. Sugar derivatives
D. Amino acids formed by hydrolysis of a protein molecule

A

A. Chlorophyll and carotenoids

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19
Q

The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in the elution ratio of

A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:9
D. 1:12

A

C. 1:9

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20
Q

Chloroform fraction is eluted from the column by passing chloroform through the column which acts as

A. Eluter
B. Eluant
C. Elution
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. Elution

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21
Q

The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the

A. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees
B. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
D. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees

A

C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees

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22
Q

The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm

A

B. 0.2 mm

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23
Q

The Chroma plate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of

A. Glass
B. Wood
C. Fibre
D. Metal

A

A. Glass

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24
Q

The eluant filled in the closed jar is

A. Mixture of gases
B. Mixture of a liquid and a gas
C. Mixture of solid
D. Mixture of liquids

A

D. Mixture of liquids

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25
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following options.

A. The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes.
B. These spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light.
C. These spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
D. None of the mentioned

A

D. None of the mentioned

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26
Q

The relative adsorption of each component of the mixture is expressed in terms of its

A. Acceleration factor
B. Retardation factor
C. Both acceleration and retardation factor
D. None of the mentioned

A

B. Retardation factor

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27
Q

Select the correct statement from the following.

A. Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography.
B. A special quality paper is used in paper chromatography.
C. Chromatography paper contains water trapped in it, which acts as stationary phase
D. All the mentioned

A

D. All the mentioned

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28
Q

Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin solution is an example of

A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
D. Liquid chromatography

A

C. Paper chromatography

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29
Q

Paper chromatography is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases.

True
False

A

True

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30
Q

Retardation factor is the ratio of

A. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
B. Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
C. Distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line

A

A. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

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31
Q

What are the uses of partition chromatography?

A. Separation of amino acids
B. Analysis of closely related aliphatic alcohols
C. Separation of sugar derivatives
D. All the mentioned

A

D. All the mentioned

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32
Q

Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis?

A. Column chromatography
B. Paper chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. Affinity chromatography

A

B. Paper chromatography

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33
Q

Which of the following is not done using column chromatography?

A. The identification of unknown compounds
B. The determination of homogeneity of chemical substances
C. Separation of inorganic cations or complexes
D. Separation of geometry isomers

A

C. Separation of inorganic cations or complexes

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34
Q

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of

A. Insoluble starch substances
B. Enzyme tyrosinase
C. Antibodies bound with a covalently attached antigen on cellulose column
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

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35
Q

Purification of enzymes and proteins is done using

A. Affinity chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Column chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

A

A. Affinity chromatography

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36
Q

Which of the following is not an application of high-performance liquid chromatography?

A. Analysis of proteins, drugs, and explosives
B. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
C. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
D. Separation of lipids fatty acids and steroids

A

C. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

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37
Q

The checking of purity of samples is the application of thin layer chromatography.

True
False

A

True

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38
Q

The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using

A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Partition chromatography

A

B. Gas chromatography

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39
Q

Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography?

A. The softening of hard water
B. The demineralization of water
C. The separation and determination of anions
D. All the mentioned

A

D. All the mentioned

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40
Q

The quantitative analysis is done using

A. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
D. Liquid chromatography

A

C. Gas chromatography

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41
Q

The purity of the compound is confirmed by

A. Its melting point and boiling point
B. Chromatographic technique
C. Spectroscopy
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

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42
Q

Select the correct statement from the following options.

A. The transformation of solid to liquid is called melting and the reverse process is called freezing.
B. The transformation of solid to liquid is called freezing and the reverse process is called melting .
C. The transformation of liquid to solid is called melting and the reverse process is called freezing .
D. None of the mentioned

A

A. The transformation of solid to liquid is called melting and the reverse process is called freezing.

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43
Q

The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called

A. Melting point of liquid
B. Freezing point of liquid
C. Freezing point of solid
D. All of the mentioned

A

B. Freezing point of liquid

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44
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point
B. Impure sample of substance has different melting point
C. Two different pure substances have same melting points
D. Melting point serves as the criteria of purity of a solid substance

A

C. Two different pure substances have same melting points

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45
Q

When the solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium, the temperature

A. Increase gradually
B. Decrease gradually
C. Remains constant
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. Remains constant

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46
Q

The melting point of ice is

A. 0°C
B. 100°C
C. 4°C
D. -4°C

A

A. 0°C

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47
Q

Molar heat of fusion is defined as

A. energy required to melt one gram of solid.
B. energy required to melt one mole of solid.
C. energy required to melt one kilogram of solid.
D. energy required to melt ten moles of solid.

A

B. energy required to melt one mole of solid .

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48
Q

The temperature remains constant during phase change because the increased kinetic energy is used to overcome the cohesive forces in the liquid.

True
False

A

True

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49
Q

The molar heat of fusion (kJ/mol) of water is

A. 1.3
B. 0.84
C. 761
D. 6.01

A

D. 6.01

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50
Q

The melting point of mercury is

A. 357°C
B. -39°C
C. 0°C
D. 10

A

B. -39°C

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51
Q

On increasing the temperature of a liquid, its vapour pressure

A. decreases
B. constant
C. increases
D. none of the above

A

C. increases

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52
Q

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapour

A. Is equal to the internal pressure
B. Is equal to the external pressure
C. Is greater than an internal pressure
D. Is lesser than an internal pressure

A

B. Is equal to the external pressure

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53
Q

The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which it boils when the external pressure is

A. 1 atm
B. 2 atm
C. 3 atm
D. 5 atm

A

A. 1 atm

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54
Q

If the non-volatile impurities contaminate the liquid, its boiling point gets

A. depressed
B. elevated
C. same
D. none of the above

A

B. elevated

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55
Q

The energy required to vaporize 1 mole of a liquid is known as

A. Molar heat of fusion
B. Molar heat of freezing
C. Molar heat of boiling
D. Molar heat of vaporization

A

D. Molar heat of vaporization

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56
Q

At 1 atm pressure, the boiling point of water is

A. 0°C
B. 100°C
C. -100°C
D. none of the above

A

B. 100°C

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57
Q

The boiling point and molar heat of vaporization is dependent on

A. Strength of the inter-molecular forces
B. Composition of the liquid compound
C. Size of the molecules
D. All of the mentioned

A

A. Strength of the inter-molecular forces

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58
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following options.

A. Methane and argon have weak dispersion force, so their boiling point is low.
B. Diethyl ether has a dipole moment, and the dipole-dipole forces accounts for it moderately.
C. Water and ethanol have strong hydrogen bonding and hence they possess high boiling point.
D. Mercury has weak metallic bonding which is responsible for its low boiling point.

A

D. Mercury has weak metallic bonding which is responsible for its low boiling point.

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59
Q

For a given substance, choose the correct statement.

A. ΔHfus is greater than ΔHvap
B. ΔHfus is equal to ΔHvap
C. ΔHfus is smaller than ΔHvap
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. ΔHfus is smaller than ΔHvap

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60
Q

The molar heat of vaporization (ΔHvap) for water is

A. 40.79 kJ/mol
B. 31.0 kJ/mol
C. 59.0 kJ/mol
D. 9.2 kJ/mol

A

A. 40.79 kJ/mol

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61
Q

Which of the following is a method of particle size measurement?

A. Sieve analysis
B. Microscopic examination
C. Sedimentation analysis
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

62
Q

The minimum size of particle which can be separated through sieve analysis

A. 75 micros
B. 100 micros
C. 44 micros
D. 20 micros

A

C. 44 micros

63
Q

The instrument used for the examination of particle size ≥ 0.5 micron is

A. Microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Telescope
D. All of the mentioned

A

A. Microscope

64
Q

Sedimentation techniques are particularly useful for the particle size ranging from

A. 50 - 10 μm
B. 40 - 2 μm
C. 100 - 50 μm
D. 80 - 40 μm

A

B. 40 - 2 μm

65
Q

Sedimentation analysis is generally applicable to liquid dispersions containing _______________ % solids.

A. 5 - 10
B. 1 - 3
C. 2 - 5
D. 4 – 8

A

C. 2 - 5

66
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A. In the coulter counter, a narrow orifice is immersed in an electrolyte.
B. The resistance across the orifice is continuously noted on an oscilloscope.
C. The pulses occurring on the oscilloscope are counted electronically.
D. The magnitude of the pulse is inversely proportional to the volume of the electrolyte displaced.

A

D. The magnitude of the pulse is inversely proportional to the volume of the electrolyte displaced.

67
Q

The current generated in photoelectric cell represents the measure of the

A. Turbidity
B. Adhesivity
C. Cohesivity
D. Viscosity

A

A. Turbidity

68
Q

Adsorption method for measurement of total surface area involves the evaluation of quantity of

A. Helium gas
B. Oxygen gas
C. Nitrogen gas
D. Argon gas

A

C. Nitrogen gas

69
Q

In photo-extinction method, a source of light is directed through a suspension of

A. Kerosene in cement
B. Cement in kerosene
C. Cement in water
D. Water in cement

A

B. Cement in kerosene

70
Q

Fibrous fillers have a high capacity for absorbing energy because of their

A. shape
B. size
C. composition
D. area

A

A. shape

71
Q

The B.E.T. theory was proposed in the year

A. 1940
B. 1935
C. 1938
D. 1945

A

C. 1938

72
Q

The B.E.T. theory was based on the

A. Single layer adsorption
B. Multilayer adsorption
C. Double layer adsorption
D. None of the above

A

B. Multilayer adsorption

73
Q

Which of the following is an assumption for B.E.T theory?

A. The solid surface possesses uniform, localized sites
B. The adsorption at one site does not affect adsorption at neighboring site
C. Physical adsorption of adsorbate occurs resulting in the formation of multilayers
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

74
Q

The energy of adsorption in the first layer is

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. none of the mentioned

A

C. constant

75
Q

The surface area available for the nth layer is equal to the coverage of

A. (n-1)th layer
B. (n+1)th layer
C. nth layer
D. none of the mentioned

A

A. (n-1)th layer

76
Q

In the B.E.T. equation, what does p0 denotes?

A. Pressure of the gas molecules
B. Unsaturated vapor pressure of the gas molecules
C. Saturated vapor pressure of the gas molecules
D. All of the mentioned

A

C. Saturated vapor pressure of the gas molecules

77
Q

According to B.E.T. equation, the plot of P/V (P0 - P) versus P/P0 will yield a

A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Hyperbola
D. Eclipse

A

A. Straight line

78
Q

The B.E.T. theory is used in calculating the

A. Surface area of adsorbate
B. Surface area of adsorbent only
C. Surface area of adsorbents and catalyst
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. Surface area of adsorbents and catalyst

79
Q

The surface area occupied by a single gas molecule is inversely proportional to a

A. Molar density of the gas adsorbed
B. Density of the liquefied gas
C. Volume of the gas
D. All of the above

A

B. Density of the liquefied gas

80
Q

The total surface area covered by all the molecules of the adsorbed gas is given by

A. S = nβ/NA
B. S = βNA/n
C. S = nβNA
D. S = NA/nβ

A

C. S = nβNA

81
Q

Conductivity is defined as the ability to carry

A. voltage
B. resistance
C. current
D. all of the mentioned

A

C. current

82
Q

The reciprocal of conductivity is

A. viscosity
B. resistivity
C. turbidity
D. none of the mentioned

A

B. resistivity

83
Q

Which of the following is specific conductivity reagent?

A. KCl
B. HCl
C. NaCl
D. MgCl2

A

A. KCl

84
Q

The internationally recommended unit for conductance is

A. poise
B. dyne
C. ohm
D. siemens

A

D. siemens

85
Q

The cell constant is defined as the ratio of

A. Area pf either electron to the length between the electrodes
B. Length between the electrodes to the area of either electrodes
C. Length between the electrodes to the volume of either electrodes
D. Resistivity to conductivity

A

B. Length between the electrodes to the area of either electrodes

86
Q

Choose the correct order of molar ionic conductivities of the following ions.

A. Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
B. Li+ < K+ < Rb+ < Na+
C. Li+ < Na+ < Rb+ < K+
D. Li+ < Rb+ < Na+ < K+

A

A. Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+

87
Q

On which factor does the conductance of electrolytic solution depends?

A. Temperature and pressure
B. Number of charge carriers
C. Dielectric constant of the solvent
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

88
Q

On dilution, the specific conductance

A. increases
B. same
C. decreases
D. none of the mentioned

A

C. decreases

89
Q

The equivalent conductance of 0.1 H2SO4 offering a resistance of 50ohms when placed in a conductivity cell whose electrodes are 1cm apart with a cross-sectional area of 2cm2 at 250C is

A. 100 S cm2 eq-1
B. 1000 S cm2 eq-1
C. 10 S cm2 eq-1
D. 1 S cm2 eq-1

A

A. 100 S cm2 eq-1

90
Q

Dilution means an increase in the amount of

A. solute
B. solvent
C. electrolyte
D. all of the mentioned

A

B. solvent

91
Q

According to Newton’s law of viscosity, the maximum velocity of flow is at

A. Top of the tube
B. Bottom of the tube
C. Middle of the tube
D. It is same at all the places

A

C. Middle of the tube

92
Q

The factor on which viscosity depends is

A. Area of contact of two adjacent layers
B. Velocity difference between two adjacent layers
C. The distance between two adjacent layers
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

93
Q

The viscosity of a fluid is inversely proportional to the

A. Area of contact of two adjacent layers
B. Distance between two adjacent layers
C. Velocity difference between two adjacent layers
D. None of the mentioned

A

B. Distance between two adjacent layers

94
Q

The Newton’s law of viscosity is not applicable to

A. turbulent flow
B. laminar flow
C. streamline flow
D. all of the mentioned

A

A. turbulent flow

95
Q

What is the dimension of viscosity?

A. MLT-2
B. M1L-1T
C. ML-1T-1
D. ML-2T1

A

C. ML-1T-1

96
Q

The absolute kinematic viscosity is the ratio of

A. Density to absolute viscosity
B. Absolute viscosity to density
C. Kinetic energy to absolute viscosity
D. Absolute viscosity to kinetic energy

A

B. Absolute viscosity to density

97
Q

On increasing the temperature, the viscosity of the fluid

A. decreases
B. increases
C. constant
D. none of the mentioned

A

A. decreases

98
Q

How does viscosity gets affected on increasing the pressure?

A. Viscosity increases
B. Viscosity decreases
C. Viscosity does not get affected by the pressure
D. None of the mentioned

A

A. Viscosity increases

99
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A. Viscosity helps in the selection of good lubricating oil
B. Light oils have low densities and easy flowability
C. Heavy oils are used on parts moving with high speed
D. Light oils do not impose much drag on high-speed parts

A

C. Heavy oils are used on parts moving with high speed

100
Q

1 poise =

A. 10 N sm-2
B. 100 N sm-2
C. 1/100 N sm-2
D. 1/10 N sm-2

A

D. 1/10 N sm-2

101
Q

The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed, or emitted by the molecule is called

A. Kaleidoscopy
B. Astronomy
C. Spectroscopy
D. Anatomy

A

C. Spectroscopy

102
Q

The energy level with lower energy is called _____________.

A. Ground state energy level
B. Initial state energy level
C. Excited state energy level
D. All of the mentioned

A

A. Ground state energy level

103
Q

Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from

A. Higher energy level to a lower one
B. Lower energy level to a higher one
C. Intermediate levels
D. All of the mentioned

A

B. Lower energy level to a higher one

104
Q

The energy of a photon is given by

A. h/ν
B. ν/h
C. 1/hν
D. hν

A

D. hν

105
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A. Emission spectrum results when an electron in an undergoes a transition from excited state to the ground state.
B. In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy hν.
C. In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the absorption of a photon of energy hν.
D. All of the mentioned.

A

C. In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the absorption of a photon of energy hν.

106
Q

The spectra can be broadly classified into two categories. They are

A. Atomic and molecular spectra
B. Atomic and electron molecular spectra
C. Molecular and electron spectra
D. None of the mentioned

A

A. Atomic and molecular spectra

107
Q

In atomic spectroscopy, only electronic transitions are involved.

True
False

A

True

108
Q

Select the correct statement from the following options.

A. Molecular spectra arise from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels
B. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occur
C. Molecular spectra are more complicated than atomic spectra
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

109
Q

The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that

A. hν should be greater than the energy difference
B. hν should be smaller than the energy difference
C. hν should be equal to the energy difference
D. None of the mentioned

A

C. hν should be equal to the energy difference

110
Q

Spectroscopy deals with the transition that a molecule undergoes on the absorption of suitable radiations determined by quantum mechanical selection rules.

True
False

A

True

111
Q

The different types of energies associated with a molecule are

A. Electronic energy
B. Vibrational energy
C. Rotational energy
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

112
Q

During the motion, if the Centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule possess

A. Electronic energy
B. Rotational energy
C. Translational energy
D. Vibrational energy

A

C. Translational energy

113
Q

The correct order of different types of energies is

A. Eel&raquo_space; Evib&raquo_space; Erot&raquo_space; Etr
B. Eel&raquo_space; Eror&raquo_space; Evib&raquo_space; Etr
C. Eel&raquo_space; Evib&raquo_space; Etr&raquo_space; Erot
D. Etr&raquo_space; Evib&raquo_space; Erot&raquo_space; Eel

A

A. Eel&raquo_space; Evib&raquo_space; Erot&raquo_space; Etr

114
Q

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is

A. Microwave
B. Radio frequency
C. Infrared
D. UV-rays

A

B. Radio frequency

115
Q

Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?

A. Structural investigation
B. Basis of understanding of colors
C. Study of energetically excited reaction products
D. All of the mentioned

A

A. Structural investigation

116
Q

Select the correct statement from the following option.

A. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods
B. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods
C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
D. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods

A

C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods

117
Q

The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are less reliable, less reproducible, and incorrect than classical methods.

True
False

A

False

118
Q

The transition zone for Raman spectra is

A. Between vibrational and rotational levels
B. Between electronic levels
C. Between magnetic levels of nuclei
D. Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons

A

A. Between vibrational and rotational levels

119
Q

The criteria for electronic spin resonance are

A. Periodic change in polarizability
B. Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
C. Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
D. Presence of chromophore in a molecule

A

C. Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule

120
Q

Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic analysis because sample is not chemically affected.

True
False

A

True

121
Q

The electronic spectra in the visible range span

A. 25 000 – 72 000 cm-1
B. 25 000 – 50 000 cm-1
C. 12 500 – 25 000 cm-1
D. 15 000 – 30 000 cm-1

A

C. 12 500 – 25 000 cm-1

122
Q

Which of the following transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible region?

A. n → n*
B. σ → σ^*
C. π → π^*
D. n → σ^*

A

A. n → n*

123
Q

Arrange the various electronic transitions in the order of increasing energy.

A. n → σ^* < π → π^* < n → π^* < σ → σ^*
B. n → π^* < π → π^* < n → σ^* < σ → σ^*
C. n → σ^* < n → π^* < π → π^* < σ → σ^*
D. σ → σ^* < π → π^* < n → π^* < n → σ^*

A

B. n → π^* < π → π^* < n → σ^* < σ → σ^*

124
Q

What is the position of the band of alkanes?

A. 190 nm
B. 185 nm
C. 217 nm
D. 150 nm

A

D. 150 nm

125
Q

Which of the following organic compound shows transition due to conjugation?

A. Alkenes
B. Saturated aliphatic ketones
C. Conjugated dienes
D. Alkanes

A

C. Conjugated dienes

126
Q

Which of the following is not an auxochrome group?

A. -OH
B. -SH
C. -OR
D. -O2

A

D. -O2

127
Q

Which of the following shift leads to the decreased intensity of absorption?

A. Hypochromic
B. Hyperchromic
C. Hypsochromic
D. Bathochromic

A

A. Hypochromic

128
Q

Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?

A. Detection of impurities
B. Control of purification
C. Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

129
Q

What will be the absorbance if %T = 80?

A. 0.5
B. 0.05
C. 0.097
D. 0.97

A

C. 0.097

130
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of the Lambert-Beer’s law?

A. Scattering of light due to particles
B. Fluorescence of sample
C. Non-monochromatic radiation
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

131
Q

Vibrational spectroscopy involves the transitions falling in the spectral range of

A. 100 – 1000 cm-1
B. 300 – 3000 cm-1
C. 400 – 4000 cm-1
D. 500 – 5000 cm-1

A

C. 400 – 4000 cm-1

132
Q

Which of the region of IR spectra appears between (1400-600)cm-1?

A. Functional group region
B. Fingerprint region
C. Low-frequency
D. None of the mentioned

A

B. Fingerprint region

133
Q

Select the correct statement from the following option.

A. Infrared spectra can identify the unknown materials
B. It can determine the number of components in a mixture
C. It can also determine the quality of a sample
D. All of the mentioned

A

D. All of the mentioned

134
Q

Which of the following molecule have infrared active vibrations?

A. NO
B. CH4
C. H2
D. All of the mentioned

A

A. NO

135
Q

Which of the following cannot show a vibrational absorption spectrum?

A. OCS
B. H2O
C. CO2
D. CH2=CH2

A

D. CH2=CH2

136
Q

Which of the following is not a type of bending molecular vibration?

A. Twisting
B. Stretching
C. Wagging
D. Rocking

A

B. Stretching

137
Q

What is the absorption frequency(cm-1) of -C=N functional group?

A. 3610-3640
B. 1690-1760
C. 1180-1360
D. 2850-2960

A

C. 1180-1360

138
Q

Presence of a functional group in a compound can be established by using

A. Chromatography
B. IR spectroscopy
C. Mass spectroscopy
D. X-ray diffraction

A

B. IR spectroscopy

139
Q

Select the incorrect option from the following option.

A. IR spectroscopy helps in determination of purity force
B. IR spectroscopy helps in determination of constant from vibrational spectrum
C. IR spectroscopy helps in identifying an unknown compound
D. None of the mentioned

A

D. None of the mentioned

140
Q

IR spectroscopy helps in detecting the

True
False

A

True

141
Q

The nuclei with a spin quantum number greater than ____ can exhibit the NMR phenomenon.

A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. -5

A

A. 0

142
Q

The number of different orientations which a magnetic nucleus can take is

A. 2l
B. 2l-1
C. 2l+1
D. 4l

A

C. 2l+1

143
Q

Number of NMR signals obtained in CH3COCH3 will be

A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

A

D. 1

144
Q

Propene as well as 2-Butene(cis) will show equal number of signals in their NMR spectra.

True
False

A

False

145
Q

Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

A. TMS stands for tetra methyl silane
B. All the hydrogen in TMS have the same chemical shift
C. TMS has a high boiling point, so it is not easily lost when holding the NMR sample
D. TMS is relatively unreactive with most functional group

A

C. TMS has a high boiling point, so it is not easily lost when holding the NMR sample

146
Q

The NMR spectra of the functional isomers of the molecular _________ respectively.

A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 1,4
D. 1,5

A

B. 1,3

147
Q

The number of signals in 1-propanol are ______ while those in 2-propanol are ______

A. 4,3
B. 4,2
C. 2,4
D. 3,4

A

A. 4,3

148
Q

For NMR spectrum, carbon tetrachloride and water can be successfully used as a solvent.

True
False

A

True

149
Q

In how many ways –CH3 protons can couple with the protons on adjacent carbon atom relative to the external field.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

150
Q

Which of the following is inversely proportional to the chemical shifts positions (δ)?

A. Frequency of unknow group of protons
B. Frequency of TMS
C. Operating frequency of the instrument
D. All of the mentioned

A

C. Operating frequency of the instrument

CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN (4 decks)

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