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CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN > CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN Licensure Examination > Flashcards

CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN Licensure Examination Flashcards

Organic Chemistry

1
Q

Which of the following compounds has an ionic bond?

A. H2O
B. NH4Cl
C. CH3Cl
D. CH3Li

A

B. NH4Cl

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2
Q

How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of propene?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

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3
Q

In which species are all the carbon atoms considered to be sp2 hybridized?

A. C2H2
B. C2H4
C. C3H6
D. C4H10

A

B. C2H4

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4
Q

For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?

A. C6H5COOH
B. C5H4(COOH)2
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH3COOH

A

A. C6H5COOH

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5
Q

How many different compounds have the formula C5H12?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

A

D. 3

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6
Q

In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond the shortest?

A. CH3NH2
B. CH2NH
C. (CH3)4N+
D. CH3CN

A

D. CH3CN

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7
Q

What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group?

A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. dsp3

A

C. sp2

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8
Q

Which of the following hydrocarbon has the lowest boiling point?

A. C4H10
B. CH4
C. C6H6
D. C2H6

A

B. CH4

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9
Q

How many different alcohols have the molecular formula C4H10O?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

A

B. 4

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10
Q

Which compound is expected to be most soluble in water at 25°C?

A. N2
B. O2 (g)
C. (C2H5)2NH (l)
D. C2H5OC2H5 (l)

A

D. C2H5OC2H5 (l)

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11
Q

The gentle oxidation of ethanol, CH3CH2OH produces _____________.

A. ehtanal, CH3CHO
B. ethanoic acid, CH3CO2H
C. carbon monoxide, CO
D. carbon monoxide, CO2

A

A. ehtanal, CH3CHO

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12
Q

The following compounds have very similar molar masses, what would be the correct order when they are arranged in order of increasing strength of their molecular forces?
I. C3H8
II. CH3OCH3
III. CH3CH2OH

A. II < I < III
B. III < I < II
C. I < II < III
D. III < II < I

A

C. I < II < III

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13
Q

A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an organic compound and water is called _____________.

A. saponification
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. hydrolysis

A

B. esterification

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14
Q

Which class of compounds consists exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons?

A. alkenes
B. aromatics
C. alkynes
D. alkanes

A

D. alkanes

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15
Q

What is the position of the bromine atom relative to the methyl group in 3-bromotluene?

A. meta
B. para
C. ortho
D. trans

A

A. meta

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16
Q

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound?

A. C4H8O2
B. C4H10O
C. C5H10O2
D. C5H12O

A

A. C4H8O2

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17
Q

Which combination of reactant produces an ester?

A. aldehyde and potassium permanganate
B. acid and alcohol
C. acid and aldehyde
D. alcohol and aldehyde

A

B. acid and alcohol

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18
Q

In crystallization, the solution which is obtained after filtration is the ______________.

A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. none of the given answers

A

D. none of the given answers

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19
Q

In crystallization, the crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying ________.

A. temperature
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. size

A

A. temperature

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20
Q

Which separation technique is based on differences in the volatility of the compounds to be separated?

A. solvent extraction
B. distillation
C. paper chromatography
D. filtration

A

B. distillation

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21
Q

Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of a _____________.

A. Fractionating column
B. Condenser
C. Conical flask
D. Distillation flask

A

A. Fractionating column

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22
Q

The process of heating a liquid mixture to from vapors and then cooling the vapors to get a pure component us called ____________.

A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation

A

A. Distillation

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23
Q

A common measure of efficiency in a fractioning column is the ________________.

A. length of the condenser used in the setup
B. number of distillation types
C. number of components in the solution
D. number of theoretical plates in the column

A

D. number of theoretical plates in the column

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24
Q

Five grams of an organic solid was dissolved in 100 mL of distilled water. Which of the following extraction methods can remove the largest amount of organic solid from an aqueous solution?

A. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of ether.
B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether.
C. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of acetic acid.
D. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of acetic acid.

A

B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether.

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25
Q

Which of the following funnels should be used to filter hot mother liquid during recrystallization?

A. Buchner funnel
B. Hirsch funnel
C. Long stem funnel
D. Short stem funnel

A

A. Buchner funnel

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26
Q

What is the key step in recrystallization process?

A. Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

A

D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

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27
Q

Which of the following is the example of crystallization process?

A. Purification of alum
B. Purification of sea water
C. Separation of gases from air
D. None of the given answers

A

A. Purification of alum

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28
Q

A constant boiling mixture of two or more components in a solution is called a/an _____________.

A. azeotrope
B. ideal solution
C. non-ideal solution
D. eutectic mixture

A

A. azeotrope

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29
Q

A compound is known to decompose at its boiling point? Which of the following methods can be used to purify this substance?

A. Steam distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Liquid-liquid extraction
D. Vacuum distillation

A

D. Vacuum distillation

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30
Q

When the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium, the temperature of the system ________________.

A. decreases gradually
B. remains constant
C. increases gradually
D. none of the given answers

A

B. remains constant

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31
Q

Which is the INCORRECT statement among the following?

A. An impure sample of the substance has a different melting point.
B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points.
C. Melting point serves as the criterion of purity of a solid substance.
D. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point.

A

B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points.

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32
Q

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is ______________.

A. lesser than internal pressure
B. equal to internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
D. greater than internal pressure

A

B. equal to internal pressure

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33
Q

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Solid reactant can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance.
B. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its density.
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction flask by using a metal spatula.
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

A

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

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34
Q

A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77°C after refluxing. What is the best method to be used?

A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath.
B. Place the reaction vessel in the freezer.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed ice mixture.
D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

A

D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

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35
Q

Which of the following reactions will consume the most oxygen?

A. Complete combustion of one mole of octane
B. Complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-dimethylhexane
C. Complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-trimethylpentane
D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

A

D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

36
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to heat a reaction to 200°C?

A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel.
B. Use a heating mantle with stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.
D. Place the reaction vessel in a water with stirring.

A

C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.

37
Q

When proteins are broken down by enzymes, the products are _______________.

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates

A

A. amino acids

38
Q

Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo SN2 mechanism?

A. 2-bromobutane
B. bromomethane
C. 2-bromo-3-methylpropane
D. 1-bromobutane

A

B. bromomethane

39
Q

Aldehydes and ketones generally react by ______________.

A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic addition
D. electrophilic substitution

A

B. nucleophilic addition

40
Q

AlCl3 is a catalyst used in the alkylation of aromatic compounds. It is a ________.

A. a Lewis acid
B. a Lowry-Bronsted acid
C. an Arrhenius acid
D. a Lewis base

A

A. a Lewis acid

41
Q

An industrial source of alcohol is __________________.

A. fats
B. coal
C. sugar
D. ethers

A

C. sugar

42
Q

The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which the concentration of the reactants _____________ with tome of the rate at which the concentration of products _____________ with time.

A. decrease, decrease
B. increase, increase
C. decrease, increase
D. increase, decrease

A

C. decrease, increase

43
Q

Hydrogeneration of an alkene yield _____________.

A. alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. alkane
D. alkyne

A

C. alkane

44
Q

Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone?

A. tertiary alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. primary alcohol
D. secondary alcohol

A

D. secondary alcohol

45
Q

Which of the following reactions re favored by polar aprotic solvent?

A. SN1 reactions
B. SN2 reactions
C. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
D. None of the given choices

A

B. SN2 reactions

46
Q

Benzene and its derivatives undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because _____________.

A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact
B. the benzene ring is sterically crowded, hence, only substitution can occur
C. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound
D. the benzene ring is electron rich

A

D. the benzene ring is electron rich

47
Q

Quantitative analysis of compounds can be done using ______________.

A. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

A

C. Gas chromatography

48
Q

A mobile phase can be classified as _____________.
I. Solid
II. Liquid
III. Gas

A. II only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I only

A

C. II and III only

49
Q

The ion exchange resin with a functional group of HSO3- exchanges ions with _______.

A. Small cations and anions
B. Large cations and anions
C. Cations
D. Anions

A

C. Cations

50
Q

In thin layer chromatography, the solvent or mobile phase contained in a closed chamber is a mixture of _____________.

A. a liquid and a gas
B. liquids
C. solids
D. gases

A

B. liquids

51
Q

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of ____________.

A. wood
B. fibre
C. metal
D. glass

A

D. glass

52
Q

Affinity chromatography us used for the analysis and isolation of _____________.

A. Insoluble starch substances
B. Enzyme tyrosinase
C. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

53
Q

Retardation factor is the ratio of _________________.

A. distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
B. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
C. distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line
D. distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line

A

B. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

54
Q

Gas-solid chromatography is ________________ chromatography as per basic principle involved.

A. absorption
B. adsorption
C. ion-exchange
D. exclusion

A

B. adsorption

55
Q

In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the _____________.

A. Rate of disappearance of solute
B. Rate of movement of solvent
C. Rate of disappearance of solvent
D. Rate of movement of solute

A

D. Rate of movement of solute

56
Q

Which of the following chromatographic methods is most suitable for the analysis of high molecular weight compounds that are soluble in polar solvents?

A. gas-liquid
B. gel filtration
C. ion-exchange
D. gel permeation

A

B. gel filtration

57
Q

In thin layer chromatography, the relative adsorption of each component of the mixture is expressed in terms of its _______________.

A. Retardation factor
B. Solubility factor
C. Acceleration factor
D. Both acceleration and retardation factor

A

A. Retardation factor

58
Q

Colum chromatography is based on the principle of _____________.

A. Ion-exchange
B. Differential adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Exclusion principle

A

B. Differential adsorption

59
Q

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of _____________________.

A. Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

60
Q

Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, in squalene than cyclohexane. Squalene is an aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from the GC column?
[D=(concentration of sample in stationary phase)/(concentration of sample in mobile phase)]

A. Benzene will be eluted first.
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first.
C. The order of elution cannot be determined.
D. The two peaks will overlap.

A

A. Benzene will be eluted first.

61
Q

The elution power of a solvent is determined by ______________.

A. its overall polarity
B. the polarity of the stationary phase
C. the nature of the sample components
D. all of the given answers

A

D. all of the given answers

62
Q

What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?

A. 400 nm to 700 nm
B. 10 nm to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 nm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

A

B. 10 nm to 400 nm

63
Q

Which is the correct statement from the following?

A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra
B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels
C. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs
D. All of the given choices

A

D. All of the given choices

64
Q

The different types of energies associated with a molecule are ______________.

A. Electronic energy
B. Rotational energy
C. Vibrational energy
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

65
Q

Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents. What is the disadvantage of using these compounds to dissolve analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-visible region?

A. They react with the analyte given the energy at this region.
B. There solvents prevent the analyte from absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light at the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

A

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

66
Q

Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?

A. Study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Control of purification
C. Detection of impurities
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

67
Q

Which of the following is a NOT a characteristic of chromophores?

A. May contain extensive conjugated double bonds
B. Contains unsaturated functional group
C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in the UV-visible region
D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

A

D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

68
Q

Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?

A. All of the given answers
B. Basis of understanding of colors
C. Structural investigation
D. Study of energetically excited reaction products

A

A. All of the given answers

69
Q

A compound with a formula of C7H14O exhibits an IR peak at 1715 cm-1. The compound may be a/an _____________.

A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol

A

A. ketone

70
Q

At which region can be found the peaks due to N-H, C-H and O-H stretching and bending motions?

A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1
B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1

A

C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1

71
Q

Hazardous wastes by definition may be all of the following EXCEPT ______________.

A. Explosive
B. Toxic
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive

A

A. Explosive

72
Q

Which treatment of wastes can be done in situ?

A. Air stripping
B. Chemical degradation
C. Biodegration
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

73
Q

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?

A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemical

A

C. Physical

74
Q

The following are requirements for hazardous wastes storage EXCEPT ____________.

A. The floors should be impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals.
B. Drums should be preferably stored upright or pallets and stacked no more than four drums high.
C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated.
D. The facility should be properly secured and can be easily accessed by anyone.

A

C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated.

75
Q

Waste solvents which are halogenated should be places in separate containers from non-halogenated waste solvents because _______________.

A. Non-halogenated waste solvents are more toxic.
B. They are not compatible with each other.
C. They will react with each other.
D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

A

D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

76
Q

All of the following about hazardous waste containers are true, EXCEPT for the following __________.

A. Containers must be closed except when removing or adding waste.
B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.
C. Contents must be compatible with the type of waste containers.
D. Containers must be clean on the outsideD

A

B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.

77
Q

Segregation of waste organic solvent is very important because ______________.

A. The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvent differ in proper treatment.
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

78
Q

Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste?

A. All methods given are unacceptable
B. Pouring down the sink
C. Placing in the regular trash
D. Pouring down the drainage canal

A

A. All methods given are unacceptable

79
Q

If you discover that a hazardous waste container has a minor leak, what should you do?

A. Patch the leaking hazardous waste container
B. Place the leaking contained on to a secondary container so that the waste will be properly collected until it is removed from the laboratory.
C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to another empty container in good condition.
D. Immediately notify the Pollution Control Officer so that an environmental report may be filed with the regulatory agency.

A

B. Place the leaking contained on to a secondary container so that the waste will be properly collected until it is removed from the laboratory.

80
Q

How is clean, unbroken or broken glass waste to be disposed of?

A. Into a cardboard box line with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers.
B. Into containers lined with black bags.
C. Into containers lined with yellow bags.
D. Into containers lined with clear bags.

A

A. Into a cardboard box line with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers.

81
Q

When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for ______________________.

A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

D. 15 minutes

82
Q

Which of the following colors used on the “NFPA diamond” chemical hazard warning label represents the health hazard?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. White

A

B. Blue

83
Q

Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water?

A. Pour acid into water
B. Pour them at the same time
C. Pour water into acid
D. Let the supervisor pour them

A

A. Pour acid into water

84
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable practice when working in a chemical laboratory?

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis
B. Wearing sandals or open0toed shoes
C. Eating and drinking inside the chemical laboratory
D. Wearing gloves to touch door handles, elevator buttons, etc.

A

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis

85
Q

Which of the following pair is not correct NFPA diamond chemical hazard warning?

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic
B. Blue: health
C. Red: flammability
D. Red: 0 non-flammable

A

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic

86
Q

Flammable liquids burn only when the air vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids, you should ______________________.

A. avoid nearby sources of ignition
B. use adequately ventilated work areas
C. keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

A

A. avoid nearby sources of ignition

87
Q

Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when _________________.

A. concentrated
B. when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate
C. heated
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN (4 decks)

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