Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Principles of surgery

A
Use sharp blade
Firm and continuous stroke
Avoid cutting vital structures
Blade held perpendicular to epithelial tissues
Incisions properly placed
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2
Q

Commonly cut vital structure

A

IAN

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3
Q

Blade for extraoral incision or skin

A

10

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4
Q

Blade for stabbing or incison and drainage

A

11

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5
Q

Blade for distal areas with hook

Commonly used in max tuberosity

A

12

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6
Q

Blade for intraoral incision

Commonly used in mandible

A

15

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7
Q

Major organ responsible for hemostasis

A

Liver

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8
Q

Common problems in hemostasis

A

Loss of visibilty

Hematoma

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9
Q

Major problem in hemostasis

A

Hypovolemic and hemorrhagic shock

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10
Q

Earliest sign of hemorrhagic shock

A

Tachycardia or nervousness

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11
Q

FBS used to

A

Assess good or poor wound healing

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12
Q

INR used to

A

Check the viscosity of blood

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13
Q

Normal INR

A

2 to 3

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14
Q

INR of px taking anticoagulant

A

3 to 4

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15
Q

Test for px with insulin-dependent DM

A

Glucose sensitivity test

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16
Q

Test for px taking aspirin

A

Bleeding time

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17
Q

Test for px taking dicumarol

A

Prothrombin time

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18
Q

Test for px undergoing heparin therapy

A

PTT

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19
Q

Ways to obtain hemostasis

A
Place pressure
Use of heat
Suturing
Pressure dressing
Vasoconstrictive agents
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20
Q

Place pressure on the area of bleeding
Small vessels
Latge vessels

A

20 to 30 seconds

5 to 10 minutes

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21
Q

Use of heat

A

Mosquito hemostat

Electrocautery

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22
Q

Best way to obtain hemostasis

A

Pressure dressing using surgicel

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23
Q

Vasoconstrictive agents for 7 minutes

A

Epinephrine
Thrombin
Collagen

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24
Q

Stages of wound healing

A

Inflammatory
Fibroplastic or Proliferative
Remodelling or Wound Maturation

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25
Q

Inflammatory stage

A

2 to 5 days

Fibrin

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26
Q

Proliferative stage

A

2 days to 3 weeks
Granulation tissue
Fibrinolysis
Fibronectin

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27
Q

Responsible for fibrinolysis

A

Plasmin

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28
Q

Fibronectin

A

High molecular weight glycoprotein

Stabilize fibrin
Recognize foreign materials
Chemotactic factor for fibroblast
Guides macrophages

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29
Q

Components of granulation tissue

A

Fibroblast - 3rd day after injury
Endothelial cells
Angioblast

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30
Q

Wound maturation

A

Replaced by new collagen to resist tensile force

Elastin- scar
Collagen- keloid

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31
Q

Highest chance to form scar

A

Frenum

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32
Q

Healing
No tissue loss
Odontectomy

A

Primary intention

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33
Q

Healing
Gap between edges
Extraction socket
Deep ulcers

A

Secondary intention

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34
Q

Healing

Uses tissue grafts

A

Tertiary intention

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35
Q

Concussion of nerve

A

Neuropraxia

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36
Q

Damaged to epineural sheath

A

Axonotmesis

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37
Q

Complete loss of nerve continuity

A

Neurotmesis

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38
Q

Disintegration of the distal part of the nerve via phagocytosis

A

Wallerian degeneration

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39
Q

Best time to remove impacted teeth

A

2/3 root formed because less bone reduction

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40
Q

Lower

MA
Horizontal
Vertical
DA

A

Upper

DA
Vertical
Horizontal
MA

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41
Q

Anterior border of Ramus

A

Class I
Class II
Class III

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42
Q

Occlusal of adjacent tooth

A

Class A
Class B
Class C

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43
Q

Winter Classification

A

White line
Amber line
Red line

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44
Q

Highest point of impacted in relation to adjacent tooth

A

White line

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45
Q

Portion of impacted exposed to external oblique ridge

A

Amber line

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46
Q

Refers to level of access for elevating the impacted

A

Red line

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47
Q

Pre-surgical procedures

A

Scrub technique
Surgical drapping
Eye patch

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48
Q

Surgical Procedures

A

Reflecting adequate flaps for accessibility
Removal of overlying bone
Sectioning the tooth
Delivery of the sectioned tooth with elevator
Debridement of wound and wound closure

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49
Q

MPE

A

Molt #9

Prying motion: pointed-end to elevate the ST
Push stroke: broad-end to slid under the flap
Pull stroke: shred the periosteum

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50
Q

Austin and Minnesota

A

Flap retractors

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51
Q

For removal of bone

A

Surgical bur 8
Chisel with mallet
Bone rongeur

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52
Q

Bur for sectioning the tooth

A

Bur 703

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53
Q

Objectives for sectioning the tooth

A

Shorten the procedure
Minimize the amount of bone removal
Minimize the exertion force necessary to remove the tooth

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54
Q

Principles of elevator

A

Lever- most common
Wedge
Wheel and axle- for multiple exo

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55
Q

Done by irrigating the wound during surgery and closure by forcing large volume of fluid under pressure on the wound

A

Decontamination

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56
Q

Done with careful removal from injured tissue of necrotic, foreign and severely ischemic material that would impede wound healing

A

Debridement

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57
Q

Used to mecahnically debride both the superior aspect of the socket and inferior edge of the reflected soft tissue

A

Periaoical curette

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58
Q

Used to smoothen any sharp, rough edges of bone in pulling action

A

Bone file

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59
Q

Failure to remove dental sac

A

Residual cyst

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60
Q

Used to remove any remnants of the dental follicle

A

Mosquito hemostat

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61
Q

Absorbable sutures absorb via

A

Proteolytic activity

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62
Q

Best suturing material

A

Vicryl

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63
Q

Most common intraoral non-absorbable suture

A

Silk

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64
Q

Main function of suturing

A

Stabilize tissue flap

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65
Q

Most common suturing technique

A

Interrupted suture

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66
Q

Most common suturing material

A

3-0 silk

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67
Q

Soft tissue forceps

A
Adsons
Stillies
Allis
Russian
Semkin-taylor
Babcocks
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68
Q

Forceps used to hold small tissue flaps

A

Adson

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69
Q

Long adson’s forcep

A

Stillies

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70
Q

Forcep used to remove EPULIS FISSURATUM and LARGE tissue flap

A

Allis

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71
Q

Forcep used to hold cystic lining

A

Babcock

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72
Q

Forcep used to hold tissue flap during suturing

A

Semkin-taylor

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73
Q

Used to cut excessive tissues

A

Metzenbaum

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74
Q

Most common post-operative condition

A

Pain and edema

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75
Q

Most common surgical complication

A

Root displacement

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76
Q

Impacted maxillary 3rd molar displaced into

A

Infratemporal space

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77
Q

Impacted mandibular 3rd molar

A

Submandibular space

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78
Q

Caldwell-luc approach

A

Buccal plate of canine

To access max.sinus

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79
Q

2 to 6mm oroantral communication

A

Figure of eight suture without gel foam

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80
Q

More than 7mm oroantral communication

A

Pedicle or BERGER’S flap

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81
Q

Happens when suturing the wound under tension or too tight

A

Wound dehiscence- internal oblique ridge (common)

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82
Q

Most common complication of traumatic tooth extraction

A

Dry socket

3rd or 4th day after

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83
Q

Most common complaint of patient with dry socket

A

Pain

Fetid odor

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84
Q

Treatment for dry socket

A

Eugenol
Benzocaine
Balsam of Peru

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85
Q

Most accurate temperature

A

Rectal

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86
Q

Least accurate temperature

A

Axilla

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87
Q

Most common sign of end-stage renal disease

A

UREMIA

Waste products is in the blood (urea)
Complaint: Metallic Taste

88
Q

Surgery in patients with renal disease undergoing dialysis

A

1 day after dialysis

89
Q

Drugs avoided with ESRD

A

Nsaid
Meperidine
Morphine

90
Q

Marasmus

A

Monkey fish

Deficient in all nutrients

91
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

Moon face

Deficient in protein

92
Q

Most common cause of hypoglycemia in the clinic

A

Skipped breakfast

93
Q

Management for hypoglycemia not caused by DM

A

Liquid sugar

94
Q

Severe jaw trismus

A

Masticator space infection

95
Q

Tx for mild cellulitis

A

Massive antibiotic

96
Q

Severe cellulitis

A

I & D with massive antibiotic

Penrose stent

97
Q

Severe cellulitis

A

I & D with massive antibiotic

Penrose stent

98
Q

Abscess

A

I & D with massive antibiotic

99
Q

Abscess

A

I & D with massive antibiotic

100
Q

Used to drain abscess without damaging the neurovascular tissue using LISTERS sinus forcep

A

Hilton’s method

101
Q

Cellulitis caused by

A

Aerobic

102
Q

Abscess caused by

A

Anaerobic

103
Q

Antibiotic of choice in cellulitis

A

Pen VK

104
Q

Cellulitis caused by staphylococcus

A

Cephalexin

105
Q

Most common cause of failure in treating abscess

A

Wrong choice of antibiotic

106
Q

Antibiotics for odontogenic infections

A
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Cephalexin
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
107
Q

Earliest sign of allergy to penicillin

A

Dyspnea

108
Q

Most common macrolide

A

Eryhtromycin

109
Q

Most common adverse effect of erythromycin

A

GI upset

110
Q

Cross-allergy to cephalosporin

A

Penicillin

111
Q

Px required to take prophylaxis

A

ABE- Staph aureus
SBE- Strep viridans
Rheumatic heart disease- Strep pyogenes
Atrial septal defect

112
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for adult

A

Amoxicillin: 1000 to 2000mg
Clindamycin: 600mg

113
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for children

A

Amoxicillin: 50mg/kg
Clindamycin: 20mg/kg

114
Q

Lifeline of the practice

A

Recall

115
Q

Primary maxillary spaces

A

Canine
Buccal
Infratemporal

116
Q

Most dangerous space infection

A

Canine space

117
Q

Result from superior spread of infections via hematogenous route of canine space infection

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

118
Q

Route of infection spread from canine space to cavernous sinus

A

Inferior ophthalmic veins

119
Q

Route from cavernous sinus to the brain

A

Emissary vein

120
Q

Buccal space infection

A

Molars infections

Structures: buccal fat pad, stensen’s duct and facial artery

121
Q

Canine space to INFERIOR OPHTHALMIC VEIN cause CST

A

Infratemporal space to PTERYGOID PLEXUS OF VEIN cause CST

122
Q

Submandibular spaces

A

Submental
Sublingual
Sunmandibular/ submaxillary

123
Q

Due to infection of man premolars

Above mylohyoid

A

Sublingual space

124
Q

Due to infection of man molars

Below mylohyoid

A

Submandibular

125
Q

Palpable soft tissue that appears hard and dense

A

Induration

126
Q

Movable mass and compressible that appears soft

A

Fluctuant

127
Q

Infection from buccal space and mandibular 3rd molar with pericoronitis

A

Masseteric space

128
Q

Infection from submandibular and sublingual spaces

A

Pterygomandibular space

129
Q

When infection is severe and gives dumb-bell appearance

A

Temporalis space

130
Q

Masseteric, pterygomandibular and temporalis spaces

Trismus

A

Masticator space

131
Q

Infected 3rd molar
Tonsillar infections
Pharyngitis
Parotitis

Hot potato voice

A

Lateral pharyngeal space

132
Q

Extends from skull base superiorly to diaphragm inferiorly

A

Prevertebral space

Primary concern: mediastinitis

133
Q

Lincoln highway of the neck

A

Visceral vascular space

134
Q

Maxillary sinus

A
Schneiderian membrane/ PCCE with Goblet cells
AP: 34mm
Height: 33mm
Width: 23mm
Volume: 15cc
135
Q

Acute maxillary sinusitis

A

No teeth involved

136
Q

Odontogenic sinusitis

Tx:

A

Involves non vital tooth
Max 1st molar

Co-amociclav or Ampicillin for 14 days
Caldwell Luc

137
Q

Tumor of maxillary sinus

A

Overflow of tears due to pressure on nasolacrimal duct

138
Q

Causative agents of sinusitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

139
Q

Sign of precancerous lesion

A

Sialodenitis

140
Q

Most common malignancy of major salivary gland

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

141
Q

Most common malignancy of minor salivary gland

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

142
Q

Indication for enucleation

A

Unilocular
Asymptomatic
Less than 1cm cystic lesion

143
Q

Removal of 1 to 2mm of bone around periphery of the cyst after enucleation

A

Enucleation with curettage

144
Q

Total removal of a cystic lesion with ruptured cystic lining

A

Curettage

145
Q

Main treatment for OKC and multilocular radiolucencies

A

Curettage

146
Q

Creating a surgical window in the wall of the cyst

To spare vital structures
Symptomatic

A

Marsupialization

Partsch 1

147
Q

Marsupialization with enucleation

A

Waldron’s technique

Partsch 2

148
Q

Mainly indicated for Ameloblastoma and CEOT

A

Resection

149
Q

Oral manifestation
2 weeks after radiotherapy
3 weeks after

A

Mucositis

Dysgeusia

150
Q

Earliest sign of overdose of radiation

A

Erythema of skin

151
Q

Radiation administered interstitially through catheter

A

Brachytherapy

152
Q

Radiation administered interstitially through catheter

A

Brachytherapy

153
Q

Most common form of radiotherapy

From a distance by linear accelerator

A

Teletherapy

154
Q

Radio-isotope

A

IV injection

155
Q

Most common infection in radiotherapy

A

Endarteritis

156
Q

Major adverse effect of radiation in the oral cavity

A

Osteoradionecrosis

157
Q

Complications of chemotherapy

A

Infections

Bleeding

158
Q

Facial fractures

A

Young male 17 to 24 years old

159
Q

Condylar fracture

A

29.1%

160
Q

Angle fracture

A

24.5%

161
Q

Coronoid fracture

A

Least

1.3%

162
Q

Bilateral fracture of symphysis of mandible

A

Bucket-handle appearance

163
Q

Common sign of mandibular fracture

A

Malocclusion

164
Q

Common sign of malignancy in mandible

A

Paresthesia

165
Q

Muscle involved in displaced mandibular fracture

A

Lateral pterygoid

166
Q

Le Fort I

A

Floating jaw

PS: Geurin sign

167
Q

Le Fort II

A

Pyramidal Fracture

168
Q

Le Fort III

A

Dish-face

PS: Racoon eyes or Panda eyes

169
Q

Zygomatic complex fracture

A

Tripod fracture
Most common midface fracture
Infraorbital nerve paresthesia

170
Q

Radiographic technique recommended for LeFort midface fracture

A

Water’s view

171
Q

Best tool to diagnose midface fracture

A

CT Scan

172
Q

Blow-in fracture

A

Enophthalmos

Fracture of orbital rim

173
Q

Tx for greenstick fracture

A

Bringing the teeth into normal occlusion with interdental wiring

174
Q

Fracture most common to have infection

A

Compound or open

175
Q

Fracture most common to have blockage in breathing

A

Comminuted

176
Q

Pulse to check in
A. Adult
B. Children

A

A. Radial

B. Carotid

177
Q

Most common structure that blocks airway

A

Tongue

178
Q

Tracheostomy location

A

Muscular triangle below cricoid cartilage

179
Q

Debridement

A

0.9% NSS

180
Q
Debridement
Reduction
Fixation
Immobilization
Functional Rehabilitation
A

True

181
Q

Open reduction

A

Edentulous

Perform trephination

182
Q

Close reduction

A

Dentulous

Insertion of wire in interdental papilla

183
Q

Establishing a proper occlusal relationship by wiring the teeth together

A

MMF

184
Q

Fixing the bone without space in between

A

Rigid

185
Q

Fixing the bone with space allowing callus formation

Distraction osteogenesis

A

Non-rigid

186
Q

Anchoring callus

A

Periosteum

187
Q

Sealing callus

A

Endosteum

188
Q

Utilizing callus

A

Distal ends of bone

189
Q

Commonly used method of horizontal wire fixation

A

Risdon wiring

190
Q

Most common wiring technique

Passing wires around a section of bone and intraoral splint

A

Circumferential wire

191
Q

Embraces two adjacent teeth in posterior that provides two hooks for elastics

A

Ivy eyelet (loop) wire

192
Q

Immobilization

A

Prevent dislocation of jaw

Results to ankylosed TMJ

193
Q

Simplest method of immobilizing the fractured bone of the head

A

Barton’s bandage

194
Q

Patients develops fever w/o local edema or tenderness

A

Due to DEHYDRATION

195
Q

Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy

A

Mandible either move forward (advance) or backward (setback)

WORKHORSE of surgery
Class 2

196
Q

Vertical ramus osteotomy

A

Mandibular prognathism

197
Q

Genioplasty

A

Skeletal class 3

198
Q

Frey syndrome

A

Sweat excessively while eating

Sometimes due to surgery in Parotid gland, AURICULOTEMPORAL NERVE damaged

199
Q

Frenal correction used for post-operative orthodontic diastema
Relapse

A

Miller’s technique

200
Q

Diastema but with hypertophic frenum

A

Z-plasty

201
Q

Patients with bleeding disorder and non compliant

A

Electrocautery

202
Q

Used for lengthening the frenum

A

V-Y plasty

203
Q

For shortening the frenum

A

Y-V plasty

204
Q

Rule of 10

A

10 weeks
10 lbs
10g of hemoglobin per dL of blood
10,000 WBC

205
Q

Class 1

A

Cleft of SP

206
Q

Class 2

A

Cleft of SP and HP

207
Q

Class 3

A

Unilateral cleft lip and palate

208
Q

Class 4

A

Bilateral cleft lip and palate

209
Q

Velopharyngeal mechanism

A

Speech

210
Q

Staphyloraphy

A

Closure of soft palate (1st)
8 and 18 months
Hypernasal speech

211
Q

Uranoraphy

A

4 to 5 years for development of mid-palatine suture

212
Q

Alveolar cleft graft

A

Allogenic graft

7 to 10 years old

213
Q

Cheiloraphy

A

Deformed: NASAL

3 to 6 months

214
Q

Surgical obturator

A

Retained 3 to 4 months for complete wound healing

215
Q

Interim (definitive) obturator

A

After surgery with artificial teeth

216
Q

Early sign of TMD

Displaced articular disc

A

Clicking sound

217
Q

Multiple scraping or grating sound

TMD is severe

A

Crepitus