Oral Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Attrition?

A

wearing away of the teeth from tooth to tooth contact, malocclusion, grinding, and mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Bruxism?

A

excessive grinding - form of attrition *affects masseter muscle*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Abrasion?

A

teeth wear from use of abrasive substances (chewing foreign objects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Abfraction?

A

angular notch at the gum line caused by bending forces applied to the tooth; non-carious tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Erosion?

A

loss of tooth structure from a chemical process - chronic vomiting (bulimia), acidic foods (lemons), GERD (gastro-esophageal reflux disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Supernumerary Teeth (Hyperdontia)?

A

Cleidocranial Dysostias - excess number of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common form of supernumerary teeth?

A

mesiodens - between #8 and #9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the second most common form of supernumerary teeth?

A

maxillary molar area - 4th molars, distomolar (distodens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Anodontia?

A

complete absence of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a type of Anodontia?

A

Ectodermal Dysplasia - abnormal development of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Hypodontia?

A

less than normal number of teeth - partial anodontia: one or several teeth are missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Oligodontia?

A

congenitally missing 6 teeth or more, excluding the 3rd molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Microdontia?

A

“peg lateral” - most common (maxillary laterals) small teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Macrodontia?

A

large teeth; rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Taurodontism?

A

“bull tooth” - enlarged pulp chamber, apical displacement of pulpal floor, lack of constriction at the CEJ *more common in Down Syndrome patients*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A

hereditary disorder of enamel formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

inherited dentin disorder; teeth are discolored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Diastema?

A

space between two adjacent teeth - hereditary, frenum attachment or muscle pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Internal Resorption?

A

enlarged pulp chamber due to possible pulp injury (loss of tooth structure from within the root canal) - tooth may appear pink due to pulp showing through enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is External Resorption?

A

abnormal dentin condition; resorption of the teeth externally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Concrescence?

A

“stuck together like cement” teeth are joined at cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Gemination?

A

two teeth have developed from one single root (teeth in arch are normal count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Fusion?

A

two teeth are joined together during development resulting in one large tooth (teeth count is one less tooth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Dens in Dente (dens invaginatus)?

A

“tooth within a tooth” invagination of the crown or root that is lined with enamel *maxillary laterals most common*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Dilaceration?

A

exaggerated curve or bend in a tooth root or crown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are Enamel Pearls (ectopic enamel)?

A

disturbance of enamel formation during development *usually present in bifurcations or trifurcations*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are systemic causes of Hypoplasia?

A
  • Hutchinson’s Incisors and Mulberry Molars - syphilis - Fluorosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are local causes of Hypoplasia?

A
  • “Turner’s Tooth” - hypocalcified permanent tooth - enamel is inhibited possibly due to trauma affecting crown development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Extrinsic Stain (exogenous)?

A

staining that occurs from environmental factors; tobacco use, wine, grape juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Intrinsic Stain (endogenous)?

A

staining that may occur from enlarged pulp chamber or trauma; darkened dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Tetracycline Staining?

A

endogenous gray, yellow, brown staining - caused from mother’s ingestion of tetracycline prenatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Green Staining?

A

exogenous - may become endogenous over time more serious in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Nicotonic Stomatitis (smoker’s palate)?

A
  • white, hyperkeratotic, coarse, nodular, wrinkled appearance to hard palate in smokers - scattered red “dots” are the orifices of inflamed minor salivary glands (benign but predisposed to malignancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Leukoplakia?

A
  • white plaque/patches on oral mucosa; CAN NOT WIPE OFF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Hairy Leukoplakia?

A

white patch on lateral border of tongue - associated with HIV clients; caused by EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Leukoedema?

A

milky white lesions of buccal mucosa that disappear when stretched *more prominent in dark skin individuals*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Linea Alba?

A

hyperkeratotic line of buccal mucosa alone plane of occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Candida Albicans/Pseudomembranous Candidiasis?

A

white plaques that WIPE OFF; most common fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Erythematous Candidiasis?

A

form of candidiasis (thrush) that appears reddened - associated with HIV/AIDS patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a Melanotic Macule?

A

“Oral Focal Melanosis” flat, brown freckle - found on lip or intraorally *Addison’s Disease - buccal mucosa, gingiva, tongue, & lips (petechiae also on palate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an Amalgam Tattoo?

A

“Focal Argyrosis” amalgam particles embedded in soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are Fordyce Granules?

A

intraoral sebaceous (oil) glands; yellow nodules of buccal mucosa & vermilion border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Angular Cheilitis?

A

fissured areas at corner of the mouth Treatment: nystatin, clotrimazole (topical); systemic - fluconazole (diflucan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are Variscosities?

A

dilated superficial veins - prominent on ventral tongue (lingual varices)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Geographic Tongue?

A

(Erythema migrans, benign migratory glossitis) areas of erythema (atrophy of filiform papillae) surrounded by raised, white border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Ankyloglossia?

A

(Tongue-tied) short, thick lingual frenum - limitation of tongue movement affecting speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Hairy Tongue?

A

elongation of filiform papillae

48
Q

What is Fissured Tongue?

A

(Furrowed Tongue, Scrotal Tongue) fissures and grooves on dorsal tongue surface *common in Down Syndrome patients*

49
Q

What is Macroglossia?

A

enlarged tongue *common in Down Syndrome patients*

50
Q

What is Median Rhomboid Glossitis?

A

(Central Papillary Atrophy) red, atrophic area - anterior to circumvallate papilla, reddened area at midline of tongue on the dorsal surface *often associated with candida albicans*

51
Q

What is Xerostomia?

A

dry mouth; most common condition

52
Q

What is Sialolithiasis?

A

(Salivary Stones) calcification within gland or duct - Wharton’s (submandibular) duct most common site

53
Q

What is Stafne’s Bone Cyst?

A

depression on mandible at the inferior alveolar canal - submandibular gland

54
Q

What is a Mucocele?

A

bluish/pink fluid-filled nodule - lower lip most common site

55
Q

What is a Ranula?

A

“Mucocele of the floor of the mouth” - floor of the mouth swelling “frog belly” *BOARD FAVORITE*

56
Q

What is Pleomorphic Adenoma?

A

(Mixed Tumor) painless, well-circumscribed soft tissue swelling *most common tumor of the salivary glands - benign* - parotid gland most common location - hard palate (posterior) most common intraoral location

57
Q

What is Mumps?

A

(Epidemic Parotitis) virus transmitted through saliva or respiratory secretions

58
Q

What is a Fibroma?

A

pink, smooth, firm hyperplastic tissue in response to irritation *most common tumor of oral cavity*

59
Q

What is Papilloma?

A
  • caused by HPV - cauliflower-like - peduculated-stalked - often found on soft palate and uvula
60
Q

What is Hemangioma?

A

developmental vascular lesion - tongue is most common site

61
Q

What is Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

increase in number of cells present causing inflammation - mostly due to medications Medications: - Phenytoin (antiseizure) - Procardia (hypertensive) - Cyclosporine (antirejection)

62
Q

What is Epulis Fissuratum?

A

(Inflammatory Fibrous Hyperplasia) “Fibroma” around denture flange; caused by ill-fitting dentures

63
Q

What is Chronic Hyperplastic Pulpitis?

A

(Pulp Polyp) inflamed pulp tissue within a tooth that is severely decayed or has a large open carious lesion

64
Q

What is Papillary Hyperplasia of the Palate?

A

(Pseudopapillomatosis) papillary lesions under maxillary denture; if denture never removed

65
Q

What is a Pyogenic Granuloma?

A

“Pregnancy Tumor” - hormone influenced granulation tissue in response to local irritant *BOARD FAVORITE*

66
Q

What is Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma?

A

multinucleated giant cells present and very vascular causing deep redding color

67
Q

What is a Traumatic Ulcer?

A

caused by trauma; biting, vigorous brushing, eating hard pointed chips - 7-14 days healing time unless trauma reoccurs

68
Q

What is an Aphthous Ulcer?

A

well-circumscribed with erythematous halo - stress, acidic, or trauma induced - located on unattached mucosa - incidence in smokers

69
Q

What is Herpes Simplex Virus-1 (HSV-1)?

A

Oral Herpes - Initial Infection: Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis - painful, red, multiple vesicles progressing to ulcers

70
Q

What is Herpes Labialis?

A

recurrent cold sores, fever blisters-vesicles that will ulcerate (found on lip border)

71
Q

What is Recurrent Intraoral HSV?

A

“bound-down” keratinized mucosa (hard palate and attached gingiva) Treatment: Acyclovir or antiviral creams

72
Q

What is Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)?

A

Genital Herpes

73
Q

What is the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)?

A
  • Chickenpox: erythema, vesicles, pustules, crusted lesions - Shingles: painful unilateral erythema, vesicles, and ulcers
74
Q

What is the Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)?

A
  • Mononucleoses Infection: fatigue, malaise, palatal petechiae - Burkitt’s Lymphoma - Oral Hairy Leukoplakia: primary manifestation of HIV, white, furrowed lines on lateral surface of tongue
75
Q

What is Cytomegalovirus (CMV)?

A

oral mucosal ulcerations - mostly in immunocompromised

76
Q

What is Herpetic Whitlow?

A

recurrent and painful HSV infection of the fingers

77
Q

What is Kaposi’s Sarcoma (HHV-8 Human Herpesvirus 8)?

A

neoplastic lesion; multiple bluish/purple and white macule and plaques *common HIV-infected patients*

78
Q

What is Herpangina (Coxsackie Virus)?

A

vesicles or ulcers of posterior oral cavity or soft palate

79
Q

What is Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease (Coxsackie Virus)?

A

ulcerations or vesicles of the hands, feet, and mouth; painful

80
Q

What is Sjogren Syndrome?

A

autoimmune disease causing xerostomia and dry eyes - may lose papillae

81
Q

What is Erythema Multiforme?

A

“Bulls-eye” acute ulcerative condition of skin and mucous membranes - hemorrhagic crusting of the lips *Steven Johnson Syndrome (Erythema Multiforme Major) - multiple mucosal surfaces are ulcerated

82
Q

What is Lupus Erythematosis?

A

(Chronic Discoid - cutaneous) autoimmune disorder with periods of remission - “Butterfly rash” found on the face

83
Q

What is Lichen Planus?

A

skin disease that may appear as fine lace-like white lines - Wickham’s Striae or red ulcerations “Mrs. Wickham is making lace”

84
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

A

long-term neuromuscular disease; varying degrees of skeletal muscle weakness

85
Q

What are Odontogenic Cysts?

A

cyst-lining is epithelial tissue produced during tooth development

86
Q

What are the Epithelial Rests of Serres?

A

remnant of the dental lamina

87
Q

What are the Epithelial Rests of Malassez?

A

remanant of Hertwig’s root sheath

88
Q

What is a Dentigerous Cyst?

A

(Follicular Cyst) - located around crown of impacted tooth - common sites: mandibular wisdom teeth & maxillary canines

89
Q

What is a Lateral Periodontal Cyst?

A
  • common between roots of mandibular premolars
90
Q

What is a Radicular Cyst?

A

(Periapical Cyst) - found at apices of necrotic tooth *Residual Cyst - remnant of radicular cyst

91
Q

What is an Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC) or Keratocystic Odontogenic Tumor (KCOT)

A
  • found in posterior of the mandible rather than the maxilla - associated with Basal Cell Carcinoma
92
Q

What is a Primordial Cyst?

A
  • replaces tooth
93
Q

What is a Globulomaxillary Cyst?

A
  • found between maxillary lateral and canine incisors
94
Q

What is a Nasopalatine Duct Cyst

A

(Incisive Canal) - radiolucency found at midline of maxillary anterior

95
Q

What is a Nasolabial Cyst?

A

(Nasolacrimal Cyst) - located over the maxillary canine region - may swell

96
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

(Carcinoma-in-situ) - premalignant lesions

97
Q

What is Actinic Keratosis?

A

precancerous lesion that may lead to Squamous Cell Carcinoma

98
Q

What is Actinic Cheilitis?

A

precancerous lesions on lower lip - red, white, ulcerated or crusted appearance

99
Q

What is Basal Cell Carcinoma?

A

sun exposed skin *most common type of skin cancer*

100
Q

What is Squamous Cell Carcinoma?

A

*most common oral cancer* *most common on floor of the mouth and lateral borders of the tongue*

101
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

bone marrow tumors - poor prognosis, often fatal - punched out radiolucent bone (including jaw)

102
Q

What is Melanoma?

A

pigmented tumor *most dangerous form of skin cancer*

103
Q

What is Snuff Dippers Keratosis?

A

(smokeless tobacco lesions) - wrinkled, corrugated white lesions at site of placement - associated commonly with gingival recession, tooth staining, and decay

104
Q

What is an Odontoma?

A

resembles teeth; benign tumor - primarily dentin and enamel tissue *most common* BOARD ALERT

105
Q

What is a Cementoma?

A

lesions on the apex of vital teeth; commonly mandibular anterior

106
Q

What is an Ameloblastoma?

A

multiocular radiolucency; soap-bubble or honey-combed radiolucency - usually posterior mandible

107
Q

What is Exostoses?

A

bony protuberance on buccal and facial areas of the jaw

108
Q

What is Palatal Torus?

A

bony protuberance on hard palate

109
Q

What is Maxillary or Mandibular Tori?

A

Maxillary: bony mass usually at midline of hard palate Mandibular: bony mass on lingual surface of mandible; may be unilateral or bilateral

110
Q

What is Condensing Ostetis?

A

(Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis) radiopaque lesion at apex of inflamed or necrotic tooth

111
Q

What is a Periapical Cemental Dysplasia?

A

(Periapical Cemeno-osseous Dysplasia, False Cementoma) - mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesions at apices - common in lower anterior teeth

112
Q

What is Florid Cemento-osseous Dysplasia?

A

multiple quadrants; dense masses of cementum or bone

113
Q

What is Cleidocaranial Dysostosis (Dysplasia)?

A

rare autosomal disease *hypoplastic or absent clavicles* BOARD ALERT - often associated with supernumerary teeth

114
Q

What is Gardner’s Syndrome?

A
  • familial autosomal disease - multiple osteomas and tumors *associated with supernumerary teeth*
115
Q

What is Paget’s Disease?

A

(Osteitis Deformans) - bones are malformed; larger and thicker “Cotton-wool” radiopacities