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Dentistry BDS4 > Oral Med > Flashcards

Oral Med Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient comes to you with a large ulcer, rolled edges and gradually increasing in size, what bacterial infection would you check for in their history?

A

Tuberculosis

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2
Q

What is the primary lesion in syphilis called and describe it?

A

It is called the chancre. it is painless, occurs at the site of infection. there is usually marked lymphadenopathy. ulcers last 1-2 months

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3
Q

What is the second lesion of syphilis called?

A

It is the snail track ulcer - the oral lesions have sloughy mucous patches. can clear up in 12 weeks, can last up to a year

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4
Q

What is a gumma?

A

this is the tertiary lesion of syphilis. it is necrotic granulous material on palate or tongue. can perforate the palate. this is the only non-infectious lesion of syphilis.

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5
Q

What causes primary hepetic gingivostomatitis?

A

HSV1/HSV2

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6
Q

What are the symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis? how would you treat it?

A

Child presents with multiple vesicles which break quickly and form shallow ulcers. there is mucositis.
lymphadenopathy and pyrexia.
Assure parent this is self limiting, child on soft diet, well hydrated - milk is good.
CHX to prevent secondary infection
paracetamol at the approved dose for weight to take down the pyrexia
aciclovir if very bad infection or if the child is immunocompromised

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7
Q

What diseases can varicella zoster cause?

A

Chicken pox and shingles

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8
Q

What are risk factors for shingles?

A

Elderly, immunocompromised, alcoholics

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9
Q

What is the clinical presentation of shingles?

A

it causes vesicles to errupt on the dermatome of the nerve it has infected. it heals in 2-4 weeks, scars, pipgments.
does not cross the midline, urgent referral to opthalmology if involves the eye

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10
Q

What are two diseases caused by the coxsackie virus?

A

herpangina

hand foot and mouth

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11
Q

What is the presentation of herpangina?

A

widespread ulcers on the mucosa, no gingivitis (difference to herpetic gingivostomatitis)
self limiting, 10-14 days

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12
Q

What disease is preceded by koplicks spots?

A

measles

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13
Q

What are the different types of oral candidosis?

A 
pseudomembranous candidosis
erythematous candidosis
denture stomatitis
angular cheilitis
median rhomboid glossitis
chronic hyperplastic candidosis
chronic mucocutaneous candidosis
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14
Q

A patient presents with erythematous mucosa and white plaques which can easily be scraped off.
What Dx tests would you do and how would you treat it?

A

can do a swab of the area, or a mouth rinse with PBS for 1 mins. check for candida
treat with fluconazole, miconazole gels, nystatin gel
if glabrata or tropicalis - resistant to fluconazole so use CHX
careful of warfarin and statin interaction

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15
Q

what are the risk factors for angular cheilitis?

A 
reduced OVD
denture wearer
immunocompromised
diabetes
haematinic deficiency
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16
Q

What are risk factors for median rhomboid glossitis?

A

inhaled steroids and smokers

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17
Q

How would you treat chronic hyperplastic candidosis?

A

Biopsy. incisional
systemic antifungals (floconazole and itraconzaole)
treat risk factor.
monitor as increased chance of malignant change

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18
Q

What are the classes of recurrent aphthous stomatitis?

A

Minor, Major, Herpetiform

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19
Q

What are the differences between the types of RAS?

A

minor - small ulcers, 1-6 at a time, non keratinised mucosa, heal 1-2 weeks, no scar

major - large ulcers, >10mm, last 1-2 months, keratinised mucosa, heal with scarring

herpetiform - very small ulcers, up to 100, FOM, lateral tongue, both keratinised and non keratinised mucosa. frequent recurrences

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20
Q

What types of bullous diseases should you be aware of?

A

pemphigus, pemphigoid, epidermolysis bullosa, angina bullosa haemorrhagica

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21
Q

What is angino bullosa haemorrhagica?

A

localised oral blood blister, soft palate and cheeks. exclude any other condition and reassure pt

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22
Q

Describe mucous membrane pemphigoid

A

mucous membrane bullae which rupture and heal with scarring. can affect eyes and lead to loss of vision.

test is direct or indirect immunofluoescence - IgG and C3 can be found at the basement membrane.
topical steroids, or methotrexate

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23
Q

what are the risk factors for erythema multiforme?

A

carbamazepine
penicillins
NSAIDs
infections (HSV, pneumonia)

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24
Q

How does erythema multiforme present?

A

immunologicaly mediated hypersensitivity reaction - skin and mucous membranes
get target lesions - concentrinc rings of erythema. pyrexia
self limiting around 1 month.
oral lesions form crusts and painful erosions.

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25
Q

What are different causes for sub-epithelial vesiculo-bullous lesions?

A 
Angina bullosa haemorrhagica
mucous membrane pemphigoid
bullous pemphigoid
lichen planus
epidermolysis bullos
erythema multiforme
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26
Q

What are different causes for oral white patches?

A 
White spongy naevus
frictional keratosis
smokers keratosis
stomatitis nicotina
syphilitic leukoplakia
chronic hyplerplastic candidosis
pseudomembranous candidosis
lichen planus
lupus erythematosus
leukoplakia (descriptive - hairy, pan oral)
oral carcinoma
skin grafts
renal failure
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27
Q

What is a soft, diffuse, lesion with uneven thickness of the superficial layer. has no defined boundary and can affect anywhere in the mouth?

A

white spongy naevus

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28
Q

How would you diagnose frictional keratosis?

A

history, intraoral examination to look for any areas to cause trauma

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29
Q

Patient presents with white/grey base on the palate. there are numerous red papules present. what is the diagnosis?

A

this is stomatitis nicotina/nicotinic stomatitis. red patches are salivary glands. can be dysplastic or neoplastic. reversible if pt stops smoking

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30
Q

What are some localised causes of pigmentation of the oral mucosa?

A

foreign body - amalgam tattoo, tattoo, grit from trauma
local response to chronic trauma
ephelis (freckle)
pigmented naevi
peutz jeghers syndrome - perioral naevi
kaposis sarcoma - from HHV8 and related to end stage AIDS
malignant melanoma - dark, irregular outline, rapid growth
melanotic lesion

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31
Q

What are some generalised causes of pigmentation of the oral mucosa?

A 
racial pigmentation - symmetrical and bilateral
food - e.g. tobacco
drugs 
CHX
heavy metal salt deposits - deposited along gingival margin
endocrine - addisons, nelson syndrome, 
haemochromatosis
black hairy tongue
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32
Q

What lesions would you look our for as being pre-malignant?

A 
leukoplakia
speckled leukoplakie
erythroplakia
erosive lichen planus
submucous fibrosis
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33
Q

What is sumbumous fibrosis and how would you diagnose it?

A

chronic and progressive scarring of oral connective tissue - hyperplasia and fibroblasts
caused by betel nut chewing.
pale mucosa, constraining fibrous bands, fibrosis of the submucosa. results in lips and cheeks becoming immobile and trismus
histopath shows epithelial atrophy and cellular atypia.

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34
Q

Rate leukoplakia, erosive lichen planus, erythroplakia and speckled leukoplakia in order from highest risk of malignancy to lowest

A

erythroplakia
speckled leukoplakia
leukoplakia
erosive lichen planus

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35
Q

What are the most common sites for oral cancer?

A

floor of mouth
lateral border of tongue
retromolar area

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36
Q

What are the aetiological factors of oral cancer?

A

sunlight, alcohol, tobacco, alcohol and tobacco combined, chewing tobacco/paan, HPV, immuno suppression, socioeconomic deprivation

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37
Q

What is the clinical appearance of an oral SCC?

A

often painless ulcer > 3 weeks
- firm with raised edges, indurated, inflamed granular base. fixed to surrounding tissue. pain is late feature
might be swelling
might be leukoplakia, speckled leukoplakia, erythroplakia

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38
Q

What is glossodynia and what are the common causes?

A

painful tongue.

caused by haematinic deficiencies, candidosis, lichen planus, psychogenic

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39
Q

What would you ask about if a patient presented you with diffuse swelling of lips, cheek/face?

A

ask about GIT issues - could be oral crohns, could be orofacial granulomatosis. check also for sarcoidosis

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40
Q

What are the differences between angular cheilitis and actinic cheilitis?

A

angular is affecting the commisures of the lips. staph and candida infection

actinic is sun damage to lower lip. excessive keratin production and increased mitototic activity in basal cell layer. PREMALIGNANT

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41
Q

What are causes for xerostomia?

A 
anxiety
drugs
systemic disease
sjogrens
dehydration
mouth breathing
radiation to head and neck
surgical removal of salivary gland
aplasia of salivary gland
sialadenitis
sialolithiasis
sarcoidosis
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42
Q

What is sialadenitis, what causes it and how can it be treated?

A

this is infection of the salivary glands, caused by staph aureus infection, ascending bacteria from lack of salivary flow.
purulent discharge. almost always unilateral,
increase fluid intake, remove any calculi present

do not do sialography

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43
Q

What is mumps?

A

viral sialodenitis. different from bacterial as no purulent discharge. commonly bilateral parotid

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44
Q

What are causes of sialosis?

A

benign swelling of salivary glands

unknown aetiology, but linked with endocrine abnormalities, nutritional deficiencies, alcohol abuse and hormones.

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45
Q

What are the diagnostic features of sialosis?

A

hysto path shows acinar cell hypertrophy, sialography is normal.

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46
Q

What are diagnostic features of secondary sjogrens syndrome?

A

xerostomia, keratoconjunctivitis, CT disorder e.g. rheumatoid arthritis

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47
Q

What are the diagnostic features of primary sjogrens syndrome?

A

xerostomia - no CT component

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48
Q

What is meal time syndrome and how it is managed?

A

obstruction of salivary duct which causes pain and swelling of the salivary gland around smelling or eating food. most common is sub mand because of quality of saliva (mucous), duct is long, has a bend at hilum and goes up.

investigate with palpation, radiography, sialography, ulstrasound.

Tx by massaging,HSMT, arrange review

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49
Q

What does internal derangement of the TMJ mean?

A

the articular disc moves forward when the join rotates and translates. mechanical fault in the joint interfering with smooth working

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50
Q

how would you diagnose internal derangement of the TMJ?

A

joint clicks (disc moving over condyle), joint locks (disc deplaced and not reducing), pain (muscle spasm or alteration in synovial fluid)

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51
Q

What branch of CNV is most commonly affected by TGN? give 5 features of it

A

CNV3 - mandibular branch > max > opthalamic

shooting pain, intense, trigger point, short acting,
paroxysmal

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52
Q

how would you diagnose and treat TGN?

A

Hx, pt description, carbamazepin, phyenytoin, gabapentin,

re-assess regularly on pain scale

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53
Q

What is dry socket and what are risk factors for it?

A

Dry socket is alveolar osteitis, delayed healing of the socket resulting in exposed bone and pain

smoking, single tooth XLa, traumatic extraction, alcohol, mandible Xn, posterior tooth Xn

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54
Q

How would you treat a patient with dry socket?

A
  1. reassure
  2. provide warm LA to area
  3. flush with warm saline
  4. pack the socket with alvogyl
  5. review in a week
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55
Q

What is a common sign/symptom of a undisplaced unilateral fractured manidbular condyle?

how would you treat?

A

pain on movements of the mandible, but no occlusal alteration

get advice, monitor, analgesia

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56
Q

what is a common sign/symptom of orbital blow out fracture?

A

limited eye movements - especially up as the muscles are caught in the fracture

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57
Q

What would someone with a ZOM fracture present with?

A

swelling over affected area
ecchymosis
sub conjunctival haemorrhage
pain
if displaced - hollowing out over zygomatic arch
possible paraesthesia of area supplied by infraorbital nerve

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58
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a patient presenting with TMJ dislocation and how would you treat?

A

deranged occlusion, class III occlusion, hollowing out of TMJ on that side, pain

sit patient down
stand infront of them, explain you are going to try to relocate TMJ
put gloves on, wrap gauze around thumbs

place thumbs in buccal sulcus on buccal shelf
puch down and back

advise dont open mouth wide, stifle yawns, soft diet, analgesia

if cant relocate, refer to maxfacs

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59
Q

What is the most appropriate medication for the following conditons?

  1. Bells palsy
  2. atypical facial pain
  3. acute pericoronitis
  4. post surgical pain
  5. angular cheilitis
  6. AB cover to prevent IE
  7. prevent post surgical bleeding
  8. TGN
A
  1. prednisolone, 0.5mg/kg BID/5 days
  2. amitriptyline, 10mg. PD
  3. metronidazole, 200mg, TID, 5 days
  4. paracetamole 500mg - 1000mg QDS, ibuprofen 200-400mg QDS
  5. fluconazole/miconazole gel
  6. amoxicillin, 3g taken 2 hours before procedure
  7. tranexamic acid mouthwash
  8. carbamazepine 100-200mg BID
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60
Q

What are 5 local haemostatic measures?

A

surgical packing, fibrin foam, pressure, suturing, tranexamic mouthwash, bone wax

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61
Q

What are some complications of a fractured mandible?

A 
deranged occlusion
anaesthesia of IAN
paraesthesia of IAN
anaesthesia or parasthesia of lingual nerve
non union/mal union of the mandible
infection
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62
Q

What signs and symptoms would make you suspect an OAC has been formed?

A

Diagnose by:
– Size of tooth
– Radiographic position of roots in relation to antrum
– Bone at trifurcation of roots
– Bubbling of blood
– Nose holding test (careful as can create an OAF)
– Direct vision
– Good light and suction - echo
– Blunt probe (take care not to create an OAF)

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63
Q

How would you treat an OAC?

A

if C not F, then suture closed if possible, buccal advancement flap if not to encourage healing.
metronidazole antibiotics
advise patient no straws, no wind instruments, no blowing nose for a couple of weeks
steam inhalation and nasal degoncestants

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64
Q

Where is the most likely spread of infection from a maxillary lateral incisor?

A

palatal area

buccal

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65
Q

Where is the most likely spread of infection from a mandibular third molar?

A 
sub lingual
sub mandibular
sub masseteric
retro pharyngeal
lateral pharyngeal
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66
Q

Where is the most likely spread of infection from a maxillary canine?

A

infra orbital

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67
Q

What are boundaries of the submandibular space?

A

lateral: mandible below mylohyoid line
medial: mylohyoid muscle
inferior: deep cervical fascia and platysma and skin

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68
Q

What are the principles of managing a patient with a dental infection?

A

identify cause of the infection
establish drainage of the infection
provide appropriate antibiotic coverage
assess holistically predisposing factors for infection
supportive information (soft diet, fluid etc)

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69
Q

What are causes of Oral lichenoid reaction?

A

drugs (ACEIs, carbamazepine, NSAIDs, amalgam, CoCr, gold)
composites,
graft vs host disease

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70
Q

How would you diagnose oral lichen planus rather than lichenoid reaction?

A

OLP - bilateral, well defined sites (buccal mucosa/tongue)
mixed sub ep infiltrate in LP, increased vascularity)

OLR - unilateral, undefined sites + defined (gingiva, lips, palate). only lymphohystocytic infiltrate, deep LP and superficial mucosa, no change in vascularity

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71
Q

What are the management options for OLP and OLR

A

If lichenoid reaction - remove the causative factors such as the amalgam.
topical corticosteroids
oral hygiene instruction
Difflam mouthwash
monitor for changes - 3 months for 1st year, 6 months for 2 years
repeat biopsies if there are any changes

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72
Q

Radiograhpic differences between Pagets, albrights and cherubism?

A

pagets - osteitis deformans, dysregulated bone remodelling giving cotton wool appearance

maccune - albright - poly ostoticfibrous dysplasia showing ground glass appearance

cherubism - expansion of the mandible and a ‘soap bubble’ appearance

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73
Q

What are extraoral symptoms of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

fine and sparse hair

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74
Q

What are histopathological features of sjogrens?

A

extensive lymphoid infiltrate with germinal centres
interstitial fibrosis
acinar atophy

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75
Q

What can cause postural hypotention?

A 
fall in cardiac output
venous pooling in legs
fall in stroke volume
poor venous return
anxiety states
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76
Q

What are signs and symptoms of TMJ problems?

A

Pain, locking of jaw, clicking of jaw, limited opening

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77
Q

How do you treat TMJ problems?

A 
conservative advice:
soft diet
NSAIDs and paracetamol
heat
dont open mouth fully
bite raising appliance - soft or hard acrylic
mindfullness and reducing stress
consciously unclench when you find yourself clenching
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78
Q

What are different white lesions which can be scraped off?

A 
pseudomembranous candidosis
moriscatio buccarum
thermal burns
sloughing traumatic lesion
allergy to toothpaste/MW
chemical burn
secondary syphillis
diptheria
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79
Q

What are different white lesions which cannot be scraped off?

A 
leukoplakia
leukoedema
linea alba
tobacco pouch keratosis
lichen planus
actinic cheilosis
morsicatio
white coated tongue
nicotine stomatitis
hairy leukoplakia
hyperplastic candidiasos
lupus erythematosus
oral submucosal fibrosis
white spongy naevus
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80
Q

Why do oral lesions appear white?

A

Acanthosis (thickening of the epithelium)
Hyperkeratosis (production of keratin)
Pseudomembranous (accumulation of organisms and debris on surface)

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81
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

White plaque or patch which cannot be rubbed off - descriptive not diagnostic
requires diagnostic procedure to determine biologic behaviour

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82
Q

How does white sponge nevus present?

A

diffused thickening, corrugated white lesions. Bilateral mainly on buccal.
incisional biopsy and microscopic examination
painless, persistent, early childhood onset
no Tx

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83
Q

What is frictional keratosis?

A

benign hyperkeratosis from Chronic irritation
circumscribed, adherent plaque at site of irritation
painless, persistent
remove source of friction

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84
Q

Talk through pseudomembranous candidiasis (aetiology, description, diagnosis and Tx)

A

Aetiology: infection of mucosa by candidal albicans
description: multiple white plaques, non adherent. erythematous base. acute onset. bad taste
diagnosis: cytologic smear. perform periodic acid shiff (PAS) test to detect fugal organisms
Tx: topical antifungals (clotrimazole, nystatin, miconazole, ketoconazole)
persistent recurrence can indicate immunocompromised pt

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85
Q

What is the clinical significance of chronic hyperplastic candidiasis?

A

lesions might show evidence of epithelial dysplasia - suggests they are premalignant

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86
Q

What is the typical visual appearance of reticular lichen planus?

A

adherent, white, interlacing striations called wickhams striae. mostly buccal mucosa. usually painless

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87
Q

What is the typical visual appearance of plaque-like lichen planus?

A

adherent, circumscribed, confluent white plaques.

mostly dorsum of tongue

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88
Q

What is hairy leukoplakia, and how do you diagnose and treat it?

A

hyperplasia of oral ep and hyperkeratosis. caused by EBV
co infection with c. albincans can occur.
adherent white plaques on lateral border of tongue. corrugated/shaggy appearance. bilateral
DNA probe on sample to Dx EBV
can give high dose aciclovir

  • pts with hairy leukoplakia with HIV are liekly to progress to AIDS within 2 years
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89
Q

What is the clinical significance of smoking-related leukoplakia?

A

if on FoM has highest incidence of malignant transformation

cannot determine clinically if is malignant - need Bx

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90
Q

What does smokers pouch keratosis look like?

A

circumscribed, adherent, white plaques, varying thickness. present where tobacco is placed. can be associated with gingival recession adjacent to it.
persistent lesions can develop into verrucous carcinoma

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91
Q

What is the clinical significance of oral submucous fibrosis?

A

can develop into SCC

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92
Q

What is actinic cheilitis (actinic cheilosis) and what is the clinical significance?

A

Chronic exposure to UV
irregular, diffuse adherent white thickening of the involved ep. lower lip vermillion
10% turn into SCC

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93
Q

What is denture stomatitis?

description, diagnosis, treatment

A

infection of mucosa by C. albincans. from denture
if diffuse - broad spectrum ABs or immunosuppression
take cytologic smear, PAS stain.
generalised erythematous mucosa of denture bearing area
treat with miconazole or nystatin gel on denture and mucosa.
good denture hygiene
accompanied with papillary hyperplasia.

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94
Q

What does angular cheilitis look like and how do you treat it?

A

exaggerated commisures. erythematous fissuring. generally ill fitting denture wearer
loss of OVD, staph infection, haematinic deficiencies, chronic irritation (licking)

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95
Q

what is the clinical significance of erythroplakia?

A

highly likely to exhibit dysplastic change, premalignancy or malignancy
can be carcinoma in situ
multifocal lesions are common

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96
Q

How would you diagnose erythema migrans?

A

history - lesions move. possible burning sensation

clinically - circumscribed erythematous patches. elevated hyperkeratotic borders. dorsum and ventral surfaces of tongue.

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97
Q

What are causes of fissured tongue and how would you treat it?

A

common in Down syndrome, possible xerostomia. cause is unknown.
Part of Melkerson-rosenthal syndrome (fissured tongue, cheilitis granulomatosa, unilateral facial nerve palsy(

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98
Q

how would you diagnose a traumatic ulcer?

A

superficial ulcer surrounded by erythematous mucosal margin
yellow surface pseudomembrane
painful, Hx of trauma, traumatic ulcerated granulomas can persist for longer
remove suspected aetiology - does it heal?

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99
Q

How does wegener’s granulomatosis present?

A

deep granulomatous ulcers of the palate, focal erythematous gingival swelling with pebbly surface.
may cause destruction of alveolar bone and tooth mobility

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100
Q

What is necrotising sialometaplasia?

A

ischemic necrosis following loss of blood supply to minor salivary gland. deep ulcer, hard palate, off midline.
can be from LA injection
painful. Biopsy

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101
Q

What systemic diseases can predispose pt to ulcers?

A

blood dyscrasias (cyclic neutropenia, agranulocytosis)
Crohns disease
cancer chemo

102
Q

where is the most common site for minor salivary gland neoplasms?

A

palate.
half of these are malignant
mets often to lungs and bone

103
Q

How do you diagnose MMP and PV?

A

incisional Bx
half tissue placed in formalin for histopath
half placed in Michels solution for direct immunofluoresence

104
Q

in what condition do you see haemorrhagic crusting along the vermillion border?

A

erythema multiforme

105
Q

What are local and systemic causes of pigmented lesions?

A 
Local:
amalgam tattoo
melanotic macule
black hairy tongue
smokers melanosis
melanocytic nevus
malignant melanoma
Systemic:
racial pigmentation
peutz-jeghers syndrom
addisons disease
kaposis sarcoma
106
Q

how can you determine smokers melanosis from racial pigmentation?

A

smokers melanosis is diffuse and irregular and located on the anterior labial mucosa

racial pigmentation is symmetrical and restricted to the attached mucosa

107
Q

What is the aetiological factor of kaposis sarcoma?

A

HIV and HHV-8

108
Q

How does a malignant melanoma present?

A 
larger than 5mm
irregular margins
irregular pigmentation
ulceration of overlying mucosa
can be macular or elevated
most commonly on gingiva and palate
109
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

reactive hyperplasia from irritation
vascularised granulation tissue.
can occur on any mucosal site
solitary, circumscribed, red nodule. sessile or pedunculated
red, firm. painless. persistent. poor OH.
Tx with excision and OHI
if pregnant female - pregnancy epulis

110
Q

What are different causes for localised gingival enlargement?

A 
pyogenic granuloma
Peripheral giant cell granuloma
eruption cysts/eruption haematoma
gingival cysts
abscess
111
Q

What must you rule out with a peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

Brown tumours of hyperparathyroidism

metastatic carcinoma

112
Q

What is a peripheral ossifying fibroma?

A

reactive hyperplasia, similar to pyogenic granuloma and peripheral giant cell granuloma
solitary, circumscribed, sessile or pedunculated.
exclusivel to attached gingiva
need to remove down to periosteum

113
Q

What is actinomycosis?

A

soft tissue infection caused by actinomycoses isrealii
initial site of infection is usually perio pocket
cutaneous swelling, fistula formation
sulfur granules in pus. swelling at inferior border of mandible/gingiva.
Rx show periapical radiolucency with non-vital tooth

114
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

benign neoplasm of fat. can be reaction to local trauma.
solitary circumscribed nodule, sessile.
superficial lesions are yellow, deep are pink

115
Q

What is a neuroma?

A

nerve bundle proliferation in response to trauma. solitary, circumscribed, pink, sessile. occurs on mucosa overlying mental foramen

116
Q

What is a neruofibroma?

A

benign neoplasm of neurofibroblasts

117
Q

List the aetiological agents for DIGO

A

phenytoin
cyclosporin
calcium channel blockers
exacerbating factors include poor OH, plaque/calculus

118
Q

What do you need to be aware of in a patient receiving treatment for cancer?

A

mucositis
radiation caries on smooth surfaces
salivary changes
prevention is key

119
Q

How do you diagnose a Staphne’s bone cavity?

A

it is always below the IAN canal

120
Q

What could be a differential for a palatal swelling/enlargement?

A 
kaposis sarcoma (nodular)
abscess
palatal tori
peripheral ossifying fibroma
denture hyperplasia
pleomorphic adenoma of parotid
121
Q

What are clinical signs and symptoms of a fractured jaw?

A
  1. pain, swelling, loss of function
  2. occlusal derangement
  3. numbness of lower lip
  4. loose/mobile teeth
  5. bleeding
  6. AOB
  7. facial asymmetry
  8. deviation of mand to opposite side
122
Q

What are the ways to classify a mand fracture?

A
  1. involvement of surrounding tissue
  2. number of fractures
  3. side of fracture
  4. site of fracture
  5. direction of fracture
  6. specific different types of fractures
  7. displacement of fracture
123
Q

What factors influence displacement of a mand fracture

A 
direction and angulation
opposing occlusion
mangitude of force
mechanism of injury
soft tissue intact - integrity of periosteum
muscle forces
other associated fractures
124
Q

How do you diagnose a fractured mandible?

A

two rads at 90 degrees to each other (OPT+PA)

125
Q

How do you treat a mand fracture?

A

control pain and infection

ORIF if displaced, no treatment if not

126
Q

What are different pathological reasons for jaw fracture?

A 
generalised bone diseases (Pagets)
OI
osteoporosis
fibrous dysplasia
hyperparathyroidism
localised bone disease (osteomyelitis, ORNJ, cysts, odontomes, tumours)
127
Q

What are complications of mandibular fracture?

A 
loss of teeth
delay in union
infection
malunion
non union
late onset trismus
persisting mental anaesthetia
128
Q

What are complications of condylar fracture?

A 
trismus
osteoarthritis
subluxation
late trismus
deviation
ankylosis
open bite
neurologial - VII nerve paresis
vascular - aneurysms
129
Q

How do you treat a fractured mandible in an edentulous patient?

A

modified dentures

gunnings splints

130
Q

What are primary fascial spaces?

A

spaces directly adjacent to origin of odontogenic infections. first site of spread
vestibular, canine, buccal, submental, sublingual, sub mandibular

131
Q

What would you look for in a canine space infection?

A

infection of buccal space, or zygomaticotemporal space
then temporal space

obliteration of nasolabial fold

can spread to cavernous sinus

132
Q

What teeth are most likely to cause a submental space infection?

A

anterior mand teeth

infection is deep to mentalis

133
Q

What is the most likely cause for submandibular space infection?

A

lower molars

can spread to sub masseteric space and lateral pharyngeal space and on to mediastinum

134
Q

What is ludwigs agnina?

A

bilateral submand, sub ling and sub mental involvement.

high mortality - needs early aggressive intervention

135
Q

What are secondary fascial spaces?

A

become involved following spread from primary spaces

pterygomandibular
masseteric
superficial and deep temporal
infratemporal
lateral pharyngeal
retropharyngeal
136
Q

What is the hallmark of a masticator space infection?

A

trismus

137
Q

What are causes for parapharyngeal space swellings?

A

odontogenic infections

infections of pharynx, tonsils, adenoids, mastoids, susurrativce lymphadenitites

138
Q

What are different routes of spreading dental infection?

A

connective tissue
blood stream
lymphatic vessels

139
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

spreading infection, chatacterised by rubor, calor, oedema, loss of function

140
Q

What influences the spread of odontogenic infection?

A

thickness of bone around site of infection
position of muscle attachments
virulence of organism
immune system function

141
Q

What are the indications that a patient has a severe infection?

A 
fever
dehydration
rapid progression of swelling
pain and trismus
quality/location of swelling
elevation of tongue
problems with speech or swallowing
142
Q

What are the criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome?

A 
>2 of the following
temp <36 or >38
HR >90bpm
RR>20 per min
WBC <4000 or >12000/ml
143
Q

What antibiotics would you use for odontogenic infections and why?

A

penicillins - broad spectrum
metronidazole - for obligate anaerobes
erythromycin - second choice if mild
clindamycin - if anaerobes resistant to other

144
Q

What are risks of odontogenic infections?

A 
airway compromise
orbital cellulitis
cavernous sinus thrombosis
brain abscesses
mediastinitis
145
Q

What is the difference between an OAC and an OAF?

A

• Acute – technically an oro-antral
communication
• Chronic – An oro-antal fistula (OAF)/
epithelial lined tract

146
Q

list some different sampling techniques and when they would be used

A

aspiration - blood sample
aspiration - abscess (avoids contamination)
FNA - cells from solid lesion/cytology
excisional Bx - clearly benign lesions and small
incisional Bx - large lesions, uncertain diagnosis
punch Bx - removes core, minimal damage, 4 or 6mm

147
Q

How do you select tissue for biopsy?

A

large enough area, representative, multiple Bx might be needed, is perilesional tissue needed?
refer if suspicious/upper lip

148
Q

What is a fibrous epulis and how do you treat?

A 
Swelling arising from the gingivae
• Hyperplastic response to irritation
• Overhanging restoration
• Subgingival calculus
• Smooth surface, rounded swelling
• Pink and pedunculated
• Excisional biopsy
• Coe pack dressing
• Removal of source of irritation
149
Q

What is an FEP and how do you treat?

A

caused by frictional irritation
sessile or pedunculated, pink, smooth surface
surgically excise (place suture through and cut around)

150
Q

How does a giant cell granuloma present?

A

(giant cell epulis)
distinct structure of epithelial shaped macrophages,
multi nucleated giant cells in vascular stroma, lymphocytes and fibroblasts
in ant regions of mouth, deep red/purple
sessile
Rx to check for central origin (radiolucency)
surgically excise and curettage of wound. Coe Pack

151
Q

how does a squamous cell papilloma present?

A

palate, buccal mucosa, lips

benign, pedunculated neoplasm, white cauliflower surface

152
Q

What is burning mouth syndrome?

A

an oral dysasthesia with no identifiable cause.

3 types -

  1. progressively gets worse over day
  2. constant
  3. random (more likely to be allergens)
153
Q

How would you treat a patient coming to your clinic with unilateral shooting pain?

A

take a full pain history
cranial nerve test
rule out odontogenic cause
MRI to rule out central cause
assess suicidal intent
carbamazepin 100mgBD, increase 100mg ever 3 days until symptom free
- CBZ can cause liver dysfunction so need bloods every 3 months

154
Q

What are different endogenous and exogenous causes of pigmentation of the oral mucosa?

A

endo:
haemaglobin
haemosiderin
melanin

exo:
amalgam
graphite
heavy metals
chromogenic bateria
155
Q

what are different treatment options for TGN?

A

carbamazepin - 100mg BID and increase 100mg every 3 days until symptom free
gabapentin
phenytoin
surgical cryotherapy, microvascular compression, gamma knife

156
Q

What factors could predispose someone to TMJ?

A 
stress
parafunctions (bruxism and clenching)
chewing gum
weight lifting and clenching
swimming and moving jaw
157
Q

What presents with similar symptoms to TMJ and how would you exclude them from the diagnosis?

A

myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome (muscle spasms, trigger points and tiredness)

158
Q

How would you construct a splint for a patient with TMJ?

A 
pour impression in 100% stone
lower hard acrylic splint
cover all occlusal surfaces
half covering crown
2mm thick
hard acrylic
159
Q

What is desquamative gingivitis?

A

it presents as fiery, friable, florid red gingiva. painful. buccal/labial attached gingiva.
clinical description of oral manifestation.
superficial ep atrophies and separates from rest.
immune response
caused by SLS, trauma, OLP

160
Q

What causes burning mouth syndrome?

A

reduced vascularisation
neuropathy - sensory changes into nociceptors
nutritional deficiencies lead to atropy

161
Q

What is a differential diagnosis for BMS?

A

oral dysastshesia, diabetes, stroke, xerostomia, menopause, stress, anxiety, cancerphobia, fungal infection, allergy
nutritional deficiencies

162
Q

What are the different routes of spread of oral SCC??

A

invasive = nodes
depends on site and what is close
but largely lymphatic or haematogenous

163
Q

What are the classifications of dysplasia and what do they mean?

A

mild = dysplastic changes relating to 1/3/ ep
moderate = dysplastic changes 2/3 of ep
severe = dysplastic changes of over 2/3 of ep
carcinoma in situ = full thickness dysplastic change, but no breach of basement membrane

signs =
hyperchromatism
pleomorphism
change size/number
mitotic bodies in ep
164
Q

List the common salivary gland tumours in order

A 
pleomorphic adenoma
warthin tumour
adenocystic carcinoma
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
asinic cell carcinoma

(larger glands through to smaller ones)

165
Q

what are different histological findings of a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

benign mixed tumour
circumscribed
ep tissue intermingled with mucoid, myxoid or chondroid tissues

variable capsulation
ep and myoep form ducts/strands/sheets
can get squamous metaplasia

166
Q

Why do pleomorphic adenomas recur?

A

the capsule is incomplete and friable. allows satellites

167
Q

What are different treatment options for salivary gland calcuclus?

A 
surgery
lithotripsy
basket removal
sialoendoscopy
laser ablation
168
Q

What are the indications for antibiotic therapy?

A

prophylaxis in cases of IE
adjunct to surgical therapy
if inaccessible to surgery initially
systemic involvement

169
Q

What is the presentation of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

mouth can be first presenation
friable bulla leaving ragged edge, persistent erosions.
desquamative gingivitis
positive nikloskys sign (unethical)
risk or death of hypobullaemic fluid loss

170
Q

What are different causes of RAS?

A 
genetic
behcets
nutritional deficiencies (haematinics - diet or absorption)
systemic disease
GI disease
endocrine
immunity
stress
171
Q

What are the functions of a bite raising appliance?

A

habit breaker
stabilises muscles
psychological

172
Q

What radiographic information is required before XLA lower 8

A 
diversion/deflection of canal
darkening of root where canal crosses
interuption of white lines
deflection of root
narrowing or canal
juxta apical area
173
Q

What are different types of damage to nerves during surgery?

A

neuropraxia (bruise)
anotmesis (sliced sheath)
neutrotmesis (sliced nerve)

174
Q

why would a denture stop fitting in a patient with Pagets disease of the bone?

A

get enlargement of max - over activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts
chaotic bone alteration of deposition and resorption
increased risk over 55s and male
get hypercementosis of roots

175
Q

if you need to extract a tooth from a patient who is on BPs, what precautions do you have to take?

A 
advise pt of risk of extraction, get written consent with this and information sheet
advise to rince BID with CHX 1 week before XLA
clean area before with CHX
use atruamtic XLA technique
avoid flaps
primary closure where possible
CHX BID for 2 mths
monitor until healed
176
Q

What tests are regularly carried out on a patient receiving treatment for TGN?

A

LFTs - ALT
FBCs
pain tests

177
Q

What are two different types of haemangiomas?

what is the difference?

A

capillary
cavernous

cap = aggregated capillaries, endo lining, separated by CT

cav = mass of dilated cavernous vascular spaces, endo lining, separated by CT

178
Q

Whats the differential diagnosis for denture induced hyperplasia?

A

leaf fibroma

fibroepithelial polyp

179
Q

How would you remove denture induced hyperplasia?

A

LA, excise and biospy. suture. remake denture

put suture into lesion to lift it up

180
Q

What are histopathological features of denture hyperplasia?

A

thickening of epithelium

181
Q

What would make a patient more susceptible to post surgical bleeding?

A
  • haemophilia a/b
  • warfarin
  • oral anticoagulants
  • LMW heparins
  • leukaemia
  • thrombophilia
182
Q

If a patient has high alkaline phosphatase, what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

183
Q

If a patient has high serum calcium, what is the likely diagnosis?

A

hyperparathyroidism

184
Q

if a 15 year old has bilateral buccal swelling, what is a likely diagnosis?

A

cherubism

mumps

185
Q

What is a likely diagnosis if there is a radiolucency with a loss of the lamina dura?

A

fibrous dysplasia

browns tumour

186
Q

If a patient presents with skin pigmentation and precocious puberty, what would be a likely diagnosis?

A

fibrous dysplasia

187
Q

What are histological features of atrophic lichen planus?

A

hugging band of lymphocytes
civatte bodies
hyperkeratotic epidermis with irregular acanthosis
deposits of fibrin in basement membrane zone

188
Q

What are the two classifications of vesiculobullous diseases?

A 
sub epithelial (pemphigoid)
intra epithelial (pemphigus)
189
Q

What is the systemic cause of pemphigus and pemphigoid?

A

autoimmune attack by IgG to either desmosomes or hemidesmosomes

190
Q

If Tzanck cells are present in the histological sample, what is the diagnosis?

A

pemphigus

191
Q

What systemic drugs are used to treat pemphigus?

A

corticosteroids and azazthioprine

192
Q

What are histological features of medial rhomboid glossitis?

A

pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
elongated rete pegs
superficial candical hyphae infiltration
polymorphonuclear leukocytic inflammatory infiltrate

193
Q

How do you treat xerostomia?

A

treat the cause - sip water, stop smoking, saliva replacement (saliva orthana), pilocarpine, suck ice cubes

194
Q

What are some dental complications of xerostomia?

A 
problems with denture retention
taste
dysphagia
mucosal irritation
caries
salivary gland infections
problems speaking
195
Q

What can cause swelling of the salivary gland?

A 
infection (bacterial or viral)
mucocele/ranula
neoplasm (pleomorphic adenoma/acinic cell carcinoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma)
blockage
hyperplasia
sialosis
196
Q

What is sialosis?

A

uncommon, bilateral, painless autonomic neuropathy

benign and diffuse swelling. non inflammatory enlargement of minor salivary gland

197
Q

What are causes of sialosis?

A 
diabetes melitus
alcoholism
hormone changes
malnutrition (bulimia and anorexia)
Rx H&amp;N
drugs
198
Q

What are some systemic factors predisposing to candidal infection?

A 
diabetes
radiotherapy
steroids
ABs
nutritional deficiency
immunosuppression
smoking
cariogenic diet
extremes of life
199
Q

What are causes for granulomatous conditions?

A

reaction to environment, genetics, infections, organisms, idiopathic

200
Q

What is OFG?

A

Orofacial granulomatosis

clinically and histologically identical to Crohns disease, diagnosis of exclusion. no GIT symptoms

201
Q

What can cause oral dysaesthesia?

A 
nutritional deficiencies
DM
dentures - stability, low freeway space, hypersensitivity, stomatitis
mucosal infections
xerostomia
psychological factors
drugs (captopril)
allergies
202
Q

What can be used to treat RAS?

A 
betametasone MW (0.5mg tabs)
beclometasone inhaler (50ug)
CHX 0.2% BID
azathioprine
doxycycline MW
difflam mouthwash
203
Q

What is the half-life of midazolam?

A

1-4 hours

204
Q

What do you measure to assess a patient for IV sedation?

A 
ASA classification (GDSH takes I and II)
BP
weight (BMI)
MH
HR
level of co-operation
O2 saturation
205
Q

What are the ASA classifications?

A

I - medically fit and well
II - well controlled disease
III - severe disease that is limiting but not incapacitating
IV - incapacitating disease, constant threat to life
V - pt not expected to live

206
Q

What is constantly monitored during IVS?

A

HR
O2 sats
level of consciousness
(BP at 5 min intervals)

207
Q

what are physiological signs in someone with severe pain?

A

increased HR, BP, caridac output and sweating
reduced salivary flow
dilation of pupils

208
Q

What is the maximum dose of paracetamol and how would you deal with patient over this dose?

A

4g/24 hours

over this - go to hospital even if they are feeling well

209
Q

What might delay osseointegration?

A 
overheating of bone during placement
non-biocompatible material used
inappropriate surface of implant
premature loading
overloading
poor oral hygeine
210
Q

give 2 surgical interventions to help inadequate bone levels

A

bone graft

bone augmentation

211
Q

What are the main descriptive features of a pathology in the mouth?

A 
site
morphology
colour
size
consistency
212
Q

How do you diagnose different types of ulcers?

A 
number
outline
margin
depth
size
separate/coalescing
regular/irregular borders
raised
superficial/deep
213
Q

why are red lesions red, and what are common causes?

A

red from haemoglobin from blood flow in increased inflammation or thinner epithelium
trauma/infection/proliferation of BVs, petechia, pupura, ecchymosis, haematoma

214
Q

Why are white lesions white, and what are different changes making them white?

A 
changes in the epithelium or lamina propria
ep changes: 
hyperkeratosis (keratin layer)
acanthosis (stratum spinosum)
necrosis
fluid accumulation

LP changes:
increased collagen
change in collagen maturation

215
Q

What is a peripheral giant cell tumour?

A

vascular lesion, with multinucleated giant cells and extravasated RBCs
exclusively attached to gingiva
response of gingivae to chronic trauma
associated with pyogenic granuloma and peripheral ossifying fibroma

216
Q

If a patient presents with acute oral ulceration, what are some differential diagnoses and their obvious clinical appearance?

A 
minor RAS (attached mucosa)
Major RAS (unattached mucosa)
PHG (all mucosa)
allergies - cant be scraped off
erythema multiforme (target)
herpangina (soft palate and oropharynx)
herpes zoster - doesnt cross midline
traumatic (history)
HF+M - hands and feet
necrotising sialometaplasia (vibrating line)
chancre - painless
217
Q

patient presents with chronic oral ulceration, what are some differential diagnoses and their obvious clinical appearance?

A 
erosive OLP - bilateral
SCC - non healing
MMP - ocular and genitals
PV - other skin
facticial ulcer - no induration
traumatic granuloma - no healing
TB
noma - gangrenous necrosis after ANUG
218
Q

What are some pericoronal unilocular radiolucencies and how can you differentiate them?

A

dentigerous cyst - around crown of tooth
eruption cyst - erupting tooth
odontogenic keratocyst
orthokeratinised odontogenic cyst - lined by keratin
ameloblastic fibroma - young people
asenomatoid odontogenic tumour - upper 3-3
calcifying odontogenic cyst (gorlin cyst)

219
Q

What are some unilocular radiolucencies around the pericapical area and how can you differentiate them?

A

periapical granuloma - non vital tooth
periapical cyst - non vital tooth
periapical scar - endo treatment and destruction of cortical plate

220
Q

What are some unilocular radiolucencies not around the pericapical or pericoronal area and how can you differentiate them?

A 
developing tooth bud
radicular cyst
nasopalatine duct cyst (spreads AP)
periodontal cyst
residual periapical cyst (after Xn)
odontogenic keratocyst
giant cell granuloma (ant mand)
stafnes bone cavity (below IAN)
cemento-osseous dysplasia - young. mand
schwannoma - IAN
221
Q

What are some mulitlocular radiolucencies?

A 
odontogenic keratocyst
ameloblastoma (post mand)
giant cell granuloma - ant mand
ameloblastic fibroma - young
odontogenic myxoma - cobweb trabeculation
calcifying epithelial codontogenic tumour - impacted tooth
central haemangioma - honeycomb
aneurysmal bone cyst - younger
cherubism - multiple quads
hyperparathyroisism - browns tumour
222
Q

What are some radiolucencies with poorly defined borders?

A 
periapical granuloma
osteomyelitis
MRONJ
simple bone cyst (scallops between roots)
metastatic tumour (pain)
ORNJ
multiple myeloma (older)
osteosarcoma (younger)
223
Q

What are some well demarcated radiopacities?

A 
exostoses
tori
retained root
condensing osteitis (apex of NV tooth)
compound or complex odontome
224
Q

What gives a ground glass appearance to bone?

A

fibrous dysplasia

hyperparathyroidism

225
Q

What gives a sunburst appearance to bone?

A

osteosarcoma

intraosseous haemangioma

226
Q

what gives a cotton wool appearance to bone?

A

pagets disease of the bone
cemento osseous dysplasia
gardner syndrome

227
Q

What gives onion skin opacities?

A

proliferative petrosis
ewing sarcoma
langerhans cell histocytosis

228
Q

What are the different classifications of dysplasia and what do they mean?

A

mild: alterations limited to basal layer and parabasal cells
moderate: involvement from basal layer to mid of spinous layer
severe: involvement from basal layer to above midpoint of ep
carcinoma in situ: dysplasia of entire thickness of epithelium, no invasion

229
Q

what histopathological changes occur in dysplasia?

A

nuclear pleomorphism, hyperchromatism, scattered mitotic figures

230
Q

What is chlorhexidine and what is its mode of action?

A

bisbiguanide
dicationic molecule which adheres to the pellicle and can also disrupt the bacterial membrane
antiseptic and antibiotic - bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal.

231
Q

What is substantivity?

A

the ability of a substance to continue exerting effects after the contact time

232
Q

what are some uses of chlorhexidine

A 
post surgery MW
full mouth disifnection
irrigating under the operculum for pericoronitis (some health boards)
irrigating dry socket
immunocompromised patients
before and after XLA for pts on BPs
post trauma
pt unable to physically clean
233
Q

How do you diagnose the different types of perio?

A

plaque levels/sites/attachment loss

if attachment loss is consistent with level of plaque - chronic
if attachment loss is not consistent with level of plaque - aggressive

if >30% sites affected, generalised
if <30% sites affecfed - localised

1-2mm is mild
3-4mm is moderate
>5mm is severe

234
Q

How do you treat desquamative ginigivitis?

A

betamethasone or beclamethosone

tacrolimus MW

235
Q

What is an ameloblastoma?

what does it look like radiographically?

A

an aggressive odontgenic epithelium neoplasm - well defined

locally invasive. most commonly the posterior mandible and ramus. resorbs tissue

multilocular radiolucency. honeycomb/soap bubblee

236
Q

What is an odontogenic keratocyst?

A

an odontogenic epithelium neoplasm. thin keratinised lining. well defined radiolucency. minimal expansion as AP growth

post mand and ramus.

generally single, multiples = gorlin-goltz

237
Q

What is a dentigerous cyst?
where is it most commonly found?
what does it look like radiographically?

A

cyst around crown >5mm from enamel of unerupted tooth. 8s/max 3s

well defined, corticated radiolucency. border continuous with ACJ

238
Q

What is a lateral periodontal cyst and what does it look like radiographically?

A

incidental finding mostly. cyst - lateral to vital tooth.

well defined and corticated. can obliterate lamina dura and can resorb teeth

239
Q

What is a nasopalatine canal cyst and what does it look like radiographically?

A

non odontogenic cyst in the nasopalatine canal. incidental finding. between apices of max centrals if >1cm

well defined, unilocular radiolucency. corticated and heart shaped

lamina dura is always intact as not associated with the teeth

240
Q

What is a periapical/radicular cyst?

A

cyst around apex or lateral canal of NON VITAL tooth (different to lateral perio cyst)
will resorb.
can cause rarefying osteitis (loss of bone)

well defined, may be corticated, unilocular radiolucency

241
Q

how does a simple bone cyst appear?

A

radiolucency, posterior mandible. well defined but no cortical. scallops between roots

242
Q

What is ankylosis and how does it appear radiographically?

A

fusion of a tooth root with surrounding bone. absence of PDL space

243
Q

What is the difference between dens invaginus and dens in dente?

A

dens in dente is more severe - has >50% of canal space affected
both give a teardrop sign on the canal

244
Q

What is hypercementosis and how does it appear?

A

increased cementum deposition around the apices of a root. root appears more bulbous

245
Q

What is a talon cusp and how do you treat it?

A

hyperplasia of cingulum of anterior tooth

selective griding 1mm at a time and place a dressing on. obliterates pulp in cusp

246
Q

What does a taurodont look like?

A

elongated body and pulp chamber, shorter than normal roots - the bifucation might be closer to apex. multi rooted teeth only, crown is normal

247
Q

what is a fibrous scar?

A

healing with fibrous tissue instead of bone after XLa or surgery
radiolucent, well defined edge

248
Q

What are the most common sites for mandibular fracture?

A

angle of mand
neck of ramus
anterior mand

249
Q

compare infra and supra bony pockets

A

supra bony -
base of pocket is coronal to alveolar bone
horizontal bone loss
PDL and transeptal fibres arranged horizontally

infrabony pocket-
bast of pocket is apical to crest of alveolar bone
vertical pattern of destruction
PDL are angular, transeptal fibres are oblique

250
Q

How would you manage desquamative gingivitis?

A

improve OHI
tacrolimus or betamatasone MW
Bx if symptomatic or smoker
identify cause and eliminate

251
Q

Name 2 methods for testing for pemphigus vulgaris and what a positive result looks like

A

direct immunofluorescence - IgG against desmoglein in desmosomes - basket weave appearane
H+E stain - intraepithelial split with Tzanck cells

Dentistry BDS4 (20 decks)

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