OR Flashcards

1
Q

surgical asepsis

A

separation between sterile and non-sterile areas

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2
Q

several methods to drape the C-arm

A

plastic drape w/adhesive
snap covers
shower curtain cover

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3
Q

describe the “rainbow position”

A

c arm is above the patient (like a rainbow)
causes more radiation exposure to the field
for lateral position typically (such as laminectomy)

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4
Q

is it acceptable to have the tube on the top when imaging?

A

No
radiation safety - when on the bottom - keeps the radiation low to the floor, directed at extremities/feet

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5
Q

What area is of the most concern when considering c-arm position in the OR?

A

non-shielded areas such as head and neck (cuz of thyroid and brain tissue)

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6
Q

mag mode

A
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7
Q

pulse mode

A

intermittent radiation delivered at intervals

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8
Q

snapshot

A

computer enhanced images

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9
Q

ERCP

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

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10
Q

spondylolisthesis - what makes the spine unstable

A

the “scotty dog” neck - the pars

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11
Q

Luke or Harrington rod

A

for scoliosis correction

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12
Q

ORIF

A

open reduction (fx that needs reduced) internal fixation

placing rods and screws typically

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13
Q

PLIF

A

posterior lumbar internal fixation

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14
Q

patient position for lumbar laminectory

A

prone, arms above head

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15
Q

patient position for cervical laminectomy

A

prone, arms tucked

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16
Q

c-arm position for laminectomy

A

usually lateral
possible AP

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17
Q

Why is a laminectomy performed?

A

alleviate pain caused by nerve impingement

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18
Q

What is laminectomy

A

laminae or some disc is removed to reduce nerve pressure

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19
Q

What is spinal fusion

A

installation of screws and bracket hardware to stop spondylolisthesis or stabilize the spine

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20
Q

ACDF

A

anterior cervical discectomy fusion

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21
Q

Why do you angle for an AP spine in OR

A

endplates are not always aligned, disc spaces slightly closed because of lordotic curve in lumbar

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22
Q

How would you overcome spinous processes are not equal in ap spine case?

A

oblique projection, move tube angle laterally

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23
Q

why is kyphoplasty done?

A

kyphosis
compression fx

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24
Q

What is kyphoplasty/vertebroplasty

A

cement inserted into vertebral body to “lift up” the vertebrae

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25
Q

what is considered a closed reduction

A

non surgical reduction/fix of a fx without cutting the skin, using casts or splints

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26
Q

ilizarov frame/brace

A

external fixation to hold/reduce a fx, typically for the long bones

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27
Q

rods are typically used for _____ bones

A

long

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28
Q

How would you fix a femoral neck fx

A

cannulated screws

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29
Q

ERCP

A

endoscopic retrograde choloangio-pancreatography

30
Q

Know the ducts associated with Cholangiogram

A

common hepatic duct
common bile duct
cystic duct

31
Q

describe retrograde urography

A

injecting contrast retrograde from the bladder to the kidneys to see ureters and kidneys

32
Q

what is patient position for retrograde urography

A

lithotomy
(supine with legs in abductors)

33
Q

Define retrograde

A

against the flow

34
Q

Patient position for ERCP

A

LAO

35
Q

What defines a sterile procedure

A

one that requires incisions in the skin
surgical attire
in an OR

36
Q

What procedures are considered non-sterile

A

GI procedures: endoscopies, ERCP

37
Q

What is subtraction?

A

ability to remove bones and such from the picture to better visualize the vessels

38
Q

What are some procedures that use subtraction?

A

Vascular
AAA/TAA
IVS filter placement
fistulagram
fem-pop bypass

39
Q

IVC

A

inferior vena cava

40
Q

What does IVC filter placement do?

A

filter catches blood clots coming from the legs and prevent them from going to the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism

41
Q

Common name for mobile fluoroscopy unit

A

C-arm

42
Q

Two primary parts of a mobile fluoroscopy unit (on either side of the unit)

A

xray tube
image intensifier/image receptor

43
Q

Why should the xray tube not be on top (AP position)

A

to reduce exposure to operator’s head and neck

44
Q

with the c-arm in the horizontal position, which side should the surgeon stand if they must remain close to the patient? Why?

A

intensifier side because the exposure is decreased on that side

45
Q

Name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing
continuous fluoroscopy imaging?

A

roadmapping

45
Q

True or False: AEC exposure systems are not feasible with mobile fluoroscopy.

A

True

46
Q

True or False: All mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the
monitor during fluoroscopy

A

False

46
Q

List the four essential attributes of the successful radiologic technologist in surgical radiography:

A

Confidence
Communication
Problem solving
mastery

47
Q

True or False: the intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures is helpful
during procedures to produce brighter images but results in significantly increased patient
exposure.

A

false

48
Q

True or False: The technologist may violate the sterile environment in surgery if he/she is
wearing sterile gloves, mask, and surgical scrubs

A

false

49
Q

True or False: The surgeon is responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all
personnel in the OR

A

false

50
Q

What consists of the practice and procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present
in the surgical environment?

A

surgical asepsis

51
Q

List which parts of a sterile gown are considered sterile

A

front of the gown from the shoulders to the surgical field, and the arms up to two inches below the elbows

52
Q

What portion(s) of the OR table is (are) considered sterile?

A

the top of the sterile drape

53
Q

List the three measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a C-Arm
unit in the surgical suite

A

Drapes
Cover cassettes/grids
Aware of surroundings/walk forward only

54
Q

What is the primary advantage to using the “boost” feature during a mobile fluoroscopic
procedure?

A

creates a brighter image

55
Q

What are the 3 cardinal rules of radiation protection?

A

distance
time
shielding

56
Q

What cardinal rule is the most effective in reducing occupational exposure?

A

distance

57
Q

What anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram?

A

bile duct from the liver

58
Q

A radiographic exam of the pelvicalyceal system only during surgery is termed what?

A

retrograde pyelogram

59
Q

In what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography?

A

lithotomy

60
Q

List an orthopedic procedure that is considered nonsurgical?

A

closed reduction

61
Q

List an example of an orthopedic device that is classified as an external fixator

A

Ilizarov Device

62
Q

List an orthopedic device that is often used during a hip pinning

A

screws or nails

63
Q

What type of device is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, and humeral shaft fractures?

A

nails and external rods

64
Q

What type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty?

A

compression fractures

65
Q

What is the surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement
involving the spine?

A

laminectomy

66
Q

In what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies?

A

prone

67
Q

What are 2 internal fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery?

A

fusion screws/hardware
harrington rods

68
Q

ORIF is the abbreviation for?

A

Open Reduction Internal Fixation