OR Flashcards

1
Q

surgical asepsis

A

separation between sterile and non-sterile areas

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2
Q

several methods to drape the C-arm

A

plastic drape w/adhesive
snap covers
shower curtain cover

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3
Q

describe the “rainbow position”

A

c arm is above the patient (like a rainbow)
causes more radiation exposure to the field
for lateral position typically (such as laminectomy)

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4
Q

is it acceptable to have the tube on the top when imaging?

A

No
radiation safety - when on the bottom - keeps the radiation low to the floor, directed at extremities/feet

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5
Q

What area is of the most concern when considering c-arm position in the OR?

A

non-shielded areas such as head and neck (cuz of thyroid and brain tissue)

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6
Q

mag mode

A
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7
Q

pulse mode

A

intermittent radiation delivered at intervals

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8
Q

snapshot

A

computer enhanced images

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9
Q

ERCP

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

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10
Q

spondylolisthesis - what makes the spine unstable

A

the “scotty dog” neck - the pars

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11
Q

Luke or Harrington rod

A

for scoliosis correction

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12
Q

ORIF

A

open reduction (fx that needs reduced) internal fixation

placing rods and screws typically

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13
Q

PLIF

A

posterior lumbar internal fixation

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14
Q

patient position for lumbar laminectory

A

prone, arms above head

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15
Q

patient position for cervical laminectomy

A

prone, arms tucked

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16
Q

c-arm position for laminectomy

A

usually lateral
possible AP

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17
Q

Why is a laminectomy performed?

A

alleviate pain caused by nerve impingement

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18
Q

What is laminectomy

A

laminae or some disc is removed to reduce nerve pressure

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19
Q

What is spinal fusion

A

installation of screws and bracket hardware to stop spondylolisthesis or stabilize the spine

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20
Q

ACDF

A

anterior cervical discectomy fusion

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21
Q

Why do you angle for an AP spine in OR

A

endplates are not always aligned, disc spaces slightly closed because of lordotic curve in lumbar

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22
Q

How would you overcome spinous processes are not equal in ap spine case?

A

oblique projection, move tube angle laterally

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23
Q

why is kyphoplasty done?

A

kyphosis
compression fx

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24
Q

What is kyphoplasty/vertebroplasty

A

cement inserted into vertebral body to “lift up” the vertebrae

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25
what is considered a closed reduction
non surgical reduction/fix of a fx without cutting the skin, using casts or splints
26
ilizarov frame/brace
external fixation to hold/reduce a fx, typically for the long bones
27
rods are typically used for _____ bones
long
28
How would you fix a femoral neck fx
cannulated screws
29
ERCP
endoscopic retrograde choloangio-pancreatography
30
Know the ducts associated with Cholangiogram
common hepatic duct common bile duct cystic duct
31
describe retrograde urography
injecting contrast retrograde from the bladder to the kidneys to see ureters and kidneys
32
what is patient position for retrograde urography
lithotomy (supine with legs in abductors)
33
Define retrograde
against the flow
34
Patient position for ERCP
LAO
35
What defines a sterile procedure
one that requires incisions in the skin surgical attire in an OR
36
What procedures are considered non-sterile
GI procedures: endoscopies, ERCP
37
What is subtraction?
ability to remove bones and such from the picture to better visualize the vessels
38
What are some procedures that use subtraction?
Vascular AAA/TAA IVS filter placement fistulagram fem-pop bypass
39
IVC
inferior vena cava
40
What does IVC filter placement do?
filter catches blood clots coming from the legs and prevent them from going to the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism
41
Common name for mobile fluoroscopy unit
C-arm
42
Two primary parts of a mobile fluoroscopy unit (on either side of the unit)
xray tube image intensifier/image receptor
43
Why should the xray tube not be on top (AP position)
to reduce exposure to operator's head and neck
44
with the c-arm in the horizontal position, which side should the surgeon stand if they must remain close to the patient? Why?
intensifier side because the exposure is decreased on that side
45
Name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging?
roadmapping
45
True or False: AEC exposure systems are not feasible with mobile fluoroscopy.
True
46
True or False: All mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy
False
46
List the four essential attributes of the successful radiologic technologist in surgical radiography:
Confidence Communication Problem solving mastery
47
True or False: the intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures is helpful during procedures to produce brighter images but results in significantly increased patient exposure.
false
48
True or False: The technologist may violate the sterile environment in surgery if he/she is wearing sterile gloves, mask, and surgical scrubs
false
49
True or False: The surgeon is responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR
false
50
What consists of the practice and procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment?
surgical asepsis
51
List which parts of a sterile gown are considered sterile
front of the gown from the shoulders to the surgical field, and the arms up to two inches below the elbows
52
What portion(s) of the OR table is (are) considered sterile?
the top of the sterile drape
53
List the three measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a C-Arm unit in the surgical suite
Drapes Cover cassettes/grids Aware of surroundings/walk forward only
54
What is the primary advantage to using the “boost” feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure?
creates a brighter image
55
What are the 3 cardinal rules of radiation protection?
distance time shielding
56
What cardinal rule is the most effective in reducing occupational exposure?
distance
57
What anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram?
bile duct from the liver
58
A radiographic exam of the pelvicalyceal system only during surgery is termed what?
retrograde pyelogram
59
In what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography?
lithotomy
60
List an orthopedic procedure that is considered nonsurgical?
closed reduction
61
List an example of an orthopedic device that is classified as an external fixator
Ilizarov Device
62
List an orthopedic device that is often used during a hip pinning
screws or nails
63
What type of device is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, and humeral shaft fractures?
nails and external rods
64
What type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty?
compression fractures
65
What is the surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine?
laminectomy
66
In what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies?
prone
67
What are 2 internal fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery?
fusion screws/hardware harrington rods
68
ORIF is the abbreviation for?
Open Reduction Internal Fixation