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NBEO step 2 > Opto prep > Flashcards

Opto prep Flashcards

1
Q

what conditions is tilted disc syndrome seen in?

A

Crouzon and Apert syndromes

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2
Q

Crouzon syndrome inheritance and what is it and to how to treat it?

A

AD

results in proptosis b/c of :

shallow ocular orbits,
maxillary hypoplasia
abnormal craniofacial formation,
hypertelorism
potential strabismus

treat the exposure keratopathy

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3
Q

what is Oculoglandular syndrome ?

A

unilateral follicular conjunctivitis + lymphadenopathy on the same side as affected eye

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4
Q

what is Sjogren’s ? what is it associated with?

A

dry eye and dry mouth, either from destruction tear and salivary glands, or from infiltration with lymphocytes.

It is associated with autoimmune diseases of the rheumatic or collagen vascular variety.

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5
Q

what VF defect is seen in those with tilted disc syndrome?

A

bilateral superior and temporal

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6
Q

what ocular anomaly is associated with a tilted disc?

A

sinus inversus

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7
Q

what is situs inverses?

A

retinal blood vessels emerge from the disc and first go nasally before going to their natural destination

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8
Q

when performing direct opthalmoscopy. How will the refractive error of the patient (if left uncorrected) alter the image?

pt’s RE:
OD: - 7.00 -1.25 x175
OS: -6.75 -1.00 x 174

A

magnification = power of the eye (D) / 4

60 D of power in eye
myopes add power
hyperopes remove power

60+7 = 67

67/4 = 16.75x

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9
Q

what is the average axial length?

A

24 mm

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10
Q

how does an increase in axial length affect power in the eye?

A

1mm increase causes a myopic shift of 2.5 D

if hyperopic patient, the axial length would shorten theoretically

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11
Q

what refractive power is associated with those with tilted discs?

A

myope

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12
Q

what type of lens do you give a patient who is bothered by fluorescent light?

A

rose tint + AR coating

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13
Q

what is the best way to prescribe prism in aspheric glasses?

A

grind them in

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14
Q

pincushion

A

edges less magnified
distortion due to plus lenses

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15
Q

barrel

A

edges more magnified
distortion due to minus lenses

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16
Q

what are aspheric lenses? what type of coating must you have with it?

A

must have anti-glare coating with it

they have abase curve that changes progressively form the center to the edge of the lens.

makes them thinner and lighter

(+) lenses - flatten to periphery

(-) lenses steepen to periphery

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17
Q

What is this?

A

herpes Zoster keratitis

  • no terminal end bulbs, because more tapered , more infiltrative
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18
Q

how to differentiate from herpes simplex vs herpes zoster?

A

zoster - shingles (Varicella virus) - located at one dermatome on one side of the body
- dendritic lesions stain with both NaFL + rose bengal
- more infiltrate vs. ulcerative

HSV - becomes active during stress, everyone is exposed to it. Uni follicles + lymph + decreased corneal sensitivity + skin vesicles
- bulbs stain with rose bengal and main part stains with NaFl

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19
Q

what does Behçet’s disease cause?

A

bilateral non-granulamatous uveitis

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20
Q

best’s disease treatment

A

none - monitor with amsler

  • changes may indicate CNVM
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21
Q

best’s disease inheritance

A

AD

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22
Q

A PVD decreases the risk of developing what?

A

macular hole

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23
Q

what is this?

A

chorioretinal coloboma

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24
Q

what complication can develop secondary to a chorioretinal coloboma?

A

RRD

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25
Q

what condition are coloboma most frequently seen with?

A

Microphthalmia

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26
Q

what is one and a half syndrome ?

A

bilateral condition where one eye can’t move laterally at all

other eye can only move out (with nystagmus upon abduction - contra to the lesion)

convergence is spared

ex. right side lesion
- both eyes can’t look right, but OS can look left , with left beat nystagmus

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27
Q

what can you add to amoxicillin to increase its effectiveness to penicillin? and its MOA

A

clavulanic acid = inhibits beta lactamase - preserves the beta lactase ring of amoxicillin maintaining its effectiveness

clavulanic acid + amoxicillin = augmentin

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28
Q

what is this?

A

posterior embryotoxin = prominent and anteriorly displaced schwalbe’s line

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29
Q

what is this?

A

agenfeld anomaly = peripheral iris strands attached to the posterior embryotoxcin

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30
Q

what complication is axenfeld anomaly associated with?

A

glaucoma

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31
Q

what is Rieger anomaly ?

A

axenfold anomaly + iris thinning _ corectopia (displaced pupil)

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32
Q

what is Peter’s anomaly

A

central corneal opacity + iris strands adhering to the opacity margin -> looks like a donut

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33
Q

what is antimetropia?

A

one eye is myopic and the other is hyperopic

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34
Q

what is aniseikonia? Symptoms

A

size difference of perceived images between the eyes

will be symptomatic - HA, diplopia, dim vision, nausea etc.

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35
Q

what is the racial predilection for posterior embyotoxin?

A

none

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36
Q

how do you measure the trifocal segment height for glasses?

A

lower edge of the pupil margin - 1 mm

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37
Q

how should you measure add power in glasses

A

Turn the glasses around backward. remeasure distance sphere power at a point above the optical center and them measure the sphere power through the near segment

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38
Q

abbe values of polycarbonate

A

30

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39
Q

abbe value of trivex

A

43-45

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40
Q

abbe value of Cr-39

A

58

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41
Q

abbe value of crown glass

A

58

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42
Q

what is Charles Bonnet syndrome?

A

see hallucinations - nonthreatening , know not real

most common hallucination = smiley faces

blink a lot to clear the faces

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43
Q

what ocular condition has the highest association with Charles bonnet?

A

age-related macular degeneration

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44
Q

what is this?

A

angioid streaks

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45
Q

conditions causing angioid streaks

A

Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (most common)
Ehler-Danlos syndrome,
Paget’s disease of bone,
Sickle cell disease
Idiopathic

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46
Q

what is the pathophys of angioid streaks?

A

small dehiscences in the collagenous and elastic portions of Bruch’s membrane

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47
Q

what are common ocular findings associated with angioid streaks?

A

peau d’ orange
optic disc drusen

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48
Q

how do you treat/ manage angioid streaks?

A

FA

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49
Q

acids vs alkaline burns pathophys

A

alkaline burns occur more often and continue to penetrate the cornea after the initial trauma.

acidic burns - coagulate protein and the epithelium

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50
Q

corneal treatment post chemical burn

A
  1. irritate with saline
  2. cyclo for pain (NO phenyl because of vasoconstriction)
  3. antibiotic
  4. steroid - to decrease inflammation

in severe cases can use:
ascorbic acid - promotes collagen growth

citric acid - decreases inflammation

tetracyclines - decrease inflammation and ulceration

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51
Q

aspirin contraindications

A

any GI issues , can increase GI bleeding

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52
Q

how to calculate seg inset?

A

(Patient’s distance PD - near PD )/2

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53
Q

how to calculate minimal blank size

A

(frame pd - patient’s pd) + ED

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54
Q

hand neutralization

A

plus lens spherical = against motion
- need minus lens to neutralize

minus lens spherical = with motion

when sphere is neutralized - then will see no motion

same for cylinder

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55
Q

how to determine if prescription glasses you are wearing are polarized ?

A

place in front of a liquid crystal display - ex. phone, tv - when oriented perpendicular - should blacken out

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56
Q

how to insert a lens into a polycarbonate frame

A
  • cannot heat frame!
  • insert temporal first, then nasal from front of the frame
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57
Q

what frames cannot be heated?

A

polyamide
copolyamide
carbon fiber graphite
polycarbonate

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58
Q
A
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59
Q

what causes toxocariasis ?

A

round worm found in puppy poop

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60
Q

what is Gilbert’s syndrome and how does it affect the eyes?

A

AR condition that makes too much bilirubin leading to jaundice - so see yellow sclera

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61
Q

what are risk factors fro COPD?

A

low birth weight
frequent childhood infections
an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
dusty work environment
smoking !!
damp housing quarters
pollution

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62
Q

what is toxocariasis treatment?

A

corticosteroids

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63
Q

what is toxoplasmosis treatment?

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine + corticosteroids (treated in immunocompromised patients

note not everyone needs to be treating - self limiting

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64
Q

antihistamine side effects

A

ex. pataday
HA, bad taste

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65
Q

what is this?

A

lens subluxation

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66
Q

what conditions do you see lens subluxation in?

A

marphans
homocystrinuria
Weill-marchesani syndrome
ehlers-danlos
crouton disease
syphilus
anairidia

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67
Q

what is ectopia lentis?

A

bilateral lens subluxation

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68
Q

what is posterior lenticonus?

A

when the posterior aspect of the lens bulges into the vitreous

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69
Q

how does the lens subluxate in homocystinuria?

A

Inf and nasal

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70
Q

what is iridodonesis?

A

caused by ruptured/damaged zones leading to lens lents movement and quivering or the iris

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71
Q

what is phacodonesis?

A

movement/ vibration of the lens

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72
Q

how do you treat lens subluxation and symptoms?

A
  • monitor usually unless causes high astigmatism, diplopia monocular, glaucoma or inflammation
  • glasses to neutralize astigmatism
    opaque iris cls
  • prism ballast soft lens with a decentered pupil
  • rarely - pilo
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73
Q

what is the most common cause of lens subluxation?

A

trauma

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74
Q

what is this?

A

posterior capsular opacification

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75
Q

SE of a yag laser?

A

lens pitting/ damage to IOL
increase in IOP
CME
retinal detachment

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76
Q

what glaucoma drops have sulfa in them?

A

dorzolamide and diamox, cosopt

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77
Q

what is dermatochalasis?

A

extra skin

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78
Q

what is the most appropriate first line treatment for the acute signs and symptoms of vernal KCS?

A

Alex = loteprednol

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79
Q

what layer is arcus found in?

A

stroma

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80
Q

lastacaft dosing?

A

ohs

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81
Q

what causes a pupil sparing CN 3 palsy?

A

microvascular disease - HTN, DM

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82
Q

CN 3 anatomy

A

pupil fibers located superior medial

compression/anurysm -> pupil involving CN 3 palsy b/c of location of pupil fibers

vasa nervous fibers -> do not contain pupillary fibers -> affected by microvascular disease (HTN/DM)

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83
Q

CN3 palsy treatment

A

monitor if not pupil involving -> resolution typically can occur w/o treatment

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84
Q

A1c to sugar levels

A

A1c 5 = 100mg/dL

for every increase by 1 increases blood sugar by 30

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85
Q

what is this refractive surgery

A

CK

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86
Q

What RE does CK treat? CT and VA

A

< 3 D hyperopia
<-0.75 D astig

CT = 560 microns
VA 20/40 or better

good for mono vision and emmetropia presbyopes

87
Q

what does CK do to the cornea?

A

central steepening and mid-peripheral flattening

88
Q

what is this?

A

reticular pigmentary degeneration

88
Q

How do you modify the GP lens via a 3 inch drum tool to add minus power?

A

to add minus power:
hold suction cup (attached to the concave side of the lens) cover side is in contact with the sponge - rotate counterclockwise

concave side is up

89
Q

DK and lens GP lenses

A

as you increase the DK/ O2 permeability decreases the durability of the lens

  • to counteract this can add fluorine
90
Q

what is associated with aniridia?

A

lens opacities
glaucoma
strab
nystagmus
pannus
foveal hypoplasia

91
Q

what is this?

A

interstitial keratitis

92
Q

what is the most common cause of interstitial keratitis? what are other causes?

A

syphilius
HSV
HSZ
Lyme
leprosy
TB
epstein barr
parasites -> microsporidia

93
Q

HSV interstitial keratitis presentation.

A

unilateral
red, photophobic painful eye

94
Q

congenital syphilus interstitial keratitis

A

10-20yo
bilateral ‘
triad: deafness, Hutchinson’s teeth, interstitial keratitis

DFE -> optic atrophy & salt/pepper fundus

95
Q

leprosy

A

loss of outer third of eyebrow
loss of lashes
areas of hypopigmentation
thickened skin folds
corneal nerves look like beads on a string
iris nodules

96
Q

cogan syndrome

what systemic condition is it associated with?

A

bilateral interstitial keratitis

hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus

associated with systemic vasculitis like polyarteritis nodosa

97
Q

Lyme disease

A

fatigue, HA, fever

red rash with bull’s eye appearance = erthyma migrains

patient usually denies any skin rashes

98
Q

what is interstitial keratitis?

A

stromal neo + corneal edema.

usually doesn’t involve epithelium or endothelium , but may see A/C run in acute phase - with tiny kps

99
Q

how to treat interstitial keratitis?

A

topical steroids, cyclo if photophobic, and treat underlying cause
- valtrex for HSV
- IV penicillin for syphilus
- oral doxy for Lyme

100
Q

when to f/u with patient with interstitial keratitis after starting tx?

A

3-7 days

101
Q

epinephrine

A

like a topical glaucoma drug

  • decreases IOP by increasing uveoscleral and TM outflow.

SE: dilation, irritation, redness, follicle conjunctivitis, eyelid retraction, CME, black adrenchrome deposits in the inferior palpebral conj/fornix

102
Q

what is this?

A

band keratopathy

103
Q

what is band keratopathy?

A

calcium deposits in Bowman’s layer
- look like Swiss cheese

104
Q

what are DD for band k?

A
  • interstitial keratitis
  • spheroidal degeneration
  • salzmann nodular degeneration
105
Q

what is spheroidal degeneration?

A

also causes opacification of the anterior cone that begins at the peripheral interpalpebral area.

  • bilateral with amorphous globules of protein deposited in Bowmans
  • advanced lesions look nodular
106
Q

what is this?

A

salzmann nodular degeneration

107
Q

what is salzmann nodular degeneration?

A

non-inflammatory process that results in the emergence of peripheral white nodules that may be raised.

pressents in older patients who might be asymptomatic

108
Q

what causes band k?

A

chronic disease (anterior uveitis, glaucoma, keratitis)

systemically:
hyperparathyroidism
sarcoid
renal diseases

109
Q

how to treat band k?

A

mild -> ATs , ointment, and/or bandage cls

severe (ie. obscures vision and causes chronic irritation - remove calcium by chelation using EDTA
- residual stromal haze can be removed by PTK to improve vision

110
Q

what is this?

A

coats disease

111
Q

symptoms of coats disease?

A

leukocoria and strab are most common

  • some may complain of decreased VA, pain, nystagmus, heterochronic (due to iris neo)
112
Q

clinical findings of Coats? Retina and ant seg

A

ant seg = normal, may see corneal edema, NVI, A/C cholesterosis

post seg - retinal telangiectasis (inn and temporal in the periphery) , significant sub retinal and intraretinal exudation

113
Q

what is this?

A

cholesterol in the A/C

114
Q

who gets coat’s disease

A

5 year old males

115
Q

who gets retinoblastoma

A

by age 2

116
Q

pathophys of coat’s disease

A

abnormal permeability of the retinal vessels endothelium causing a breakdown of the BRB and leakage of lipid-rich exudates

117
Q

pathophys for eales’ disease

A

peripheral capillary non perfusion leading to neo, recurrent vitreous heme and potential TRD

bilateral

118
Q

how to treat coat’s disease

A

photocoagulation

119
Q

coats disease education

A
  1. idiopathic
  2. not heredity, can’t pass it on
  3. mostly affects 1 eye
  4. end stage complications if not treated TRD, NVG leading to a blind painful eye - may need enucleation if this occurs
120
Q

what is this?

A

choroidal melanoma

121
Q

in a choroidal melanoma, what associated findings increase the likelihood of requiring treatment?

A

lipofusion of the surface of the lesion

122
Q

where is the most common site of choroidal melanoma mestastsis?

A

liver

123
Q

where is the most common sites of metastasis from other sites to the choroid?

A

Breast in women and bronchus in men& women

124
Q

RP what magnification should you give them in devices?

A

do not want to give them too much because it decreases their FOV. around 2->3

125
Q

what do you use yolked prism glasses for?

A

sectoral VF loss or midline shift

126
Q

what is a closed circuit TV used for?

A

cctv is used for near vision.

if young and and can accommodate not needed

127
Q

can you use implantable telescopes for RP patients?

A

no

128
Q

how to calculate JND based on VA. What lenses would you use for trial frame refraction? example VA = 20/100

A

must be in 20 foot acuity

20/100

JND = 1.00 D

use half the JND fro TF refraction +/- 0.50

129
Q

what inheritance pattern is ushers?

A

AR

130
Q

what is legally blind?

A

20 degrees or less VF

20/200 VA

131
Q

what should all AA with trauma + hyphema be screened for?

A

sickle cell

132
Q

when do CHRPE appear?

A

birth

133
Q

what is the most common site for CHRPE?

A

temporal

134
Q

what condition is most frequently associated with myelinated fibers?

A

myopia
amblyopia
strab
nystagmus
optic neuritis
neo of the retina

135
Q
A

the condensing lens is below the common Visual axis

136
Q

how does patient accommodating affect BIO

A

over accommodation of the patient causing a blurry image

137
Q

when this patient look 7mm down from the optical center. How much prism is induced?

A

d=cF
c in cm
here the patient is looking through BD prism OU- so the prism is canceled

Pd = 0.7(-4.00) = 2.8 BD OD

pd = 0. 7 (-7.50) = 5.25 BD OS

5.25 -2.8 = 2.45 BD OS

138
Q

given that the patients’s bifocals are properly aligned and adjusted what is causing his double vision? how to resolve this?

A

when the patient looks down through the bifocal portion of lenses, a vertical imbalance is created caused by his anisometriopia resulting in diploia.

to fix it add slab off prism to the most minus lens (or least plus) because minus lenses are the thicker at the edges. Slab off prism is BU and this minimizes the thickness differences between the edge and center of the lens

139
Q

what is reverse slab off

A

adding BD prism over the more + eye to help decrease the vertical imbalance

140
Q

what does increasing panto do the prescription?

A

increase the sphere power and increase astigmatism in the same axis of rotation. induced astigmatism will have the same sign as the sphere. ex if (+) sphere -> induces more (+) sphere and and (+) cyl

ex. face wrap induce astigmatism in 90 axis

panto induces sphere in the 180 axis

141
Q

is lasik a good option for those with anisometropia?

A

yes

142
Q

what describes the most likely origin ode holenhorst plaques come from?

A

carotid bifurcation

143
Q

what tests should you do for a holenhorst plaque ?

A

FBS + lipid panel
carotid artery ultrasound
electrocardiogram

144
Q
A

50-90%

145
Q

what is this?
hx. painful, blurry vision, deep ache
cataract surgery 2 days ago

A

Seidel sign leading to hypotony

146
Q

what is hypotony?

A

low IOP

can occur secondary to trauma, eye surgery (usually glaucoma), uveitis, RD, pharmacologic (CAI + B blocker), vascular occlusive disease
dehydration , myotonic dystrophy

147
Q

what is Posner schlossman syndrome?

A

= glaucomatocyclitic crisis

recurrent unilateral rise in IOP (40-60) with minimal intraocular inflammation
- ciliary flush
slug/dialted pupil
mild Ac run

148
Q

how do you treat hypotony caused by a small leak secondary to eye surgery?

A

pressure patching - if would fails to be closed after pressure patching -> suture

149
Q

what is this?

A

phthiriasis

150
Q

what is phthiriasis?

A

caused by pubic crab lice
- might see small brown deposits on the lid margin (feces), dried blood, circular clear nits (eggs), might see them on the eyelashes.

  • focclicles, pre auricular lymphadenopathy , marginal keratitis (extreme cases)
151
Q

what is pediculosis pubis?

A

also like phthirus, but more mobile. ie. moves to scalp and other hair bearing structures

152
Q

pthirus transmission

A

due to over-crowding ( must in close contact), or poor hygiene

  • in a child -> look for sexual abuse
153
Q

treatment of pthirus

A

mechanical removal of all nits and lice -> place on alcohol

bacitracin post removal

all clothes, towels, bedding msuct be washed and dried in high heat then sealed in a bag for 14 days. let any sexual partners from previous know

refer to PCP b/c it is a sexually transmitted disease

154
Q

basic esophoria

A

eso at D & N , equal in magnitude or within 5 PD
avg Ac/A
decreased (-) fusional vergences at D and n

155
Q

Ac/A ratio

A

excess -> high Ac/A ration
basic - average
insufficiency -> low Ac/A ratio

Average - 3-5
help us determine if magnitude of (+) lenses will help. higher the Ac/A the more effective lenses will be

calculating Ac/A = PD(in mm) + wd(in m)*(near-distance phoria)

ex 2/1 ratio = Ac/A -> rxing 1 D will change the phoria by 2

156
Q

red lens + light suppression

A
  • ideally want to see pink light or 2 lights

suppression at 40 cm = peripheral suppression

suppression at 6 = central suppression

suppression in moderate light, but not dim = shallow

suppression in dim = deep

157
Q

what is this? why does it occur?

A

PPM

due to failure of the fetal fissure to atrophy

158
Q

what is this?

A

lattice dystrophy

159
Q

what is lattice dystrophy ? Inheritance?

A

Stroma

160
Q

what is this

A

epicapsular stars

161
Q

what are epicapsular stars

A
162
Q

what is posterior polymorphous dystrophy? Prognosis? Treatment? Complication?

A
163
Q

what is this?

A

posterior polymorphous dystrophy?

164
Q

what is this?

A

conjunctival nevus

165
Q

what is this?

A

melanocytoma

166
Q

what is this?

A

conjunctival melanocytoma

167
Q

what eye?

A

OS

168
Q

what eye?

A

OD

169
Q

where is the lesion if you see a complete homonymous hemianopic VF defect?

A

cannot determine

170
Q

CVA

A

patients that went through a stroke will have VF loss contralateral to the stroke and hemiparesis contra to the stroke

171
Q

warfarin MOA

A

inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors

172
Q

patient has pseudo-exfoliation syndrome

or excessive glare
+ acute angle closure

A

acute angle closure - lens can move forward

173
Q

IOP in pseudo exfoliation?

A

undergoes large fluctuations

174
Q

macolides

A

erythromycin
azithromycin

bind 50 s subunit of lysosomes

175
Q

in kids what condition is usually observed with bacterial conjunctivitis ?

A

otitis media

176
Q

Lyme disease treatment

A

doxy, tetra, or amoxicillin

if allergic erythromycin

177
Q

aminoglycosides

A

tobramycin
gentamicin
neomycin

inhibit protein synthesis of bacteria and create openings in their cell membranes

178
Q

what infections do you report to the CDC?

A

syphilus
gonorrhea
chlamydia

179
Q

what is this?

A

marginal keratitis

180
Q

what is phlyctenulosis?

A

small white nodules at the limbus
associated with corneal epithelial ulceration , can migrate into the central cone leaving corneal scarring and neo behind the leading edge of the phlyctenule

181
Q

what is thygesons spk?

A

chronic bilateral condition with exacerbations and remissions

macropunctate grey-white corneal epithelial opacities that look slightly elevated and stain centrally with NaFL

  • no other inflammatory signs noted
182
Q

what is this?

A

thygesons spk

183
Q

what organisms can penetrate an intact corneal epithelium?

A

gonorrhea
corneabacteium diptheriaw

n meningitdis
listeria
shigella

184
Q

how do you treat marginal keratitis

A

treat the blepharitis + steroid (if symptomatic)

185
Q

if the marginal keratitis was left untreated what would happen?

A

it would resolve

186
Q

variable tranaglyphs training

A

= vectrograms

target becomes larger as it moves father away (divergence)

target becomes smaller and moves closer to the patient (convergence)

SILO

if see opposite , means parent is using apparent cues and not vergence cues

186
Q

prism needed in order for comfortable binocular vision

A

2/3 phoria - 1/3 compensating fusion mergence they have

187
Q

treatment for eso at distance

A

BO prism is the best
hard to do Vision therapy

188
Q

calculate the mergence demand of a vectrogram

A

demand = target separation in cm/ training distance in meters

189
Q

DEM analysis

A

low score vertical test - indicate problem with naming numbers (automaticity)

low score on horizontal (trouble with automaticity or oculomotor)
- normal ratio: problem is automaticity
- abnormal ratio (large ratio- worse on horizontal than vertical - problem is both automaticity and oculomotor)

190
Q
A
191
Q

48 YO AA female
blurry distorted vision OU (straight lines appear wavy OS)

A

polypoidal

192
Q

what systemic condition is associated with polypoidal and can increase its severity

A

HTN

193
Q

how to manage/test polypoidal?

A

ICG - affects choroid

194
Q

which population has the highest predilection for polypoidal?

A
195
Q

do allergies cause palpable nodes?

A

no

196
Q

completing a cls residency

A
197
Q

what is this

A

Terrien’s marginal degeneration

198
Q

when can you do corneal cxl

A

35 or younger
max K under 65
corneal thickness greater than 400
VA 20/30 or worse

199
Q

what is the double Maddox rod test

A
200
Q

what is parry Romberg syndrome?

A
201
Q

what is this?

A

BRAO

202
Q

which is more common BRAO or CRAO?

A

CRAO more common

203
Q

are temporal or nasal arteries more frequently involved in BRAO?

A

temporal

204
Q

BRAO prognosis

A

serveral days have passed since the onset of symptoms - so irreversible damage has occurred.

if occur acutely should be considered an ocular emergency - 90-120 mins to cause permanent damage
- tx: ocular massage , anterior chamber paragenesis , acezolamide to decrease IOP, hyperventilation (acidosis )

205
Q

what is a cluster HA? Symptoms? Duration? Association? Trigger?

A

extremely intense unilateral pain located orbital, supraorbital to temporal.
- feels like a red hot poker inserted into the eye
- duration of each attack 15-18 mins and occur several times a day at a precise time

  • associated with mild ptosis, miosis, injection, lacrimation, and runny nose ipsilateral
  • occur for a period of several weeks followed by a free period lasting weeks, months, or years. small % can be chronic
  • associated with Horners
  • alcohol and nitroglycerin can promote the HA
206
Q

why does a cluster HA occur?

A

hypothalamus causes the wall of the cavernous sinus to become inflamed -> triggering the trigeminal nerve

aslo involves the sphenopalatine ganglion - why you get tearing and a runny nose.

207
Q

how do you treat a cluster HA?

A

oxygen therapy

208
Q

why shouldn’t aspirin be used in kids?

A

Reye’s syndrome

209
Q

what is reye’s syndrome?

A

fatal condition, affects all organs due to abnormal accumulation of fat along with a severe increase in the pressure in the brain.

210
Q

what is Raynaud’s syndrome?

A
211
Q

what is Steven- Johnson’s syndrome?

A

NBEO step 2 (3 decks)

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