Optho & ENT Flashcards

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1
Q

When does an infant start to fix on a face?

A

2 months

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2
Q

When does an infant have good colour vision?

A

5 months

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3
Q

What is amblyopia?

A
  • Decreased best corrected visual acuity
    • Cannot be explained by structural causes in the eye
    • Persists even when other causes of decrease acuity are immediately corrected (such as refractive error)
  • Caused by abnormal visual experience during early childhood
  • Suppression of visual development “in the brain” before age 10 years
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4
Q

What are treatment options for amblyopia?

A
  • Intense treatment early in life = highest chance of success
  • However, it is never too late to attempt treatment of amblyopia
  • Options:
    • Refractive error correction
      • Spectables/contact lenses
    • Occlusion therapy = patching
    • Cycloplegic eye drops (atropine) prevent accommodation
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5
Q

What is strabismus?

A

Misalignment of the eyes. Can be eso, exo, hypo and hypertropia. Amblyopia can cause strabismus

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6
Q

What is the treatment for infantile, early onset esotropia?

A

Surgery as early as possible! Strabismus in first 3 months of life however is normal

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7
Q

What is accomodative esotropia?

A
  • Typically presents at age 18 months to 5 years
  • Worse at near than at distance
  • Significant risk of causing amblyopia
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8
Q

How would a cranial nerve 3 palsy present?

A

Eye down and out (hypotropia with exotropia), ptosis and dilated pupil (mydriasis)

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9
Q

How does bacterial conjunctivitis present and what is the treatment?

A

Red eye with purulent green/yellow discharge. Typically community acquired is self limited (70% improve by 48hrs). Antibiotic treatment only needed to limit transmission and duration. Any topical antibiotic at appropriate dose x 7 days is effective

* Example:
    * Fusidic acid BID
    * Polymyxin B sulfate/gramidicidin QID
    * Ofloxacin q2-4h x 48 hours then QID
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10
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Increased intraocular pressure that can damage optic nerve. Presents as tearing, photophobia, squinting in light

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11
Q

What is a coloboma? What syndrome is it associated with?

A

A coloboma is incomplete fusion of the embryonic optic cup, incomplete fusion of the iris. Associated with CHARGE syndrome

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12
Q

What is retinoblastoma?

A

Malignant tumour of developing retinal cells, an RB1 gene mutation which is a tumour suppressor gene. Presents commonly as leukocoria.

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13
Q

Who qualifies for ROP screening?

A

Anyone born less then 31 weeks OR birthweight <1250g

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14
Q

When should ROP screening begin?

A

When CGA 31 weeks for all those born before 27 weeks and 4 weeks post for all those born at 28 weeks and later

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15
Q

When does croup typically present and what common viruses cause it?

A

Croup typically presents at age 6 months to 3 years of age. Typical viruses that cause it are parainfluenza types 1 and 3.

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16
Q

What is the treatment for croup?

A

Dexamethasone 0.6mg/kg for all severity. 0.5mL Racemic nebulized epinephrine in 2.5mL normal saline or 5mL 1:1000 L-epinephrine for those severe

17
Q

What are the criteria for admission in croup?

A

Severe that have received nebulized epinephrine and are observed for more then 4 hours post oral Dexamethasone and still have moderate respiratory distress, stridor at rest and chest wall indrawing

18
Q

What do you refer for ear tube placement?

A
  • Recurrent AOM with middle ear effusion (over 3-4 per season)
  • Bilateral OME (>3 months) with conductive hearing loss
  • Unilateral/bilateral OME (>3 months) with other problems
    • Vestibular, behavioural problems, discomfort, school performance
19
Q

What is the most common congenital cause of SNHL?

A

Congenital CMV

20
Q

What are the indications for adenotonsillectomy?

A
  • OSA (AHI >5/hr) and large tonsils
  • Cor pulmonale
  • Suspected malignancy
  • Hemorrhagic tonsillitis
  • Severe dysphagia
21
Q

What is Lemierre syndrome?

A

Septic thrombophlebitis in the IJV typically caused by the fusobacterium necrophorum. Infection typically originates in the mouth and spreads via the septic thrombophlebitis

22
Q

What are the symptoms of a peritonsillar abscess?

A

Adolescent with recent pharyngotonsilitis who now has trismus, hot potato voice, dysphagia, uvular deviation

23
Q

How is otitis externa treated?

A

Topical antibiotics for 7 to 10 days such as polysporin plus ear drops

24
Q

What are the midline neck masses?

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst, dermoid cyst, teratoma, cervical cleft, foregut duplication cyst

25
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment for sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin (45mg/kg/d) divided BID. Amox- clav if concern of resistance

26
Q

How does vocal cord dysfunction present?

A

intermittent daytime wheezing, SOB, coughing due to vocal cords closing inappropriately during inspiration. Truncated inspiratory curve on spirometry is seen

27
Q

A child presents with purulent conjunctivitis and finding of AOM. What antibiotic therapy should you treat with?

A

In the setting of AOM with purulent conjunctivitis, H influenzae and M catarrhalis are common pathogens and therefore treatment with a beta-lactamase inhibitor Amoxicillin combination (eg: Amox Clav) or a second generation cephalosporin (eg: Cefuroxime) is preferred

28
Q

How does mastoiditis present and how is it treated?

A

Mastoiditis causes anterior rotation of the ear with forward displacement, erythema behind the ear. Treatment is IV Vancomycin (to cover resistant strep pneumo) and if has recurrent AOM then it is Vancomycin + anti-psuedomonal agent

29
Q

New onset URTI type symptoms followed shortly after by progress bilateral swelling starting in the preauricular area and progressing down to the jaw. Tender bilaterally. What is it?

A

Bilateral conjunctivitis with bilateral preauricular lymphadenopathy is often due to adenovirus

30
Q

What is Gradenigo syndrome?

A

suppurative OM, paralysis of the external rectus muscle (cranial nerve 6 palsy), and pain in the ipsilateral orbit