Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

6901 > Opthalmic and Dental Procedures > Flashcards

Opthalmic and Dental Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Colored part of eye?

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tough, fibrous, white outermost layer of eye?

A

sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Small, pink nodule in corner of eye; lacrimal duct?

A

caruncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Keeps objects from sliding behind eyeball?

A

conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where topical opthalamic drugs are administered?

A

conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Part of the eye that forms the optic sheath encircling the optic nerve?

A

sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 out layers of the eye?

A

sclera, cornea, conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tough outer layer of eye that is transparent and is the anterior part of the sclera

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Middle layers of eye?

A

uveal tract, (choroid, iris, ciliary body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Innermost layer of eye?

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Layer that produces O2 for retina?

A

choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Are there capillaries in retina?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Part of eye that is a neurosensory membrane which converts light impulses to neural impulses via the optic nerve to the brain

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This thick fluid is attached to blood vessels and optic nerve?

A

vitreous gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Major cause of vision loss?

A

retinal detachments from choroid layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 layers of tissue which provides most of the nutrients to the eye?

A

uveal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Part of the uveal tract which contains blood vessels, is posterior, and supports the retina?

A

choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Part of the uveal tract which controls light entry with muscle fibers and changes the pupil size?

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sympathetic nervous system control of the iris does what and parasympathetic does what?

A

SNS- dilate; PNS- constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 functions of the ciliary body?

A

secretes aqueous fluid and controls shape of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do the ciliary muscles change the shape of the lens?

A

tension on the Zonule of Zinn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is aqueous humor drained?

A

Schlems Canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is aqueous humor formed?

A

posterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The 3 chambers of the eye ball?

A

anterior, posterior, viterous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IOP is determined by? And what should it be?

A

rate of aqueous humor formation to outflow; 25 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which chamber is blocked in glaucoma?

A

anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Schlemms canal is in which chamber?

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Balance between production and elimination of aqueous humor formation maintains an average volume of what?

A

250 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IOP is usually between what and what?

A

10-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Part of eye that is fibrous connective tissue from corneal limbus to behind the eye orbit?

A

Tenon capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Main function of Tenon capsule?

A

serves as cavity in which eye moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Term for near sighted and far sighted?

A

myopia; hyperopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which type vision is elongated and the focal point is nearer to the lens?

A

myopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which type of vision is where the eye is short and the focal point is further from the lens?

A

hyperopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of vision is a concern with a retrobulbar block? And why?

A

myopia; bc the globe is elongated and the sclera is stretched thin so it is easier to puncture with a needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What part of the eye turns the image in to the correct perspective?

A

optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The optic nerve is a direct connection to what?

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which type of vision requires glasses for most of life?

A

myopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An elongated globe is longer than __mm?

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A short globe is shorter than __mm?

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many muscles are in the eye?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The rectus muscles originate from where and how many are there?

A

annulus of Zin; 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This nerve controls the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles? And is it SNS or PNS innervation?

A

oculomotor nerve (III); PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which way do the rectus muscles pull the eye?

A

in the direction of their attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle?

A

abducens (VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many cranial nerves control the eye?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many oblique muscles of the eye are there?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which nerve controls the superior oblique muscle?

A

trochlear (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which nerve controls the inferior oblique muscle?

A

oculomotor (III)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which muscle rotates the eye towards the nose or intorts?

A

superior oblique/trochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which muscle rotates the eye sideways/extorts/vertical gaze action?

A

inferior oblique/oculomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is the annulus of Zin? And which muscles originate there?

A

orbital apex; all ocular muscles except the obliques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CN that conveys visional info from retina to occipital lobe?

A

optic/II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CN that controls tears and closes the eye lids?

A

facial/VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CN that is the efferent pathway for oculocardiac reflex -bradycardia and dysrythmias?

A

X/vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why is an injection in to the optic nerve sheath basically an injection in to the CNS?

A

it is covered by meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2 branches of the facial nerve (CN VII)?

A

temporal and zygomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why do you sometimes block the facial nerve with an eye block?

A

because the branches control the opening and closing of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many bones and what are they that form the eye orbit?

A

7; frontal, sphenoid, lacrimal, ethmoid, maxillary, palatine, zygomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is each eye orbit shaped?

A

like a pear and has 4 sided pyramid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is the blood supply to the rectus muscles from? And where is it primarily from?

A

1st branch of internal carotid artery, primarily from opthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Medial muscular branch is?

A

medial rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique (MII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The lateral muscular branch is?

A

lateral rectus, superior rectus, and superior oblique (LSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Ciliary artery branches in to (2)?

A

short posterior and long posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

This artery supplies the globe, choroid, optic nerve head, and external part of retina?

A

short posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This artery of the ciliary artery gives rise to the 7 anterior ciliary vessels and supplies the anterior eye?

A

long posterior

67
Q

Each rectus muscles has __ anterior ciliary vessels except the ______ rectus muscle has 1?

A

2; lateral

68
Q

Topical opthalmic medications can have systemic absorption thru (2)?

A

conjunctiva and lacrimal duct because it goes in to the nasal mucosa

69
Q

If a block or GA not used for cataract, what 4 things are given?

A

tetracaine, dilator, steroid, abx

70
Q

How quickly are eye drops absorbed?

A

slower than IV, but faster than SQ

71
Q

Suxxs contraindicated with taking with what eye drop? Why?

A

echothipate- may prolong the effects of Suxxs w plasma cholinesterase 3-7 weeks after d/c

72
Q

What class of drug is echothiopate?

A

IRREVERSIBLE cholinesterase inhibitor

73
Q

What does echothipate produce in the eye?

A

miosis

74
Q

How do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work as eye drops?

A

reduce aqueous humor production (glaucoma)

75
Q

What does miosis do to the pupils?

A

constricts

76
Q

Mydriasis does what to pupils?

A

dilates

77
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome is and which drug do you have to be careful about that with?

A

mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, dry as a bone; atropine

78
Q

Why is atropine used as an eye drop?

A

it dilates the pupils; mydriasis; opthalmic capillary decongestion

79
Q

What do phenylephrine and epinephrine do to the pupil?

A

mydriasis

80
Q

What gas do you have to avoid with sulfur hexafluoride (SF6)?

A

N20

81
Q

Metallic taste after eye drop can be a sign of toxicity but is often d/t?

A

LA passing thru nasal mucosa

82
Q

What can you do after eye drop administration to reduce systemic absorption (3)?

A

close eyes for 60 seconds, avoid blinking, block tear outflow canal with index finger (with eye closed)

83
Q

This topical anesthetic med stings on administration?

A

tetracaine

84
Q

What does alkalizing a solution with sodium bicarb do to the absorption?

A

decreases the onset time

85
Q

A protein enzyme that speeds onset of eye drops by promoting the even spread of the local anesthetic, especially in the peribulbar technique?

A

hyaluronidase

86
Q

This type of anesthesia is used for ocular procedures if need suppresion of oculocardio reflex, akinsia, and analgesia?

A

regional

87
Q

3 types of regional anesthesia for ocular procedures?

A

retrobulbar block, peribulbar techniques, sub tenon block

88
Q

A synonym for retrobulbar block?

A

intraconal block

89
Q

Which block is not very common any more?

A

sub tenons

90
Q

Why is a sub tenons block contraindicated in glaucoma?

A

it raises the IOP

91
Q

This block is better for anticoagulated patients at risk for retrobulbar hemorrhage?

A

sub tenons

92
Q

Volume of orbit and volume of globe in mL?

A

30 mL, 7mL

93
Q

In this type of block, the tip of the needle is inserted behind the globe?

A

retrobulbar

94
Q

What type of block is sometimes required to go along with retrobulbar block?

A

facial

95
Q

This type of block limits eyelid squinting?

A

orbicularis occuli

96
Q

2 types of approaches for retrobulbar block?

A

transcutaneously or transconjunctivally

97
Q

This type of eye block includes an injection outside of the cone?

A

peribulbar block

98
Q

Some differences between retrobulbar and peribulbar blocks (5)?

A

retro: intraconal, deep needle placement w/in orbit, small volume 2-4 mL, fast onset 2 min, may need facial nerve block or eye lid block; extraconal: extraconal, needle away from optic nerve, larger volume 10-12 mL, latency of onset-10 minutes

99
Q

Even pressure should be placed on the eye post block in order to (3)?

A

diffuse LA, reduce IOP, soften the eye

100
Q

Honan device applies how much pressure and for how long?

A

30-40 mm Hg; 5 minutes

101
Q

How should a digital massage after an eye block be done?

A

30 sec on, 5 sec off

102
Q

Best block as far as pain on injection goes?

A

peribulbar

103
Q

Best block for blocking surgical pain?

A

sub tenons

104
Q

Best block to cause eye akinesia?

A

retrobulbar

105
Q

Most frequent complication from eye block?

A

retrobulbar hemorrhage (and maybe superficial hemorrhage too-it’s not clear)

106
Q

Which anesthetic should you avoid if a patient is allergic to esther anesthetics?

A

tetracaine

107
Q

3 symptoms of retrobulbar hemorrhage?

A

subconjunctival hemorrhage, proptosis (bulging of eye), increased IOP

108
Q

What does occlusion of retinal artery do to loss of vision? And when can this occur?

A

partial to complete loss of vision; with increased IOP

109
Q

2 types of treatment for retrobulbar hemorrhage?

A

digital pressure and lateral canthotomy

110
Q

2 ways in which a lateral canthotomy works?

A

increases the orbital space; reduces the orbital pressure that results from hemorrhage

111
Q

The contralateral pupil should be constricted/dilated prior to the ocular block and if it constricts/dilates after the block that means it’s a subarachnoid or subdural injection?

A

constricted; dilated

112
Q

How soon after injection does it occur that it was injected in to the subarachnoid/subdural space?

A

15 seconds

113
Q

S/s of intravascular injection and optic nerve sheath penetration?

A

painless vision loss, disorientation, vomiting, aphasia, hemiplegia, unconsciousness, convulsions, respiratory or cardiac arrest a few minutes after!

114
Q

This type of complication from a block is not always noticeable and may be delayed for days?

A

globe puncture

115
Q

Globe puncture is easy to do in patients with ?

A

long eye/severely mioptic

116
Q

Most devastating injury d/t anesthetic injection?

A

globe injury so if there is resistance stop!

117
Q

Treatment of globe puncture?

A

it depends but if severe it’s a vitreoretinal

118
Q

S/s globe puncture?

A

increased resistance to injection, immediate dilation and paralysis of pupil, rapid increase in IOP, edematous cornea, subconjunctival hemorrhage, pain and agitation, hypotony of globe (IOP

119
Q

Measures to reduce likelihood of complications from nerve block?

A

use 1 1/4 in needle, caution in patients with longer axial lengths (miopia/near sighted), avoid supranasal position of gaze, direct needle away from axis of globe, observe globe movement with needle insertion, insert needle slowly, do not force injection, use modified retrobulbar or peribulbar techniques

120
Q

S/s of persistent extraocular muscle paralysis and ptosis?

A

verticle diplopia (double vision)

121
Q

Treatment of persistent extraocular muscle paralysis and ptosis?

A

surgical correction of injury to EOM

122
Q

2 causes of facial nerve trauma (Bell’s Palsy)?

A

direct nerve trauma caused by needle or neurotoxicity of LA

123
Q

Normal IOP range?

A

10-22

124
Q

IOP follows what BP?

A

arterial

125
Q

Increased IOP means what to the intraocular volume?

A

decreased intraocular volume

126
Q

Open globe is permanet or reversible eye damage?

A

permanent

127
Q

2 parts of acid base system that decrease IOP?

A

hypoxia and hypercarbia

128
Q

Anesthetic drug that decreases IOP and 2 that increase IOP?

A

volatile gasses; ketamine, anectine

129
Q

Afferent and efferent pathways for oculocardiac reflex involve which cranial nerves?

A

afferent-trigeminal; efferent-vagal

130
Q

3 causes of oculocardiac reflex?

A

traction of extraocular muscles, pressure on globe, ocular manipulation

131
Q

4 rhythms that can occur d/t OCR?

A

bradycardia, junctional rhythm, ventricular ectopy, asystole

132
Q

2 ways to block OCR?

A

ocular block or deep sedation

133
Q

Treatment for OCR?

A

atropine

134
Q

Most common pediatric ocular operation?

A

strabismus

135
Q

Why should you avoid Suxxs for strabismus surgery?

A

strabismus is more likely to reflect underlying myopathy so MH is more likely to occur

136
Q

A surgery that is high risk for OCR?

A

strabismus

137
Q

Strabismus surgery has as high as what percentage of N/V?

A

80%

138
Q

Avoid what gas with SF6 and perfluorocarbons? And why? And how long?

A

N2O; can tamponade the retina; 10 days after injection N20 should be avoided

139
Q

Difference between closed and open angle glaucoma?

A

closed angle is acute and where outflow is obstructed; closed is chronic and because of impaired aqueous drainage

140
Q

What is treatment for glaucoma?

A

miotic drugs

141
Q

Avoid what 2 drugs in glaucoma patients?

A

scopolamine and atropine drops

142
Q

Main goal in patients with glaucoma?

A

prevent increases in IOP

143
Q

What is unique about open eye procedures as far as anesthesia is concerned?

A

treat as full stomach

144
Q

2 contraindications regarding open eye surgeries?

A

retrobulbar block and awake intubation with suxxs

145
Q

Most common cause of postoperative eye pain after general anesthesia?

A

corneal abrasion

146
Q

Treatment of corneal abrasion?

A

antibiotic ointment and patching for about 2 days

147
Q

Treatment for acute glaucoma?

A

IV Mannitol or Acetazolamide and consult opthmologist

148
Q

2 surgeries that put pt at risk for post op vision loss?

A

spine surgery in prone position and cardiac surgery

149
Q

4 risk factors for post op vision loss?

A

hypotension, anemia, increased IOP, prone and head down position

150
Q

Dental specialty that involves treating diseases and supporting and surrounding tissue of the teeth?

A

Periodonics

151
Q

Dental specialty that encompasses pulp and root of tooth?

A

endodontics

152
Q

Dental specialty encompassing rehab and maintenance of oral function and appearance of the

A

prosthodontics/orthodontist

153
Q

Dental specialty for defects and esthetic aspects of maxilofacial region?

A

oral and maxilofacial surgery

154
Q

What anatomical features place the dental patient at risk for severe pain?

A

maxillary and mandibular divisions of trigeminal nerve

155
Q

Is it easier to numb the upper or lower teeth and why?

A

upper because bone is thinner

156
Q

What are the main nerves you’re numbing on mandible for dental procedure?

A

lingual nerve and inferior alveolar nerve

157
Q

Most common cause of postoperative eye pain after general anesthesia?

A

corneal abrasion

158
Q

Treatment of corneal abrasion?

A

antibiotic ointment and patching for about 2 days

159
Q

Treatment for acute glaucoma?

A

IV Mannitol or Acetazolamide and consult opthmologist

160
Q

2 surgeries that put pt at risk for post op vision loss?

A

spine surgery in prone position and cardiac surgery

161
Q

4 risk factors for post op vision loss?

A

hypotension, anemia, increased IOP, prone and head down position

162
Q

Why do you not want to get a lot of Afrin spray in the nose?

A

it can increase the BP

163
Q

What kind of intubation is usually used for dental procedures?

A

nasal

6901 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions