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OPS Flashcards

1
Q

For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at an alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

Select one:

a. 0.8
b. 0.5
c. 0.6
d. 0.7

A

d. 0.7

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2
Q

Which of the following criteria must the landing mass of an aeroplane comply with? Select one:

a. Allow a fast turn off lane to be used at a speed up to 60 knots.
b. Land and stop within the landing distance available (LDA).
c. Clear all approach obstacles and stop within the length of the runway (including the overrun).
d. Allow a continuous descent on a 3° glide path with cruise power set (no drag enhancers used)

A

b. Land and stop within the landing distance available (LDA). Correct

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3
Q

A windscreen wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off mass: Select one:

a. Greater than 3600 kg.
b. Equal to or greater than 5700 kg.
c. Greater than 5700 kg.
d. Equal to or greater than 15,000 kg

A

c. Greater than 5700 kg.

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4
Q

According to EU-OPS, which statement is true? Select one:

a. Before take-off, the commander must satisfy himself that the landing forecast is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.
b. Before commencing take-off, the commander must be satisfied that the RVR is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.
c. A commander must satisfy himself, before take-off, that the RVR in the take-off direction is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.
d. Before take-off, the commander must ensure that the weather at the departure aerodrome is above the applicable minima for landing.

A

A commander must satisfy himself, before take-off, that the RVR in the take-off direction is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.

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5
Q

A VFR flight operated as a controlled flight in class B and C airspace requires: Select one:

a. Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements.
b. More restrictive anti-icing systems.
c. Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements plus attitude indicator and precise barometric indications.
d. Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements.

A

Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements.

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6
Q

In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) included? Select one:

a. The Aeroplane Flight Manual.
b. In the Operations Officer’s documents.
c. The Operations Manual.
d. In the Maintenance Documents.

A

c. The Operations Manual.

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7
Q

An operator must be approved in accordance with which document to ensure airworthiness of aeroplanes?

A

EU- 145

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8
Q

If flying an Eastbound NAT track crossing 030°W at 1000UTC, the type of flight would be: Select one:

a. Night time OTS.
b. Daytime OTS.
c. Random track.
d. Disorganised track.

A

c. Random track.

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9
Q

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the: Select one:

a. Ground speed.
b. Indicated airspeed.
c. True airspeed.
d. Mach number.

A

d. Mach number.

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10
Q

In the case of a radio failure within the NAT region, what are the correct actions to be taken? Select one:

a. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance to the last specified oceanic route point, select A/7600 and divert to the nearest suitable airfield after landfall.
b. Maintain flight plan route, climb when planned to the subsequent flight levels, select A/7600 and conform to state procedures when out of the NAT region.
c. Maintain last received oceanic clearance including level and Mach number, squawk A/7600 and land as soon as practicable when out of the NAT region.
d. Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed, squawk A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified oceanic route point.

A

Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed, squawk A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified oceanic route point.

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11
Q

The organised track system (OTS) is based on timings of aircraft at 030°W. What are the parameters for these timings? Select one:

a. 1130Z until 1900Z for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
b. 1130Z until 1800Z for eastbound traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.
c. 1100Z until 1830Z for daytime traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.
d. 1100Z until 1830Z for eastbound traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for westbound traffic.

A

a. 1130Z until 1900Z for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time traffic.

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12
Q

An aeroplane within MNPSA can no longer maintain its clearance and is unable to obtain a revised clearance from the relevant OCA. Having taken the initial correct procedures, the captain decides to change the aeroplane’s level by +500 ft. Is he: Select one:

a. Above FL 430.
b. Below FL430.
c. At FL430.
d. Below FL410.

A

d. Below FL410.

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13
Q

When a pilot incorrectly reads back a NAT clearance and it is not picked up by ATC, it is called: Select one:

a. An ATC system loop error.
b. A waypoint insertion error.
c. A violation.
d. Just one of those things.

A

a. An ATC system loop error.

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14
Q

Minimum lateral separation in NAT is: Select one:

a. 60 nm above FL285.
b. 90 nm between all aircraft in NAT.
c. 60 nm between aircraft operating below MNPSA.
d. 90 nm above FL285.

A

a. 60 nm above FL285.

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15
Q

In MNPSA, when one aircraft is following another at the same Mach number, the minimum longitudinal separation is: Select one:

a. 20 minutes
b. 13 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 15 minutes

A

c. 10 minutes

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16
Q

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-to-air communications is: Select one:

a. 128.8 MHz
b. 118.8 MHz
c. 121.8 MHz
d. 123.45 MHz

A

d. 123.45 MHz

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17
Q

A check on the operation of the SELCAL during a transatlantic flight using the OTS must be carried out: Select one:

a. When crossing the Oceanic Airspace boundary.
b. At or prior to entering the NAT region.
c. 30 minutes prior to entering the NAT region.
d. As soon as possible after obtaining Oceanic Clearance.

A

b. At or prior to entering the NAT region.

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18
Q

Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given

a. Certificate of Airworthiness.
b. Insurance certificate.
c. Aircraft registration.
d. Air Operator’s Certificate(AOC).

A

d. Air Operator’s Certificate(AOC).

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19
Q

One of the conditions for the granting of an AOC is that; Select one:

a. An operator must not sub-contract training of flight crew.
b. An operator must use their own simulators for training flight crew.
c. An operator has to have a base at every aerodrome used.
d. An operator must have a quality system as defined in CS-OPS.

A

d. An operator must have a quality system as defined in CS-OPS.

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20
Q

In order to satisfy the requirements for the issue of an Air Operator’s Certificate (AOC), the operator must appoint certain key personnel within the organisation. Which of the following is one of those key persons? Select one:

a. A flight operations manager.
b. A ramp supervisor.
c. A chief maintenance engineer.
d. A ground training instructor

A

a. A flight operations manager.

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21
Q

he ILS Cat I system minima is: Select one:

a. 50 feet
b. 200 feet
c. 08 feet
d. 100 feet

A

b. 200 feet (550 m RVR)

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22
Q

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the indicated weather conditions at destination or a nominated alternate are: Select one:

a. At or above the minima between departure and the ETA.
b. At departure equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use.
c. At the intended time of arrival equal to or better than the aerodrome operating minima.
d. At the intended time of arrival and within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time, the operating minima for aerodrome use.

A

At the intended time of arrival equal to or better than the aerodrome operating minima.

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23
Q

Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) is based on several factors. Which combination of the following are factors assessed in defining AOM?

  1. Runway length.
  2. Crew composition.
  3. Means used to report meteorological conditions.
  4. Obstacles in the go around area.
A

1, 2, 3 & 4

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24
Q

It is normal practice to couple the autopilot (flight control system) to the ILS for an ILS approach and landing, and the systems are categorised as fail passive or fail operational. To what does this refer? Select one:

a. It determines whether the landing can be made automatically after a failure.
b. A fail passive system becomes a fail operational system when there is an equipment failure in the aeroplane.
c. It indicates the response if the localiser or glide path information becomes unreliable.
d. In a fail passive situation, the pilot will have to consult the MEL before continuing the approach.

A

a. It determines whether the landing can be made automatically after a failure.

fail passive:

A flight control system is fail passive if in the event of a failure there is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail-passive flight control system, the pilot ASSUMES CONTROL after failure.

fail operational:

A flight control system is fail-opretaional if, in the event of a failure below alert height the approach flare and landing can be complete automatically in the even of a failure. Page 56 OPS

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25
Q

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to: Select one:

a. 3600 m
b. 2400 m
c. 1600 m
d. 1500 m

A

b. 2400 m

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26
Q

Aerodrome operating minima are required to be specified for: Select one:

a. Aerodromes where no convenient alternate exists.
b. Aerodromes to be used in IMC.
c. Each of the aerodromes to be used in operations.
d. Only departure and destination aerodromes.

A

c. Each of the aerodromes to be used in operations.

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27
Q

What is the definition of a low visibility take-off? Select one:

a. A take-off where the RVR is less than 400 m.
b. A take-off where the aeroplane maintains the runway centre-line automatically.
c. A take-off when Cat II and III operations are available.
d. A take-off where the cloud base is below 200 ft.

A

a. A take-off where the RVR is less than 400 m.

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28
Q

According to EU Ops, when can special VFR be commenced? Select one:

a. Greater than 5 km vis.
b. Visibility no more than 3000 m.
c. Visibility greater than 1500 m.
d. Visibility 3 km or more.

A

d. Visibility 3 km or more.

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29
Q

On an IFR flight flying towards a destination when the forecast is such that you can fly both the approach and landing visually, according to CS-OPS, you can dispense with the alternate if: Select one:

a. The destination has 2 separate runways and the Met conditions are acceptable 1 hour before to 1 hour after, ETA.
b. The flight time is in excess of 6 hours.
c. The PNR is less than 2 hours flight time from the destination.
d. The Met conditions at ETA are such that an approach and landing can be made visually.

A

a. The destination has 2 separate runways and the Met conditions are acceptable 1 hour before to 1 hour after, ETA.

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30
Q

For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate: Select one:

a. An aeroplane having two power units cannot be more than one hour’s flying distance at the single engine cruise speed at 1500 ft ISA.
b. An aeroplane having three or more engines cannot be more than a distance equal to two hour’s flying time at the `one engine-out’ cruise speed.
c. An aeroplane having three or more engines cannot be more than two hours flying time away at the all engine cruise speed in ISA.
d. An aeroplane having two power units can be more than a distance of 1 hour’s flying.

A

b. An aeroplane having three or more engines cannot be more than a distance equal to two hour’s flying time at the `one engine-out’ cruise speed.

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31
Q

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last: Select one:

a. 30 hours of operation.
b. 48 hours of operation.
c. The whole flight.
d. 25 hours of operation.

A

d. 25 hours of operation.

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32
Q

Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to date? Select one:

a. Aircraft operator.
b. Aircraft manufacturer.
c. Owner of aircraft.
d. ATS authority of the state of registry.

A

a. Aircraft operator.

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33
Q

light crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: Select one:

a. From take-off to landing.
b. Only during take-off and landing.
c. Only during take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
d. While at their station.

A

d. While at their station.

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34
Q

EU-OPS Part 1 applies to: Select one:

a. Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of air transportation by any operator whose principle place of business was in a JAA member State prior to 1st October 1999.
b. Any civil or military aeroplane whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State.
c. Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation by an operator of aeroplanes over 10 tonnes MTOW or with a maximum seating configuration of 19 or more seats.
d. Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation by any operator whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State.

A

d. Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation by any operator whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State.

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35
Q

The Commander is to be notified when certain categories of passengers are on board. Which of the following are always notified to the Commander? Select one:

a. Persons in custody.
b. Drunks.
c. Persons with a physical disability.
d. Military personnel.

A

a. Persons in custody.

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36
Q

Before commencing a flight, pilots and crew members are to be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures applicable to the airspace in which they are flying. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance? Select one:

a. Individual crew members.
b. The Operator.
c. The Operations Officer.
d. The Pilot in Command.

A

b. The Operator.

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37
Q

Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain: Select one:

a. Recommendations and Means of Compliance.
b. Standards and Regulatory Procedures.
c. Standards and Recommended Practices.
d. Search and Rescue Procedures.

A

c. Standards and Recommended Practices.

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38
Q

CPL VFR comercial flight demands

A

50 NM radius

  • 500 hours total flight time or an IR
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39
Q

CPL IFR comercial flight requirements

A
  • 700 total flight hours
  • 400 pic (2 Co pilot hours = 1 PIC)
  • 100 hours IFR & 40 hours ME
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40
Q

Rules of relief pilot

A

found in the Operationel manual

Captain relief:

above FL200

  • Hold an ATPL A
  • Typrerated and checked

FO Relief:

above FL200

  • Hold a CPL A &IR A
  • Typerated and checked excl landing check
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41
Q

Conversion traning requirements are found

A

…in the operation manual

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42
Q

Training captain supervising requirements

A

Engine failure after Take Off

Missed approach

One engine INOP landing Either simulator or airplane (simulated eng fail)

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43
Q

Operator proficiency check (Operator proficiency check according to EU-OPS)

A

Simulator training by qualified Simulator instructors Procedures:

  • Normal
  • Abnormal
  • Emergency (IFR)

Validity: 6 CALENDER months in addition to the month of ISSUE

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44
Q

Line check

A

flight crew under supervision by check pilot

validity: 12 CALENDER months from the LAST day of the month of ISSUE

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45
Q

Emergency and safety equipment efficiency check

A

Donnie of life jackets

Donning of protective breathing equipment

Handling of fire extinguishers location and use of Emerg equipment

instructions and use of emergency exits

Secuirity procedures

Validity: 12 CALENDER months from the LAST day of the month of ISSUE

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46
Q

CRM training

A

Covered over 3 years

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47
Q

Ground refresher training….

A

IMPORTANT! every 12 months

  • AP systems
  • Operational procedures
  • Ground De/anti icing
  • pilot incapacitation
  • accident and incident review
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48
Q

Aeroplane/STD (simulator training)

A

Every 12 months

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49
Q

PF / PNF requirements (T/O and landings)

A

3 take-offs and 3 landings within 90 days NO

IR: 1 landing at night within 90 days Sim/plane of same type and class

TRI/TRE supervision: extend to maks 120 days

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50
Q

AD category A:

A

A:

  • Approved for VOR/DME, ILS, MLS
  • No performance limited RWY
  • Circling minima not above 1000’
  • Night ops capability
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51
Q

AD category B:

A

CAT B:

Self brief on:

  • non std approach
  • unusual WX
  • Unsual performance limitation on RWYs
  • Other considerations regarding light, layout, obstructions
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52
Q

AD category C:

A

must be simulated and observed prior to operations

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53
Q

Rules of multiple typeratings for pilots are found in

A

… OM

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54
Q

Cabin crew member

A

“assigned duties in the interrest of the safety of passengers” - emergency training every 12 months

  • refresher for 6 months absence
  • at least 18 years of age
  • more than 19 seats - ONE cabin crew
  • for every 50 seats - one cabin crew
  • EU-OPS CRM course - Operatiors CRM course
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55
Q

Senior Cabin crew….

A

one years of experience

  • EU-OPS CRM course
  • Operatiors CRM co
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56
Q

Max type-ratings for Cabin crew

A

3

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57
Q

Flight crew and cabin crew records

A
  • are stored in acceptable form
  • stored for 15 months
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58
Q

What is the oxygen requirement altitude for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised aircraft?

A

13.000’

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59
Q

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:

A

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.

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60
Q

Above what altitude is stored breathing oxygen required for the crew and all passengers in an unpressurised aeroplane?

A

13,000 ft

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61
Q

What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

A

Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR

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62
Q

Life jackets are required when overflying water:

A

50 nm from land.

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63
Q

OAC position report when… (Oceanic Control) (Oceanic Control Area)

A

10’ longtitude E or W 20’ of lat above 70’

  • ATA
  • FL
  • next waypoint
  • ETA - next point
  • other inf, climb req, SIGWX (icing TURB)
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64
Q

random routes are (OTS)

A

most routes out side the Organized Track System

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65
Q

MTT

A

Minimum Time Track fastest not shortest

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66
Q

Northatlantic airspace

A

airspace A FL55 to FL660

usable from: FL60 or 2000 agls

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67
Q

OCA’s

A

Reykjavik

(Bodø)

Santa Maria

Shanwick

Gander

New York

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68
Q

MNPSA

A

Minimum-Navigation-Performace-Specification-Airspace

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69
Q

MNPSA vertical limits

A

FL285 - FL420

Usable: FL290 - FL410

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70
Q

MNPSA training requirements

A

AOC must be MNPSA approved

Crew MNPSA trained

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71
Q

MNPSA nav requirements

A

2 x LRNS (pos, track, speed)

  • GPS
  • INS
  • IRS Flightplan ITEM 10 (equipment) - letter X
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72
Q

RVSM

A

Reduced vertical seperation minima

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73
Q

RVSM nav requirements

A

2 x barometric altimeters (+/-200’)

  • AP height lock
  • ALT alert system
  • SSR mode C
  • TCAS-II Flightplan ITEM 10 (equipment)
  • letter W
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74
Q

RVSM feet/m climb limit

A

1500 fpm

1000-500 fpm

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75
Q

OTS

A

Organized Time Tracks NAT tracks (not mandatory)

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76
Q

West bound track time (OTS)

A

1130 - 1900 UTC at 030W

Lettered from

A

B

C

D

E

F

North to south

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77
Q

East bound track time (OTS)

A

0100 - 0800 UTC at 030W

Lettered from

Z

U

V

W

X

Y

Z

South to north

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78
Q

Organized Time Track buffer periods

A

0810 - 1129 and 1901 - 0059

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79
Q

OCA’s publishes OTS’s at

A

Wesbound OTS:

0000UTC

Eastbound OTS:

1200 UTC

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80
Q

Track messages: MNPSA consists of…

A

Date Validity period

Route designator

Co-ordinates

FL avaiable

TMI number is julian date

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81
Q

Blue Spruce Routes

A

For AC which does not fulfill MNPSA requirements

  • VHF possible
  • VOR-DME/ADF possible
  • Fuel stops available
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82
Q

VHF available in MNPSA region

A

within 250 NM from land

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83
Q

Max change of reported ETA in Oceanic regions…

A

+/- 3 min

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84
Q

SELCAL (selective calling)

A
  • check prior to entry to OCA
  • First check can be done on VHF
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85
Q

SSR requirements in OCA

A
  • last assigned SSR must be maintained for 30 min
  • after 30 min, change to ‘2000’
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86
Q

OCA nat-track seperation

A
  • 10 min Long (min 20 NM)
  • 60 NM lat (Off error 20 NM) off track
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87
Q

OCA clearence

A

40 min prior to entry of the OCA

Clearence limit

Track identification

Letter Entry Point

Initial Flight Level

Mach number Required

Any special instructions

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88
Q

Loss of coms in MNPSA

(Prior to OCA )

A
  • Land
  • continue if clearance obstained Within OCA
  • Continue as cleared
  • entry of domestic airspace, conform to procedures
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89
Q

Unable to conform to MNPSA criteria Track & level

A

deviate 15 degree of track at 45 degrees

above FL410: climb 1000

Below FL410: climb/descend 500’

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90
Q

LNRS failiure in MNPSA

A

If 1/2 systems fail: system fail before take off:

Obtain new clearance or consider delay System fail outside MNPSA:

  • Land / divert

System fail indside MNPSA:

  • continue under previous clearance
  • divert / turn back
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91
Q

SLOP (Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure)

A

Offset due wake turbulence (1-2 NM)

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92
Q

MNPSA Clearance errors

A

ATC system loop error

  • Mishearing Waypoint insertion errors
  • failure to crosscheck
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93
Q

ACARS

A

Aircraft Communication Adressing and Reporting System

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94
Q

If flying an Eastbound NAT track crossing 030°W at 1000UTC, the type of flight would be:

A

Random track

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95
Q

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

A

Mach number.

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96
Q

In MNPSA, when one aircraft is following another at the same Mach number, the minimum longitudinal separation is:

A

10 minutes

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97
Q

How should the aeroplane’s speed be entered in the flight plan?

A

TAS in domestic airspace and Mach No in Oceanic airspace.

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98
Q

In the NAT region IFR is mandatory:

A

At and above FL60 or 2000 ft AGL whichever is the higher.

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99
Q

How is VOR information in Northern Canada airspace referenced?

A

True north.

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100
Q

n the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-to-air communications is:

A

123.45 MHz

101
Q

A check on the operation of the SELCAL during a transatlantic flight using the OTS must be carried out:

A

At or prior to entering the NAT region.

102
Q

An aeroplane within MNPSA can no longer maintain its clearance and is unable to obtain a revised clearance from the relevant OCA. Having taken the initial correct procedures, the captain decides to change the aeroplane’s level by +500 ft. Is he:

A

Below FL410

103
Q

In MNPS, FL370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You turn left or right and get 15 nm separation, do you:

A

Climb or descend 500 ft.

104
Q

In the case of a radio failure within the NAT region, what are the correct actions to be taken?

A

Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed,

squawk A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified oceanic route point.

105
Q

The organised track system (OTS) is based on timings of aircraft at 030°W. What are the parameters for these timings?

A

1130Z until 1900Z for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time traffic

106
Q

When a pilot incorrectly reads back a NAT clearance and it is not picked up by ATC, it is called:

A

An ATC system loop error.

107
Q

Minimum lateral separation in NAT is:

A

60 nm above FL285.

108
Q

ETOPS

A

Extended-Twin-Engine-Operational-Performance-Standards Diversion time with one engine INOP

109
Q

ETOPS regulations

A

ETOPS 120:

ETOPS 180: (15% extension due WX)

110
Q

DE-icing is

A

Removal of deposits ALREADY on the AC

111
Q

Anti-icing is

A

Prevention of ice deposits on the AC

112
Q

De-icing fluids

A

ISO type 1 (unthikened)

ISO type 2

ISO type 4

*applied hot

113
Q

Hold over time:

A

The length of time an aircraft can wait for a Take off

  • Mixture strength
  • temperature
  • WX conditions

One-step: From the beginning

Two-step: from commencement of Anti-ice procedure

114
Q

Anti icing code:

A
  • Type of fluid
  • Temperature
  • WX
  • Time of
  • Beginning of Anti ICE
115
Q

Most birdstrikes occur

A

below 3000’

116
Q

Birds will initially

A

evade downwards

117
Q

Reduction of birdstrike damage

A

lowering RPM and lowering the speed

118
Q

Bird impact standard:

A

4lb bird

8lb on tail

119
Q

Noise abatement procedures for a specific AD can be found

A

In the AIP

120
Q

Noise abatement procudure cosist of

A

Devised by MANUFACTURES and OPERATORS and agreed by STATE

  • Preferencial RWY
  • Noise preferencial Routes (turn above 500’ AGL)
  • T/O and APP procedures
121
Q

noise preferencial RWY is neglegtec when:

A
  • cross wind 15 kt
  • tailwind 5 kt
  • vis >1900m
  • ceiling below 500’
  • TS/WS
122
Q

noise preferencial route

A
  • no turns below 500’
  • max 15 AOB above 500’
  • no power reduction in turn
  • NAV aids available or Radar
123
Q

Resposible for noise abament procedures

A

The state (CAA)

124
Q

Can the PIC neglect noise abatement in accordance to safety?

A

Hell yeah!

125
Q

Climb procedures requirement: (noise abament)

A
  • No procedure should start below 800’
  • AC procedures will apply to all AD
  • Only two procedures (normal, and silent)
126
Q

Noise abatement Approach requirements:

A
  • AC in LDG config
  • No above ILS, PAPi, PAR, or 3 degress
  • No require a turn
  • Instrument approach: be stabilized on GP
127
Q

Fire warning reaction:

A
  • Reduce engine power
  • select fuel high pressure lever ‘off’
  • pull fire warning
128
Q

fire warning after 30 sec:

A

second extinguisher - Select

129
Q

Approved fire extinguishers:

A

Halon 1211 - BCF

Water

130
Q

Number of fire extinguishers:

A

7-30: 1

31-60: 2

63-200: 3 … (100 + 1)

131
Q

How many HALON extinguishers between 31 - 60:

A

1

132
Q

How many HALON extinguishers - 61+ seats

A

minimum 2

133
Q

How many HALON extinguishers - Flight deck

A

minimum 1 HALON

134
Q

Class A fire

A

Wood, paper, textiles, carbonaceous material

WATER

FOAM

DRY POWDER*

WET CHEM*

135
Q

Class B fire:

A

Flammable liquids

FOAM

DRY POWDER

MP POWEDER

CO2*

136
Q

Class C fire:

A

Flammable GASSES

DRY POWDER

MP POWDER

137
Q

Class D fire:

A

Metals, magnesium, brakes

Special POWDER

138
Q

Electrical fire:

A

DRY POWDER

MP POWDER

139
Q

Fire-wire detector:

A

Capacitance: AC Resistance: DC

140
Q

PBE must be carried when: (personal breathing equipment)

A

MTOM > 5700 kg or 19 seats: 15min o2

141
Q

Crash axe on flight deck:

A

MTOM > 5700 kg or 19 seats: 1

seat capacity > 20O : An additional crash axe in the aft galley

142
Q

Brakes usually explode:

A

outwards/inwards

143
Q

The worst airframe icing conditions occur on the ground in:

a. Freezing fog.
b. Snow.
c. Frost.
d. Freezing rain.

A

Freezing rain

144
Q

What is the minimum number of hand held fire extinguishers that should be carried on a multi-engine turbo-jet authorised to carry 350 passengers?

A

6

145
Q

In accordance with EU OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:

A

For all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.

146
Q

In a public transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:

A

The external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the performance of the aeroplane except as permitted by the Aeroplane Flight Manual.

147
Q

During a Procedure NADP 2 noise abatement departure profile, what speed must be maintained following thrust reduction when flaps/slats are retracted?

A

VZF + 10 to 20 kt

148
Q

What is the minimum height above the aerodrome that power should be reduced on a Procedure NADP 1 noise abatement departure?

A

800 ft

149
Q

With which fire extinguisher would you normally fight a wheel fire?

A

Dry powder

150
Q

An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the minimum requirement for Halon hand held fire extinguishers?

A

2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment. (+ 1 on the flight deck)

151
Q

When does the engine fire warning light extinguish after discharge of the fire extinguishers?

A

When the detected fire is extinguished.

152
Q

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

  1. the type and intensity of the contaminant
  2. the ambient temperature
  3. the relative humidity
  4. the direction and speed of the wind
  5. the temperature of the airplane skin
  6. the type of fluid
A

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

153
Q

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

A

you should reduce the cargo hold ventilation and attempt to extinguish the fire in accordance with the checklist procedure.

154
Q

What is the minimum number of hand held fire extinguishers that should be carried on a multi-engine turbo-jet authorised to carry 350 passengers?

A

6

155
Q

On a Procedure NADP 1 noise abatement departure, what speed must be maintained after the reduction in power?

A

V2 + 10-20 knots

156
Q

When carrying out de-icing and anti-icing as a one-step procedure, the holdover time is deemed to have started from:

A

The start of the de-icing procedure.

157
Q

Decompression is devided into

A

Slow

Rapid

Explive

158
Q

Slow decompression

A
  • Leaking pressure seal
  • Pressure relief valve inop

Noticed on: Pressure change in the ears & Barotrauma

159
Q

Wake turbolence begins….

A

When the nosewheel lifts

160
Q

Wake turbolence ends…

A

When the nosewheel touches the RWY on LDG

161
Q

Wake turbolence drifts downwards….

A

500 fpm

162
Q

Waketurbolence categories:

Heavy

Medium

Light

A

Heavy: 136.000

Medium 7000 - 136.000

Light =< 7000 kg

163
Q

Wake seperation minima:

(parallel RWY)

A

<760 m

Heavy <> medium/light = 2 min

Medium <> light 2 min

164
Q

Seperation in minutes between landing and taking off AC

A

2 min

165
Q

Seperaion in minutes in opposite direction missed approach take off

A

2 min

166
Q

In case of unlawfull interferrence

A

Notify state of occurance without delay

and state of operator

167
Q

Unlawfull intereferrence:

Which states must be kept informed

A

The state of REGISTRY

The state of OPERATOR
ICAO
The state of PASSENGERS

168
Q

Following an incident which contravenes local procedures or regulations of a state other than its own state the action is:

A

The PIC must submit any such required report to the local Authority with a copy to the State of the Operator (normally within 10 days)

169
Q

Emergency evacuation of more that 44 seats is: (sec)

A

90 sec
at night

170
Q

A multi-engine aeroplane must be capable of surviving a ditching procedure if it is operated over water more than:

A

400 nm from land

171
Q

What is the minimum distance on landing for a light aircraft following a medium?

A

5 nm

172
Q

What are the main factors that affect wake turbulence?

A

Weight of aircraft, speed of aircraft and configuration of aircraft.

173
Q

An immediate decrease in headwind will be evident by:

  1. An increase in IAS.
  2. A reduction in IAS.
  3. Climbing above the glide path.
  4. Descending below the glide path.

Which combination correctly identifies the symptoms?

A

2 and 4

174
Q

Windshear is:

A

A horizontal or vertical change of wind velocity over a short distance.

175
Q

In still air, in what manner do the wake turbulence vortices from an aircraft disperse?

A

Both drift apart beyond the edges of the runway.

176
Q

Information about evacuation procedures from an aeroplane can be found in the:

A

Operations Manual.

177
Q

A medium wake turbulence category aeroplane departing from an intermediate point on a runway that a heavy aeroplane has taken off from but has used the full length, must wait a minimum of:

A

3 minutes.

178
Q

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?

A

3 minutes.

179
Q

EU-OPS requirement for fuel jettison

A

Jettison enoug fuel in less than 15 min
Free from fire hazard
Fuel does not re-enter AC
Set minimum fuel level (enough fuel for a 10000 climb + 45 min)

180
Q

Climb gradient for Go Around in LDG config

A

3.2 at Vref in non icing

181
Q

Recommened fuel jettison conditions:

A

Over sea

above 6000’ AGL

Allocated area
WX considered

NO HF

less VHF

182
Q

Contaminated runway

A

More than 25% of the surface is

3 mm or more of snow/slush

compacted snow

ice (wet ice)

183
Q

Wet runway

A

25 % of RWY covered with 3mm or LESS water

184
Q

Damp runway

A

wet but NOT reflective/shiny appearance

185
Q

Take off limitation (Dry snow)

A

not more than 60mm

186
Q

Take off limitation ( Very Dry snow)

A

80 mm

187
Q

Take off limitation (water, slush, wet snow)

A

15mm

188
Q

Dynamic hydroplanning (dynamic)

A

rotating wheel, spin down

water is deeper thank grooves in tire

189
Q

Hydroplanning (viscous)

A

when a wheel locks up due a thin film on RWY

7.7 x Square of(tire pressure)

190
Q

Hydroplanning (reverse rubber)

A

Steam from friction lifts the tire

191
Q

Braking action 0.26 is

A

medium poor

192
Q

Braking action 0.32

A

Medium

193
Q

Braking action 0.45

A

Good

194
Q

Braking action 0.23

A

poor

195
Q

In a SNOWTAM the letter ‘G’ represents

A

the depth of contamination

196
Q

In a SNOWTAM the letter ‘H’ represents

A

Braking friction for each third of RWY

197
Q

In a SNOWTAM the letter ‘D’ represents

A

The cleared length of the RWY in meters

198
Q

In a SNOWTAM the letter ‘T’ represents

A

The un-cleared length of RWY in meters

199
Q

An aeroplane with nosewheel tyre pressure of 125 psi and main wheel tyre pressures of 185 psi is likely to hydroplane at:

A

b. 122 knots

​9 x square of tyre pressure

200
Q

The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

A

depth of the standing water on the runway.

201
Q

For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bar, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

A

Speed is greater than 129 knots.

9 x square of (14.7 x tire pressure)

202
Q

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:

A

The ICAO document entitled “Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air”.

203
Q

Dangerous goods must be labelled in accordance with the rules by the shipper. If the goods are travelling from London Heathrow to New York via Paris, the language on the label must be?

A

English only.

204
Q
A
205
Q

If an aeroplane is certified for 10 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are required to be carried in the passenger compartment?

A

1

206
Q

If the galley is not located on the main passenger deck:

A

at least one extinguisher is to be positioned in the galley

207
Q

Fire detection equipment fitted to aeroplanes is designed to:

A

detect heat by electrical means and smoke by optical means

208
Q

A crash axe and/or crow bar is/are required to be carried on the flight deck of aeroplanes:

A

with a max take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg and 10 or more passenger seats

209
Q

What class of fire would require use of a H2O extinguisher?

A

class A

210
Q

Would you use a dry powder extinguisher on a liquid fire in an aeroplane?

A

yes, but not on the flight deck

211
Q

What equipment is required to be carried to combat the effects of smoke in the flight deck area?

A

smoke hoods with emergency 100% oxygen supply

212
Q

If an aeroplane is certified for 6 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are required to be carried in the aeroplane?

A

1

213
Q

The correct actions to be taken in the event of a carburettor fire on a piston engined aeroplane depend upon:

A

whether the engine has started

214
Q

What is the most scientific way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

A

recorded distress calls

215
Q

What colour is a Halon 1211 - BCF fire extinguisher?

A

Green

216
Q

After a fast landing, hot brakes are suspected. What action should be taken?

A

release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the front or rear

217
Q

Which habitat is the least favourable for birds?

a. areas that flood
b. short grass cut by gang mowers
c. rubbish tips
d. long grass

A

long grass

218
Q

the initial actions to be taken in the event of an engine fire depend upon:

A

the type of engine

219
Q

On what type of fire in an aeroplane can you use a CO2 extinguisher?

A

electrical fires (but not on the flight deck)

220
Q

Halon fire extinguishers can be used on:

1) Paper
2) Material
3) Liquids
4) Metals

A

1,2, and 3

221
Q

Which combination of the following statements correctly identifies the problems associated with overheated brakes after a heavy weight landing or an aborted take-off?

1) Reduced braking efficiency
2) Inadvertent operation of fire extinguishers
3) Extended brake cooling time
4) Inadvertent operation of brake overheat sensors
5) Problems with heat dispersal
6) Risk of tyre explosion

A

1, 2, 3, 5 and 6

222
Q

What is a minimum supplemental oxygen requirement to be supplied in a pressurised aeroplane during an emergency descent?

A

a supply for all crew and passengers sufficient for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplanes maximum certified operating altitude to 15,000 ft in 10 minutes

223
Q

During slow decompression, passengers will notice:

A

body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

224
Q

In the event of a cabin de-pressurisation, the actions of the pilot will be to:

A

commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

225
Q

In a rapid or explosive decompression:

A

the cabin altitude quickly or instantaneously reduces to ambient (outside) pressure

226
Q

During a rapid or explosive decompression, passengers may notice:

A

gross discomfort, breathlessness, possible damage to sinus cavities

227
Q

The difference between slow and rapid decompression is:

A

the speed with which the cabin altitude rises with respect to the ambient (outside) pressure

228
Q

If, during an approach to land you encounter an abrupt decrease in wind speed or a shift to a tail wind the aircraft will….. and you should…..

A

suffer a loss of lift, apply power

229
Q

What would you expect to happen in an “up and down draught” wind shear?

A

vertical excursions in horizontal flights

230
Q

Vertical wind shear is defined as:

A

a change in wind velocity with height

231
Q

Horizontal wind shear is defined as:

A

a change of wind velocity with horizontal distance

232
Q

What is meant by “Low Altitude Wind shear”?

A

a sudden change in wind velocity on the runway, final approach or in the climb-out

233
Q

Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

A

2

234
Q

Where a light category aeroplane is taking off behind a medium category aeroplane on the same runway but the following aeroplane is departing from an intermediate point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

A

3

235
Q

Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

A

2

236
Q

Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is:

A

5 (3 minutes)

237
Q

Where a light category aeroplane is taking off behind a medium category aeroplane on the same runway but the following aeroplane is departing from an intermediate point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is:

A

3

238
Q

Where parallel runway operations are in use and the projected flight path of the following aeroplane crosses that of the leading aeroplane at the same level or within 1,000 ft lower:

A

the same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply

239
Q

Vortex generation begins….. and ends…..

A

when the nose wheel lifts off; when the nose wheel touches down

240
Q

Wake vortex turbulence is correctly defined as:

A

the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of all aeroplanes

241
Q

The strongest vortices are generated by

A

Heavy aeroplanes, travelling slow, in a ‘clean’ configuration

242
Q

Which of the following describes the behavior of vortices on the ground?

A

in the absence of crosswind, the vortices move downwards and outwards from the runway center line at a speed of approx 5 kts

243
Q

Wake vortex turbulence is caused by:

A

the disruption of airflow over a wing section when lift conditions exist

244
Q

Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is:

A

6

245
Q

What is the minimum separation to be applied where a medium category aeroplane is about to take off after a heavy category aeroplane has made a missed approach in the opposite direction?

A

2

246
Q

Which of the following conditions is worst with regards to wake vortex turbulence?

A

light winds near to the surface

247
Q

Where parallel runway operations are being conducted and the runways are separated by 750m:

A

the same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply

248
Q

Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is:

A

5

249
Q
A

ATPL (10 decks)

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