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INS Flashcards

1
Q

Errors of the DGI are:
Select one:

a. gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport wander
b. gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport wander
c. acceleration error, turning error, altitude error, transport wander, rotor speed error
d. transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration error

A

b. gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport wander

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2
Q

A directional gyro indicator is basically a:
Select one:

a. vertical axis earth gyro
b. vertical axis tied gyro
c. horizontal axis tied gyro
d. horizontal axis earth gyro

A

c. horizontal axis tied gyro

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3
Q

The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:
Select one:

a. 60° per hour
b. 45° per hour
c. 30° per hour
d. 15° per hour

A

d. 15° per hour

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4
Q

In an air driven directional gyro the air jets are attached to:
Select one:

a. the rotor axis
b. the instrument casing
c. the outer gimbal
d. the inner gimbal

A

c. the outer gimbal

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5
Q

Apparent wander may be corrected in a DGI by:
Select one:

a. correcting wander by means of air jets
b. attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in the same direction as apparent wander
c. causing the gyro to precess in a clockwise direction (in the Northern Hemisphere)
d. attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in the opposite direction to apparent wand

A

d. attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in the opposite direction to apparent wander

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6
Q

What type of gyroscope is fitted to a direction indicator?
Select one:

a. vertical axis & 2 degrees of freedom
b. horizontal axis & 2 degrees of freedom
c. vertical axis & 1 degree of freedom
d. horizontal axis & 1 degree of freedom

A

b. horizontal axis & 2 degrees of freedom

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7
Q

The latitude nut of a directional indicator (DI) is on the ………. gimbal and causes the gyroscope to precess around its ………. axis.
The correct words to complete the above sentence are:
Select one:

a. outer, horizontal
b. inner, vertical
c. inner, horizontal
d. outer, vertical

A

b. inner, vertical

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8
Q

In a DGI what error is caused by the easterly or westerly aircraft movement over the earth?
Select one:

a. real wander
b. Earth rate
c. transport wander
d. latitude error

A

c. transport wander

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9
Q

The spin axis of a directional gyro is maintained in ………. by means of ………. in an air driven gyro and by means of a ………. in an electrically driven gyro.
The correct words to complete the above sentence are:
Select one:

a. the yawing plane; air jets, wedge plate
b. the yawing plane; air jets, torque motor
c. the horizontal plane; air jets; wedge plate Incorrect
d. the vertical plane; air jets, torque motor

A

b. the yawing plane; air jets, torque motor

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10
Q

A directional gyro is valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are:

  1. Earth rotation
  2. longitudinal accelerations
  3. a/c motion over the Earth
  4. mechanical defects
  5. gyro mass
The combination of correct statements is:
Select one:
a. all of them
b. 1, 3 & 5
c. 1, 3 & 4 
d. 1, 2 & 3
A

c. 1, 3 & 4

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11
Q

Does the DI (Directional Gyro Indicator) suffer from, Turning error and/or acceleration errors?

A

No

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12
Q

Total DGI error?

A

TD = Rw + Er + Ln + Tw

TW      = easterly GS/60 x tan(lat)
Er        = -/+15 x sin(lat)
LatNut = +/-15xsin(lat)
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13
Q

DGI

Drift due earth rate (ER) :

A

Northern hemisphere: -
Southernthern hemisphere: +

+/- 15 x sin(lat)

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14
Q

DGI

Drift due Latitude Nut (LN)

A

Northern hemisphere: +
Southernthern hemisphere: -

+/- 15 x sin(lat)

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15
Q

DGI

Drifte due Transport wander (TW) EAST:

A

Northern hemisphere: +
Southernthern hemisphere: -

TW = easterly GS/60 x tan(lat)

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16
Q

DGI

Drifte due Transport wander (TW) WEST:

A

Northern hemisphere: -
Southernthern hemisphere: +

TW = easterly GS/60 x tan(lat)

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17
Q

Acceleration during the take-off run causes the air driven artificial horizon to falsely indicate:
Select one:

a. the right wing going down due to pendulosity of the outer gimbal
b. the nose pitching up due to the action of the pendulous vanes
c. the right wing going down due to the action of the pendulous vanes
d. the nose pitching up due to pendulosity of the gyro housing

A

b. the nose pitching up due to the action of the pendulous vanes

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18
Q

When accelerating the electric artificial horizon:
Select one:

a. has a reduced roll error due to the pitch cut-out switch
b. has a reduced pitch error due to the roll cut-out switch
c. has a reduced pitch error due to the pitch cut-out switch
d. has a reduced roll error due to the roll cut-out switch

A

c. has a reduced pitch error due to the pitch cut-out switch

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19
Q

When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:
Select one:

a. nose up and correct angle of bank
b. attitude and bank angle are correct
c. nose up and bank angle too high
d. nose up and bank angle too low

A

d. nose up and bank angle too low

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20
Q

An electrical artificial horizon employs ………. and ……….. to maintain its position in relation to ………..
Select the line of phrases given below that would complete the above statement correctly:
Select one:

a. mercury switches, torque motors, the local vertical
b. fast erect buttons, micro switches, local longitude
c. a precession circuit, a torque motor, azimuth
d. an erection chamber, pendulous vanes, space

A

a. mercury switches, torque motors, the local vertical

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21
Q

A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:
Select one:

a. turn co-ordinator
b. turn indicator
c. artificial horizon
d. DGI

A

c. artificial horizon

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22
Q

The air driven artificial horizon uses ………. gyroscope which is maintained ………. by means of ……….
The words which correctly complete the above sentence are:
Select one:

a. a free horizontal, case levelling
b. an Earth vertical, torque motors
c. an Earth vertical, pendulous vanes
d. a space vertical, torque motors

A

c. an Earth vertical, pendulous vanes

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23
Q

An artificial horizon has:
Select one:

a. 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
b. 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
c. 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
d. 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

A

b. 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

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24
Q

A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties:

  1. a remote gyro
  2. its own power supply
  3. only to be used in emergency
  4. its own gyro
  5. one for each certified pilot
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
b. 1, 3 & 5
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 2 & 4
A

d. 2 & 4

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25
Q

An artificial horizon with an air driven gyroscope, (spinning anti-clockwise seen from above), is subjected to acceleration during a take-off run. As a result the instrument indications will falsely show:
Select one:

a. the right wing going up and the nose going down
b. the right wing going down and the nose going up
c. the right wing going up and the nose going up
d. the right wing going down and the nose going down

A

b. the right wing going down and the nose going up

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26
Q

During the take-off run, the air driven artificial horizon will indicate:
Select one:

a. a right turn due to the pendulosity of the outer gimbal
b. a right turn due to the action of the pendulous vanes
c. a nose-up attitude due to the action of the pendulous vanes
d. a nose-up attitude due to the pendulosity of the inner gimbal

A

c. a nose-up attitude due to the action of the pendulous vanes

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27
Q

Residual deviation Accuracy limits:

A

Direct reading compass +/- 10

Remote reading compass: +/- 1

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28
Q

Deviation increases:

A

with magnetic lattitude due to dip

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29
Q

Magnetic induction in softiron

A

increases with magnetic latitude

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30
Q

The contribution to deviation from longitudinal “B” aircraft magnetism is a function of…

A

a function of the sine of the heading

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31
Q

The contribution to deviation from lateral “C” aircraft magnetism is a function of…

A

a function of the cosine of the heading

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32
Q

The aims of compass swing are:

A

To observe and determine the deviations between magnetic north and compass north on a series of heading

To correct and remove as much deviation as possible

To record the residual deviation wich is left after the compass has been adjusted

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33
Q

A turn indicator consists of

A

a rate gyre with one gimbal around the vertical axis (Horizontal spin axis axis)

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34
Q

A skidding turn is a result of ………. bank, and the ball will appear to move in the ………….. direction

A

little, opposite

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35
Q

A slipping turn is a result of ………. bank, and the ball will appear to move in the ………….. direction

A

much, same

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36
Q

Which of the following factors will affect a turn indicator:

  1. angle of bank
  2. aircraft speed
  3. aircraft weight
    Select one:

a. 2 & 3
b. all 3
c. 1 & 3
d. 1 & 2

A

d. 1 & 2

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37
Q

Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate of turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument; when it is associated with an1 attitude indicator it indicates:

  1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
  2. The bank of the aircraft
  3. The direction of the aircraft turn
  4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical

The combination of correct statements is:
Select one:

a. 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2
d. 3, 4

A

b. 1, 3

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38
Q

In a left turn while taxiing, the correct indications on a turn and slip indicator are:
Select one:

a. needle left, ball right
b. needle right, ball left
c. needle right, ball right
d. needle left, ball left

A

a. needle left, ball right

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39
Q

The rate of turn shown on a turn indicator depends upon:

  1. bank angle
  2. aeroplane speed
  3. aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
Select one:

a. 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 3

A

b. 1, 2

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40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the turn co-ordinator?
Select one:

a. its gyro is offset by 30° to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
b. it gives angle of bank and rate of turn
c. it responds to rate of turn only
d. it has a tied gyroscope

A

d. it has a tied gyroscope

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41
Q

In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:
Select one:

a. independent of weight and proportional to TAS
b. dependent on weight and proportional to TAS
c. independent of weight and inversely proportional to TAS
d. dependent on weight and inversely proportional to TAS

A

c. independent of weight and inversely proportional to TAS

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42
Q

A turn indicator has which of the following:

  1. a vertical spin axis
  2. a rate gyro
  3. an Earth gyro
  4. one degree of freedom
  5. no degrees of freedom
    Select one:

a. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 5
c. 2 and 5
d. 3 and 5

A

a. 2 and 4

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43
Q

he properties of a turn indicator are:

  1. one degree of freedom
  2. two degrees of freedom
  3. two springs connected to the aircraft frame
  4. spin axis in the longitudinal plane
  5. spin axis parallel to the yaw axis
  6. spin axis horizontal

The combination of correct statements is:

Select one:

a. 1 & 4
b. 1 & 6
c. 2 & 6
d. 2 & 5

A

b. 1 & 6

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44
Q

A compass swing is used to:
Select one:

a. align compass north with true north
b. align compass north with magnetic north
c. align magnetic north with true north
d. get true north and lubber line aligned

A

b. align compass north with magnetic north

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45
Q

Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JARs) state the maximum possible deviation after compensation of coefficients A, B and C are:
Select one:

a. One degree for a direct reading magnetic compass and eleven degrees for a slaved compass
b. One degree for a remote indicating compass and ten degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass
c. Eleven degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass and one degree for a remote indicating compass
d. Three degrees for a remote indicating compass and one degree for a direct reading magnetic compass

A

b. One degree for a remote indicating compass and ten degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass

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46
Q

An aircraft’s compass must be swung:
Select one:

a. if the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times
b. after a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude
c. every maintenance inspection
d. if the aircraft has been subjected to hammering

A

d. if the aircraft has been subjected to hammering

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47
Q

Aircraft magnetism caused by hard iron:
Select one:

a. varies directly with magnetic latitude
b. varies indirectly with magnetic latitude
c. is not usually influenced by the Earth’s magnetic field
d. is maximum on east and west

A

c. is not usually influenced by the Earth’s magnetic field

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48
Q

Earthrate formula:

A

-/+15 x sin(lat)

NH -
SH +

  • Zero at magnetic equator
    • Counter acted by LN
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49
Q

Transport wander:

A

eastern GS/60 x tan(lat)

NH -
SH +

*zero at north south

(Flying with the earth rotation)

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50
Q

A servo-assisted altimeter is more accurate than a simple altimeter because the small movements of:

A

the capsules are detected by a very sensitive electro-magnetic pick-off.

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51
Q

A temperature sensor has a recovery factor of 0,95. The temperature measured is equal to:

A

static air temperature (SAT) + 95% of the ram rise.

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52
Q

A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1: bank angle 2: aeroplane speed 3: aeroplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A

1, 2.

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53
Q

After the initial 90 degrees of a turn at constant pitch and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:

A

too much nose-up and too little bank.

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54
Q

An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045degrees; the compass is made for the northern hemisphere. During rolling take-off, the compass indicates:

A

a value below 045degrees.

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55
Q

At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the:

A

yaw rate of the aircraft.

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56
Q

Due to the rotation of the earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 45degreesN is:

A

11degrees per hour to the right.

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57
Q

During a descent at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A

IAS and TAS increase.

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58
Q

Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Pd = dynamic pressure:

A

Pt = Pd + Ps

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59
Q

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

A

continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

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60
Q

In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:

A

equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

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61
Q

Machmeter readings are subject to:

A

Instrument error
position error
induced error

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62
Q

The apparent wander of a directional gyro is 15degrees/h:

A

At the North pole

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63
Q

The artificial horizon uses a gyroscope with: (note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.)

A

two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.

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64
Q

The error induced by the location of the static pressure source is known as the:

A

position error.

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65
Q

The flux valve of a gyromagnetic compass:

1 - feeds the error detector

2 - feeds the direct indicating compass

3 - gives the earth’s magnetic field direction

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:

A

1, 3.

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66
Q

The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A

VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

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67
Q

The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:

A

density altitude.

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68
Q

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

A

661 kt

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69
Q

In a gyromagnetic compass, the direction of the earth’s magnetic field is given by the:

A

flux valve.

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70
Q

On the airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aeroplane, the blue radial line corresponds to the:

A

best single-engine rate of climb.

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71
Q

The most significant advantages of an air data computer (ADC) are:

  1. Position error correction
  2. Hysteresis error correction
  3. Remote data transmission capability
  4. Gimballing errors correction

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A

1,3

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72
Q

A direct reading thermometer consists of…..

A

two metals of different coefficients of expansion and are bonded together.

  • Invar
  • Brass
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73
Q

A remote reading thermometer works on which principle

A

change in electrical resistance in certain material

(whetstone bridge)

electrical fluctuaions does not affect readout

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74
Q

TAT probe air stagnation is preventet

A

using eng bleed air, to ‘suck’ in fresh air to measure

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75
Q

Air temperautur gauges

A

1) Instrument error
2) environmental error (solar heating, icing)
3) Heating error (friction heating on leading edges)

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76
Q

Aspirated TAT probe is

A

uses bleed air to prevent freezing

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77
Q

A remote reading thermometer depends upon ………. to indicate changes in temperature.
The words to correctly complete the sentence are:

A

change of electrical resistance with temperature

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78
Q

A direct reading aircraft thermometer usually consists of a bimetallic helix protruding into the airstream. Movement of the pointer over the temperature scale will depend upon:

A

Different coefficients of expansion of the two metals

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79
Q

Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect them from:

A

solar radiation

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80
Q

SAT accurate formula?

EXAM

A

TAT / 1 + 0.2 x 0.9 x M2

temp in kelvin

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81
Q

The ADC (air data computer) takes in following measurements:

A
  • PITOT
  • STATIC
  • AOA
  • TAT

and calculates the rest

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82
Q

Given: Ts is the static temperature (SAT), Tt is the total temperature (TAT), Kr is the recovery coefficient and M is the Mach number. The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula:

A

Tt = Ts(1 + 0.2Kr.M²)

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83
Q

The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as:

A

the ram rise

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84
Q

At a true airspeed of 500 knots, the ram rise will be approximately:

A

25°C

Use CRP-5

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85
Q

Total Air Temp is always ………. than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with ……….
The words to correctly complete the sentence are:

A

warmer, TAS

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86
Q

Total air temperature is:

A

The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically

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87
Q

CAS (RAS) is

errors

A

IAS corrected for:

  • Instrument
  • Position error
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88
Q

TAS is

A

CAS corrected for:

  • density error
  • Compressibility error (TAS>300kt)
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89
Q

An aircraft is flying at a constant CAS. If the ambient temperature ………. , the TAS will ………. due to ……….
The words to complete the above statement are:

A

rises, rise, decreasing density

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90
Q

When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the true airspeed (TAS) will

A

decrease

density

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91
Q

Compressibility error is caused by a false ………. of ………. pressure, requiring a ………. correction to the CAS to obtain EAS.
The words to correctly complete the sentence above are:

A

increase, dynamic, negative

increased pressure, overread AS

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92
Q

An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air. The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be:

A

TAS will increase

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93
Q

VLO

A

the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended

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94
Q

VLE

A

Max speed with landing gear extended

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95
Q

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to:

A

react like an altimeter

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96
Q

During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked. The pilot finds that indicated airspeed:

A

increases steadily

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97
Q

The full International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is assumed in the calibration of:

A

The pressure altimeter only

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98
Q

A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:

A

friction

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99
Q

The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:

A

electromagnetic pick-off

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100
Q

On board an a/c, true altitude is shown from:

A

pressure altitude

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101
Q

Position/pressure error is

A

a result of turbulent airflow and suction around the source

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102
Q

If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:

A

continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred

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103
Q

An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and FL is flying from a warm air mass into a colder air mass. The effect of the change of temperature on the TAS and true altitude will be:

A

TAS will decrease and true altitude will decrease

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104
Q

What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than standard?

A

read higher than the real altitude

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105
Q

The value of mach 1 varies with

A

temperature

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106
Q

The ______ air, the _______ speed of sound

A

colder, lower

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107
Q

Local Speed of Sound formula

A

38.95 x Temp(K) ‘squared’

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108
Q

Mach meter errors

A
  • Instrument error
  • Position/pressure error
  • Manouvre induced error
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109
Q

Mach meter PITOT leak

A

under read in climb

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110
Q

Mach meter STATIC leak

A

under read in climb

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111
Q

What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft and -40°C?

A

595 kt

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112
Q

The machmeter consists of:

A

an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule

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113
Q

An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature 207°A, at Mach 0.85. The TAS of the aircraft is:

A

476 kt

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114
Q

The mach number is the:

A

true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

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115
Q

At FL350 with an ISA deviation of -12, the true airspeed when flying at M0.78 is:

A

436 kt

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116
Q

Cruising at FL390, M0.84 is found to give a TAS of 499 kt. The ISA deviation at this level will be:

A

+17

Remember tropopause height 36000’

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117
Q

What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and -28°C?

A

610 kt

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118
Q

Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:

LSS

A

Temperature

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119
Q

C T M relation in an inversion

A

C M T

due to rising temp with alt

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120
Q

C TM relation in an isothermal layer

A

C T/M

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121
Q

An aircraft, flying at a constant altitude and Mach No, enters a warmer air mass. As a result:

A

the TAS will increase and the CAS remain the same

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122
Q

An aircraft is descending at a constant Mach No through an isothermal layer. The CAS of the aircraft will:

A

Increase

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123
Q

If an aircraft climbs at constant Mach No in ISA conditions, what happens to the TAS and the CAS?
Select one:

a. TAS decreases and CAS increases
b. TAS decreases and CAS decreases
c. TAS increases and CAS increases
d. TAS remains constant and CAS decreases

A

b. TAS decreases and CAS decreases

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124
Q

The indications of a machmeter are independent of:

A

Temperature

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125
Q

For an aircraft climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions, the CAS will:

A

fall due to the decreasing density and decreasing TAS

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126
Q

Ways to increase rigidity in a gyo…

A
  1. Increase rotor mass
  2. increase the rotor diameter
  3. Concentrate the rotor mass around the perimeter of the rotor
  4. Increase the speed of rotation
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127
Q

Precessios in a gyro is…..

A

Any appliede for will effect the rotor 90 in the direction of rotation

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128
Q

Gyro drift is….

A

when the spin axis moves in the HORIZONTAL plane

15 x sin(lat) / hour

129
Q

Gyro topple is….

A

when the spin axis moves in the VERTICAL plane

15 x sin(cos) / hour

130
Q

REAL wander in a gyro is….

A

“Instrument” error/real force acting upon the gyro

  • imbalance in the rotormass
  • Imperfectly balanced gimbals
  • Uneven rotor bearing friction
131
Q

Earthrate (drift) formula

A

15 x sin(lat)

max at poles
nil at magnetic equtor

132
Q

Transport wander formula…

A

(Easterly GS / 60) x tan(lat) / hour

133
Q

An earth gyro is a…

A

a tied gyro which have their orientation maintained by the earth’s gravity

134
Q

a RATE gyro

A

measures an angle of rate with a Rate spring

One degree of freedom

135
Q

The rigidity (gyroscopic inertia) of a gyroscope may be increased by:

A

increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor

136
Q

The precession of a gyroscope varies:

A

directly with the applied force and indirectly with the inertia of the rotor

137
Q

he precession rate of a gyroscope varies ………. with the applied disturbing torque and ………. with the rigidity of the rotor.
The words to correctly complete the sentence are:

A

directly, inversely

138
Q

A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have:

A

two degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

139
Q

an INS measures

A 
present position
heading
track
drift *
Ground speed *
waypoint steering

*caused by crosswind

** Not affected by earth magnetism**

140
Q

INS heading measurements are made upon

A

Calculating earhs spin and maintaining via high grad gyro’s

** Not affected by earth magnetism**

141
Q

INS:

The three basic INS units are:

A
  • Mode selecter unit (MSU) *
  • Control and display unit (CDU) *
  • Inertial Navigation Unit (INU)
  • Located on flight deck
142
Q

INS: The accelerometer gives measurement according to which airspeed?

A

Ground speed, due to it measures inertial space and not relative movement

143
Q

INS:

What does the sensor of an INS/IRS measure?

A

acceleration

144
Q

INS Integrators convert:

A

accelerations into velocities and velocities into distance gone

145
Q

INS:

Which of the following equipments does not use information from external sources in flight?
Select one:

a. slaved gyro compass
b. INS / IRS
c. pressure altimeter
d. VOR

A

b. INS / IRS

146
Q

INS:

How many accelerometers does an INS use

A

2

  • north
  • east
147
Q

INS accuracy to bank and yaw

A

1/10 degree

148
Q

INS:

The product of the first integration of the output from the N/S accelerometer in INS equipment is:
Select one:

a. velocity along the local meridian
b. latitude
c. departure
d. distance along the local meridian

A

a. velocity along the local meridian

149
Q

INS:

In an INS, what is the output of the E/W second-stage integrator?
Select one:

a. Distance E/W
b. Velocity N/S
c. Distance N/S
d. Velocity E/W

A

a. Distance E/W

150
Q

INS:

The product of the second integration of the E/W accelerometer output in an INS system is:
Select one:

a. E/W acceleration
b. departure
c. longitude
d. E/W ground speed

A

b. departure

151
Q

INS:

In an INS the E/W accelerations are converted into an E/W speed (kt) at the first stage of integration and into E/W distance gone (nm) at the second stage of integration. This gives:

A

departure which is multiplied by Secant of the present latitude to obtain d`long (min) which is used to automatically up-date the present longitude

152
Q

INS:

What is the input to an INS which allows it to compute W/V?

A

TAS

TAS compared to GS is WV

153
Q

INS:

In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:

A

integrating measured acceleration

154
Q

INS:

At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To convert this distance into change of longitude it has to:

A

be multiplied by Secant of the latitude

155
Q

INS:

The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS system is:

A

speed along the parallel of latitude

156
Q

INS:

In an INS, what is the output of the E/W second-stage integrator?

A

Distance E/W

157
Q

INS:

Platform gyro types?

A
  • Rated integrated (single degree, output two degree)

- Two D of F displacement

158
Q

INS:

Real wander = practicly NIL
Apparent wander

A
  • Earth rate

- Transport wander

159
Q

Horisontal Earth rate formula

A

15 x sin(LAT) / hr

160
Q

Vertical earth rate formula

A

15 x COS(LAT) / hr

161
Q

INS:

Platform corrections

A
  • Aircraft manouvres
  • Earth rate
  • Transpor wander (horiz/vert)
  • Coriolis
  • central acceleration
162
Q

What type of alignment system is used in an INS?
Select one:

a. accelerometers and mercury levelling switches
b. rate gyros with two degrees of freedom
c. rate integrating gyros with one degree of freedom
d. accelerometers, and rate integrating gyros with one degree of freedom

A

d. accelerometers, and rate integrating gyros with one degree of freedom

163
Q

INS:

A gyro stabilised platform used for navigation, may use the following components:

A

2 accelerometers and 3 rate integrating gyros

164
Q

A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in:

  1. An inertial attitude unit
  2. An automatic pilot
  3. A stabilising servo system
  4. An inertial navigation system
  5. A rate-of-turn indicator
A

d. 1, 4

165
Q

Heading information given by a gyro platform is based on a gyro having:
Select one:

a. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis
b. 1 degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
c. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
d. 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis

A

c. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis

166
Q

INS:

Gyro RPM

A

25000 rpm

approx 3 min

167
Q

INS

leveling stage takes

A

approx 3 min

168
Q

INS:

Allignment time:

A

Caging 3 min
Leveling 3 min
Gyrocompassing 11 min

Total: 17 min

169
Q

INS is sensitive to incorrect _______ and not to _______ !

lat / long

A

Lattitude, longtitude!

Long is a fucntion og Lat and independant

170
Q

An INS in the ‘Align’ mode will:
Select one:

a. accept error of 10° latitude and 10° longitude of the inserted initial position
b. accept an error of 10° latitude but not an error of 10° longitude of the inserted position
c. will accept an error of 10° longitude but not 10° error of latitude in the initial inserted position
d. not accept an error of 10° latitude and 10° longitude of the inserted initial position

A

c. will accept an error of 10° longitude but not 10° error of latitude in the initial inserted position

171
Q

The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is:
Select one:

a. airport ICAO identifier
b. aircraft heading
c. the position of an in-range DME
d. aircraft position in latitude and longitude

A

d. aircraft position in latitude and longitude

172
Q

Gyro-compassing in an INS:
Select one:

a. is possible in flight as the accelerometers can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
b. is not possible in flight as the accelerometers cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
c. is possible in flight as the accelerometers cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
d. is not possible in flight as the accelerometers can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors

A

b. is not possible in flight as the accelerometers cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors

173
Q

A north referenced inertial navigation system in the ALIGN mode uses inputs from:
Select one:

a. the latitude setting, the accelerometers
b. the longitude setting, the latitude setting, the air data computer
c. the latitude setting, the longitude setting, the accelerometers
d. all the factors mentioned in a, b, c above

A

a. the latitude setting, the accelerometers

174
Q

When is the last point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode?
Select one:

a. Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate
b. On operation of the TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take-off
c. After passengers and freight are aboard
d. At the holding point

A

a. Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate

175
Q

Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes?
Select one:

a. ALIGN and ATT
b. NAV and ALIGN
c. ATT and ALIGN
d. ALIGN only

A

b. NAV and ALIGN

176
Q

IRS:

Number of WPT stored

A

Max 9

if more, subsequent WPT can be added once previous WTPs have been overflown

177
Q

INS:

INS errors

A
  • Platform tilt
  • Acceleromter Bias
  • Integreter scale error
  • Leveling gyro topple
  • Initial azimuthal (hdg)misalignment
  • Azimuthal (hdg) gyro drift
178
Q

INS:

A schuler period

A

84.4 minutes

v (velocity) / R (earth radius)

179
Q

INS:

Bounded error do not….

A

increase with time!

  • Platform tilt
  • Acceleromter Bias
  • Integreter scale error (first stage)
180
Q

INS:

Unbounded errors do ….

A

increase with time aka Ramp error

  • Integreter scale error (second stage)
  • hdg misalignment
  • leveling gyro topple
  • hdg drift
181
Q

INS:

Kalman filtering is

A

a computer generated position and NOT average FMC position

182
Q

INS:

The FMC position is:

A

computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions

183
Q

INS:

errors are classified as ‘Bounded errors’ and ‘Unbounded errors’.

A

An ‘Unbounded error’ is an error that increases with time, an example being the distance gone error due to an incorrect second-stage integrator

184
Q

INS:

In an INS which is Schuler tuned, the largest unbounded errors are:

A

real wander of the platform gyroscopes

185
Q

IRS:

Which facilities of an IRS were not normally available from the earlier INS?
Select one:

a. magnetic data base and a vertical channel
b. pitch and roll
c. windspeed and drift
d. true heading and groundspeed

A

a. magnetic data base and a vertical channel

186
Q

IRS:

What is the source of magnetic variation information in IRS?

A

Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS

187
Q

IRS:

The IRS can be a central source of information for which of an aircraft’s other systems?

  1. stability augmentation system
  2. weather radar
  3. air conditioning
  4. anti-skid auto brake system
  5. hydraulic accumulators
  6. vertical speed indication
A
  • stability augmentation system
  • weather radar
  • anti-skid auto brake system
  • vertical speed indication
188
Q

IRS:

On a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU:

A

are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources

189
Q

IRS:

What of the following are the inputs required for an IRS?

  1. 3 ring laser gyros
  2. radio height
  3. 3 inertial accelerometers
  4. VHF communications
  5. initial present position
  6. barometric altitude
  7. TAS
A

3 ring laser gyros

3 inertial accelerometers

initial present position

barometric altitude

TAS

190
Q

IRS:

Alignment time

A

approx 10 min

191
Q

IRS:

How many RLG’s and Accelerometers

A

3 & 3

192
Q

Advantages of an IRS compared to an INS are:

A

insensitive to ‘g’ and negligible spin-up time

193
Q

A laser reference system (IRS), as compared to a gyro reference system (INS):

A

is strapped down and is not adversely affected by g-forces

194
Q

How long does alignment of an IRS (Ring Laser Gyros) normally take at mid-latitudes?

A

10 minutes

195
Q

In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to:

A

position the computing trihedron with reference to Earth

196
Q

INS:

Explain the first stage and second stage integration in the INS

A

First stage: Acceleration to Velocity

Seconstage: Velocity multiplied to time

197
Q

Explain how the INS measures movement, does it have any external inputs?

A

by accelerometers measuring velocity multiplied by time

198
Q

INS/IRS:

What are the differences between the INS and IRS

A

Conventional gyros were replaced by optical gyro’s

199
Q

INS:

Explain the gyros in the INS, what purpose do they serve?

A

Horizontally rate gyros

keeps the platform level via torque motors

200
Q

INS/IRS:

Explain the differences between a Strap down system (IRS) and a gyro stabilised system (INS)

A

The RLG are not freely suspended in space, but can still detect angular movements

201
Q

RAD alt:

FMCW Low level radio Altimiters frequency

A

4.2 - 4.4 GHz (SHF)

4200 - 4400 MHz

202
Q

RAD alt:

Pulsed high altitude radar Altimiters frequency

A

1.6 - 1.66 GHz (UHF)

1600 - 1660 MHz

203
Q

RAD alt:

Operating limitations

A

at 2500’

pitch: 30 degrees
bank: 60 degrees

204
Q

RAD alt:

Accuracy of radio altimeter

A

33 - 2500’ = +/- 3% indicated height

33 - surface = +/- 1 foot

205
Q

RAD alt:

Residual height may cause

A

A negative reading due to calibration for residual height (i.e landing gear, attitude on landing etc)

206
Q

Radio altimeters are (modulation)

A

frequency modulated

207
Q

What frequency band is normally used in a radio altimeter?

A

SHF

208
Q

Radio altimeters use:

a. an increasing frequency continuous wave
b. a frequency modulated pulse wave
c. a continuous wave which is frequency modulated
d. pulse modulation with a constant frequency

A

a continuous wave which is frequency modulated

209
Q

What frequency is normally used in a radio altimeter?
Select one:

a. 4.20 to 4.4 GHz in the SHF band
b. 1.60 to 1.66 MHz in the SHF band
c. 1.60 to 1.66 GHz in the UHF band
d. 4.20 to 4.4 MHz in the SHF band

A

4.20 to 4.4 GHz in the SHF band

210
Q

What are the frequencies normally used in a low altitude radio altimeter?

  1. 4.2 to 4.4 GHz
  2. 1.2 to 1.4 GHz
  3. 4000 MHz to 4200 MHz
  4. VHF Band
  5. 1600 MHz to 1660 MHz
  6. EHF Band

Select one:

a. 2 & 4
b. 4 & 6
c. 1 & 5
d. 2 & 3

A

c. 1 & 5

211
Q

A radio altimeter is:
Select one:

a. a/c based and measures true altitude
b. ground based and measures true height
c. ground based and measures true altitude
d. a/c based and measures true height

A

d. a/c based and measures true height

212
Q

FMC

Navigation database validity (AIRAC cycle)

A

28 days

213
Q

FMC

Drag, fuel flow, speeds etc are stored in

A

the Performance database

214
Q

FMC

The two FMC’s does independent calculations, in case of gross differce between the two

A

The FMC can initiate single mode, which implies one FMC supplies both displays

215
Q

The purpose of the FMS is to:

A

provide continuous automatic navigation, guidance, and performance management

216
Q

Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?

A

LNAV and VNAV

217
Q

What are the levels of message on the Boeing 737-400 FMC?

A

Alert and Advisory

218
Q

What are the inputs to the FMS?

  1. Radio Aids
  2. Engine Parameters
  3. Air Data
  4. Route Data
  5. Terminal Data
  6. Operating Data

Select one:

a. 1, 3, 4 & 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
c. 1, 2, 3 & 6
d. 2, 3, 4 & 5

A

b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6

219
Q

EADI is short for

A

Electronic Attitude Director Indicator

220
Q

EADI

Display color coding: Green

A

Low priority data

221
Q

EADI

Display color coding: Magenta

A

Command information, pointers, symbols and fly-to conditions

222
Q

EADI

Display color coding: Cyan

A

Non-active info

223
Q

EADI

Display color coding: red

A

Warning information

224
Q

EADI

Display color coding: Amber

A

Cautionary information, faults and flags

225
Q

EADI

Radio alt is showed on the EADI below:

A

2500’ in the top right corner

  • below 1000’ with a circular reference
226
Q

EADI

Failure annunciations wil be

A

showed in yellow and ‘boxed’

227
Q

An EFIS as well as having a control panel, symbol generators and a remote light sensor also has:
Select one:

a. EADIs and EHSIs
b. EADI and WXR display tubes
c. EADIs and EICAs
d. EHSIs and altitude indicator

A

a. EADIs and EHSIs

228
Q

Airspeed is shown:
Select one:

a. on both EHSIs
b. on both EADIs
c. only on the flight management CRT
d. only on the captain’s EHSI

A

b. on both EADIs

229
Q

Decision height is adjusted and set on the:
Select one:

a. ADI section of the EFIS control panel
b. HSI section of the EFIS control panel
c. flight management computer
d. ADI or HIS

A

a. ADI section of the EFIS control panel

230
Q

EHSI

EHSI display modes

A

VOR (exp WX.)

ILS (exp WX.)

MAP (EGPWS & TCAS & WX.)

PLAN

Selected on EHSI section on EFIS control panel

231
Q

EHSI

WX radar info are available in _______ modes

A

3

Expanded ILS
Expanded VOR
Map mode

232
Q

WXR can be displayed on:
Select one:

a. the captain’s EHSI only
b. the co-pilot’s EHSI only
c. both the captain’s and co-pilot’s CRTs
d. the EADI

A

c. both the captain’s and co-pilot’s CRTs

233
Q

Weather radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes?
Select one:

a. Plan, Exp ILS, Map
b. Plan, Exp ILS, Exp VOR
c. Map, ILS, VOR
d. Map, Exp ILS, Exp VOR

A

d. Map, Exp ILS, Exp VOR

234
Q

WXR display is controlled from:
Select one:

a. a special control panel
b. co-pilot’s EHSI control only
c. both captain’s and co-pilot’s EHSI panels
d. captain’s EHSI control only

A

c. both captain’s and co-pilot’s EHSI control panels

235
Q

What are the 4 principal components of a first-generation HUD?
Select one:

a. LCD Display, Collimator, Laser Projector, Combiner
b. Display Controller, Display Guidance Computer, Laser Projector, Phosphor-coated Windscreen
c. Display Controller, LCD Display, Overhead Unit, Combiner
d. Display Controller, Display Guidance Computer, Overhead Unit, Combiner

A

d. Display Controller, Display Guidance Computer, Overhead Unit, Combiner

236
Q

What does ‘conformity’ mean, when used in connection with a HUD?
Select one:

a. That the HUD is in conformity with JAR-25
b. A symbolic object and the actual object that it represents appear in the same place
c. That the HUD is in a display mode that does not represent the real world
d. That the HUD conforms to ICAO specifications

A

b. A symbolic object and the actual object that it represents appear in the same place

237
Q

HUD

What is the eye reference point?

A

The point where the pilot’s eyes are normally expected to be

238
Q

HUD

What is the purpose of the collimator?
Select one:

a. To focus the symbology at infinity
b. To increase the size of the eyebox
c. To confine the image to the eyebox
d. To focus the symbology at the same focal distance as the head-down instruments

A

a. To focus the symbology at infinity

239
Q

AP:

The fundamental components of an autopilot control loop are:
Select one:

a. Rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator
b. Torque limiter, error signal generator, servomotor
c. Servomotor, rate gyro, torque limiter, error signal generator
d. Rate gyro, servomotor, torque limiter

A

a. Rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator

240
Q

AP:

For an aircraft to operate at night and/or in IMC with 2 pilots the autopilot must be:
Select one:

a. a 2 axis autopilot
b. a 3 axis autopilot
c. an autopilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold
d. no autopilot is necessary

A

d. no autopilot is necessary

241
Q

AP:

The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:
Select one:

a. monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.
b. guiding the airplane path.
c. stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.
d. stabilizing, and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.

A

d. stabilizing, and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.

242
Q

AP:

An autopilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold is a minimum requirement for:
Select one:

a. Single pilot operation in VMC and IMC
b. Single pilot operation under IFR and at night
c. Dual pilot operation (in IFR)
d. Aircraft over 5700 kg

A

b. Single pilot operation under IFR and at night

243
Q

AP:

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:

  1. pitch attitude holding
  2. horizontal wing holding
  3. displayed heading or inertial track holding
  4. indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
  5. yaw damping
  6. VOR axis holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Select one:

a. 2, 4. and 5.
b. 1, 2, 3 and 6.
c. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d. 1, 2 and 5.

A

d. 1, 2 and 5.

  1. pitch attitude holding
  2. horizontal wing holding
  3. yaw damping
244
Q

AP:

What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P:

  1. Prevents snatching on disengagement
  2. Prevents snatching on engagement
  3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination
  4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
  5. Displays the control positions
  6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD button being selected

Select one:

a. 2, 4 & 6
b. 1, 3 & 5
c. 2, 3 & 5
d. 1, 4 & 6

A

a. 2, 4 & 6
2. Prevents snatching on engagement
4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD button being selected

245
Q

AP:

When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:
Select one:

a. react to altitude channels in Altitude Hold mode
b. relieve the pressure on the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
c. synchronize the longitudinal loop
d. relieve the pressure on the control column and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

A

b. relieve the pressure on the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

246
Q

AP:

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:

  1. pitch attitude holding
  2. horizontal wing holding
  3. indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
  4. altitude holding
  5. VOR axis holding
  6. yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Select one:

a. 1, 2, 3 and 6.
b. 3, 4 and 5.
c. 1, 2, and 6.
d. 1, 3, 4 and 5.

A

b. 3, 4 and 5.
- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
- altitude holding
- VOR axis holding

247
Q

AP:

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system:
Select one:

a. It operates over the full aircraft speed range.
b. It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
c. It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.
d. It only operates above a predetermined Mach number.

A

d. It only operates above a predetermined Mach number.

Armed in all phases of AP operation, and reduces effect of “Mach Tuck”

248
Q

AP:

Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot:

  1. To provide control about the lateral axis
  2. To prevent snatching on engaging the A/P
  3. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
  4. To prevent snatching on disengaging the A/P
  5. To allow the A/P to retain full elevator authority
  6. To trim for fuel imbalances laterally between wings

Select one:

a. 4, 5 & 6
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2, 4 & 5
d. 3, 4 & 5

A

d. 3, 4 & 5
- May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
- To prevent snatching on disengaging the A/P
- To allow the A/P to retain full elevator authority
p. 361

249
Q

AP:

The purpose of the automatic trim is to:

  1. reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator
  2. ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged
  3. maintain the same stabilityl/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

elect one:

a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2.
d. 1, 2, 3.

A

d. 1, 2, 3.
- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator
- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged
- maintain the same stabilityl/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelope
p. 361

250
Q

AP:

The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:

Select one:

a. reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).
b. transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.
c. automatically disenage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
d. set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.

A

b. transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.

251
Q

AP:

The purpose of Auto Throttle is:
Select one:

a. to maintain a pre-determined engine power or airplane speed
b. automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature
c. to deactivate manual thottles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot
d. to synchronize engines to avoid “yawing”

A

a. to maintain a pre-determined engine power or airplane speed

252
Q

AP:

A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:

Select one:

a. restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.
b. maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
c. maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
d. roll wings level and maintain the heading, obtained at that moment.

A

c. maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

253
Q

AP:

The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:

  1. there is a fault in the electrical power supply
  2. the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off
  3. there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
  4. there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Select one:

a. 1, 3, 4.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4.

A

d. 1, 2, 3, 4.

254
Q

AP:

The interception of a localiser beam by the autopilot takes place:
Select one:

a. according to an interception versus range computation
b. according to an interception versus radio deviation law
c. at a constant magnetic course
d. at a constant heading

A

d. at a constant heading

255
Q

AP:

Flight level change and altitude hold are examples of:
Select one:

a. Outer loop functions in pitch using the flight management computer program
b. Interlocking functions in pitch
c. Outer loop functions in pitch using manometric information
d. Inner loop functions in pitch using radio navigation information

A

c. Outer loop functions in pitch using manometric information

256
Q

AP:

When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:

Select one:

a. all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course lines.
b. aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.
c. a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
d. aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.

A

b. aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.

257
Q

AP:

In Heading Select mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input:

Select one:

a. of a fixed value equal to 20°.
b. proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.
c. of a fixed value equal to 27°.
d. proportional to the deviation between the selected heading, and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.

A

d. proportional to the deviation between the selected heading, and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.

258
Q

AP:

CWS is

(Control wheel steering)

A

manual flight mode, with AP engaged.

This enables control of pitch and roll axis.

(Input from control column transducers)

259
Q

AP:

CWS inhibit more than 6 degree bank in the following conditions

A
  • below 1500’

- FD VOR capture

260
Q

AP:

Normal opreration AP limits in Pitch and Roll are:

A

Pitch +/- 10 degrees

Rolls +/- 30 degrees

261
Q

AP:

Autoland depends on:

A
  • ILS LOC & GS
  • Approach lighting
  • Marker beacons
  • DME range indication
262
Q

AP:

Autoland requirements

A
  • Two independant APs
  • Two NAV systems
  • Two radio altimeters
263
Q

AP:

Fail passive / fail soft is defined as

A

ability of the system of the systems to withstand a failure, without compromising pax safety without excessive deviation of flight path, but willl not be able to carry out autoland
(LAND 2)

a 2 AP system

264
Q

AP:

Fail operational / fail active

A

ability of the system of the systems to withstand a failure, without compromising pax safety without excessive deviation of flight path, but can complete an auto landing (LAND 2)

a 3 AP system

NB: A failure will downgrade system to be FAIL PASSIVE

265
Q

AP:

Autoland checks LOC and GS are captured at ______ ft (radio alt)

A

1500’ RDA

266
Q

AP:

autoland flare mode engages at

A
  • 50’ RDA
  • 45’ Wheel height

ROD = 2’ / sec

267
Q

AP:

When TOGA button is depressed following happens

A
  • All autoland dis-engages
  • Singlemode AP
  • Speed to thrust mode (N1)
  • Assumes and calculates pitch for 2000’ min
  • Track is maintained at centreline
268
Q

AP:

At 200 ft on an auto-land:
Select one:

a. The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.
b. The ROLL OUT mode is engaged in the Roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.
c. The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE mode is engaged in the pitch channel.
d. The auto-throttle is maintaining the speed and the pitch channel is maintaining the height.

A

a. The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.

269
Q

AP:

During an automatic landing the autopilot…………

Select one:

a. and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least decision height
b. and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least the flare Incorrect
c. and the auto-throttle control until the roll-out, the pilot controls the power
d. and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least the roll-out

A

d. and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least the roll-out

270
Q

AP:

An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot:

Select one:

a. ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the power
b. and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out
c. and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll
d. and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power

A

c. and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll

271
Q

AP:

During an autoland the Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:

Select one:

a. descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
b. passes over the ILS inner marker.
c. descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
d. passes over the outer marker.

A

a. descends below a pre-set radio altitude.

272
Q

AP:

A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the final approach:

Select one:

a. until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected.
b. until the flare.
c. during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.
d. until reaching decision height.

A

c. during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

273
Q

AP:

By pressing a TO/GA button on the throttle at 200ft AGL during an autoland it initiates the go around, which of the
following occur:

  1. A/T will select GA thrust
  2. A/P carries out the climb
  3. A/P retracts the gear and flaps automatically
  4. The PILOT carries out the climb
  5. The PILOT retracts the gear and flaps
  6. The FD bars activate and the FD system directs the GA mode

Select one:

a. 1, 2 & 5
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 1, 2 & 6
d. 4, 5 & 6

A

a. 1, 2 & 5

274
Q

AP:

In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is considered:

Select one:

a. “fail passive”
b. “fail safe”
c. “fail operational”
d. “fail hard”

A

a. “fail passive”

275
Q

AP:

“LOC ARMED” lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means:

Select one:

a. localiser alarm is on
b. a/c is on localiser centerline
c. localiser beam captured
d. localiser beam armed and awaiting capture

A

d. localiser beam armed and awaiting capture

276
Q

AP:

For an autoland system to meet fail passive criteria it must:

Select one:

a. Withstand a system failure without excessive deviations from flight path
b. continue with an autoland below alert height after a single failure
c. continue with an autoland below decision height after a single failure
d. Have at least three autopilots

A

a. Withstand a system failure without excessive deviations from flight path

277
Q

AP:

Which mode will a fail operational Auto Flight system work in after a failure of an Autopilot?

Select one:

a. Fail safe mode
b. Hybrid mode
c. Fail passive mode
d. Fail redundant

A

c. Fail passive mode

278
Q

AP:

Autothrottle inputs

A
  • ADC
  • INS
  • N1 sensor
  • AOA
  • RDO alt
  • Flap pos
  • LDG gear switch
  • Eng acc unit (Thrust rev)
279
Q

EPR is

A

Engine pressure ration

Air Pressure at the turbine inlet compared to compressor intake

280
Q

FADEC is

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control - unit

281
Q

AP:

Auto throttle goes into armed at _____ feet or _____ seconds after liftoff

A

400’ RADALT

18 sec

282
Q

AP:

TOGA auto throttle is armed when

A

descending below 2000’ RADALT

283
Q

AP:

In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check the:

Select one:

a. position of the throttles.
b. ND (Navigation Display).
c. PFD (Primary Flight Display)
d. TCC (Thrust Control Computer).

A

c. PFD (Primary Flight Display)

284
Q

AP:

What does FADEC control?

  1. Auto shutdown of engine when exceeding N1 thrust
  2. Auto shutdown of engine when exceeding max EGT
  3. Thrust management
  4. Automatic start sequence
    Select one:

a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4

A

b. 3 and 4

285
Q

AP:

Regarding the autopilot and auto-throttle, which of the following is incorrect:

Select one:

a. A/P holds altitude in cruise with ALT HOLD, A/T controls IAS/Mach
b. A/P holds FMS selected IAS in V NAV climb mode, A/T controls thrust
c. A/P holds IAS/Mach when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T controls thrust
d. A/P holds rate of climb in VS mode, A/T controls thrust

A

c. A/P holds IAS/Mach when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T controls thrust

286
Q

AP:

Which of the following are functions of a FADEC control system?

  1. Gas generator control for steady state and transient engine operation within safe limits
  2. Engine limits protection (N1, N2, EGT)
  3. Oil pressure and temperature limits protection
  4. Automating engine start sequencing
  5. Control of thrust reverser deployment
  6. Transmission of engine parameters for flight deck indication
  7. Automatic in-flight shut down in event of excessive EGT

Select one:

a. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7
b. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
c. 1, 4, 6, and 7
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7

A

b. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

287
Q

AP:

Auto-throttle can hold which of the following:

  1. Speed
  2. Mach No.
  3. Altitude
  4. N1/ EPR
  5. VOR capture
  6. Vertical profile

Select one:

a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 1, 2 & 6
d. 1, 3 & 5

A

a. 1, 2 & 4

  1. Speed
  2. Mach No.
  3. N1/ EPR
288
Q

RDO ALT:

In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon:

a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured

Select one:

a. a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured
b. a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen
c. a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured
d. a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured

A

c. a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured

289
Q

Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the

Select one:

a. SHF frequency band
b. UHF frequency band
c. HF frequency band
d. VHF frequency band

A

a. SHF frequency band

290
Q

The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

Select one:

a. myriametric
b. centimetric
c. decimetric
d. metric

A

b. centimetric

291
Q

The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

Select one:

a. 420 MHz to 440 MHz
b. 460 MHz to 480 MHz
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz
d. 4.6 GHz to 4.8 GHz

A

c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz

292
Q

For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the

Select one:

a. DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds
b. Height indication is removed
c. DH lamp flashes red
d. Audio warning signal sounds

A

b. Height indication is removed

293
Q

The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main wheels touch down on the runway. For this reason, it is necessary to:

Select one:

a. have a specific radio altimeter dedicated to automatic landing
b. adjust the gross height according to the aircraft instantaneous pitch
c. change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout
d. compensate for residual height and cable length

A

d. compensate for residual height and cable length

294
Q

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

Select one:
a. height of the aircraft above the ground at any time

b. height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time
c. height of the aorcraft with regard to the runway
d. altitude of the aircraft

A

b. height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time

295
Q

On a EFIS equipped aircraft, the Radio Altimeter indication is likely to be found:

Select one:

a. On the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator)
b. On the ND (Navigation Display)
c. On the PFD (Primary Flight Display)
d. On the EHSI (Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator)

A

c. On the PFD (Primary Flight Display)

296
Q

On a basic Radio Altimeter, the pointer will disappear from view when:

Select one:

a. descending below the selected DH
b. on the ground
c. climbing through 2500’ height
d. not properly tuned on the RATP (Radio Altimeter Tuning Panel)

A

c. climbing through 2500’ height

297
Q

The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

1) operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range
2) are of the pulsed type
3) are of the frequency modulation type
4) have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft
5) have a precision of +/- 3% or +/-1ft whichever is greater

The combination of the correct statements is:

Select one:

a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 5

A

b. 3, 5
3) are of the frequency modulation type
5) have a precision of +/- 3% or +/-1ft whichever is greater

298
Q

FD:

Mode “Localizer ARM” active on flight director means:

Select one:

a. Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
b. System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line
c. Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline
d. Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

A

b. System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line

299
Q

The essential components of a flight director are:

1-A computer

2-An automatic pilot

3-An autothrottle

4-Command bars

Select one:

a. 1,2
b. 1,4
c. 2,4
d. 2,3

A

b. 1,4

1-A computer
4-Command bars

300
Q

FD:

The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:

Select one:

a. allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45°intercept angle
b. about his position with regard to a radioelectric axix
c. allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way
d. allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle

A

c. allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way

301
Q

FD:

Two types of Flight Director command bars are:

Select one:

a. Cross bars and slope bars
b. Slope bars and director bars
c. director bars and V-bars
d. cross bars and V-bars

A

d. cross bars and V-bars

302
Q

FD:

After take-off, in TO mode, the FD pitch bar will command:

Select one:

a. Pitch to maintain second segment climb gradient or better
b. Pitch to maintain V2+20kts
c. Pitch to maintain positive ROC
d. Pitch to maintain selected ROC

A

b. Pitch to maintain V2+20kts

303
Q

After take-off in TO mode, the FD roll bar will command:

Select one:

a. Turn towards and to maintain selected heading
b. Constant heading
c. Turn towards next waypoint
d. Constant track

A

d. Constant track

304
Q

FD gain scheduling

Select one:

a. Calculate TAS vs. “change in heading” to schedule correct bank angle command
b. Ensure proper reception of radio beacontransmissions
c. Anticipates level off based on turn closure rate
d. Reduces the commanded corrections as an ILS approach progresses

A

d. Reduces the commanded corrections as an ILS approach progresses

305
Q

What does the radio altimeter measure?

A

Height above ground

306
Q

What is the radio altimeter used for?

A
  • Approaches

- turns on above 2500’

307
Q

Explain how the RA works

A

SHF modulation between separate transmitter and receiver

4200 GHZ

308
Q

What does FMS and FMC and CDU stand for?

A
  • Flight management system
  • Flight management computer
  • Control Display Unit
309
Q

Explain the differences between the FMC and the FMS

A

FMC is the central part of whats generally called the FMS

310
Q

Name a few of the inputs to the FMS

A
  • ADC
  • GPS
  • WX
  • VOR
  • DME
  • INS/IRS
311
Q

How many databases are found in the FMS and which one is the permanent one?

A
  • Nav (AIRRAC 28 days)

- Perf

312
Q

Explain what the cost index in the FMS does.

A

x

313
Q

What kind of approaches is the FMS approved to fly?

A

x

314
Q

What is the lateral offset function on the FMS? (Hint: SLOP)

A

x

315
Q

What purpose does the RTA function serve in the FMS?

A

Required time of arrival.

TOT will define the TOA. It is vital that a CTOT will be maintained

316
Q

Name four parameters you will find on the EADI/PFD

A
  • IAS/CAS
  • V speed
  • Heading
  • Attitude
  • AP channels engaged
317
Q

Name four parameters you will find on the EHSI/ND

A
  • ILS
  • VOR
  • Map
  • plan
  • WX
318
Q

On which screen and in what mode can you see the following information: Weather radar, TCAS targets, TCAS RA, Terrain info

A

ND

319
Q

How do you know which mode the FD is in? What is the difference between an Active mode and an Armed mode.

A

x

ATPL (10 decks)

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